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  • AJAX Post Not Sending Data?

    - by Jascha
    I can't for the life of me figure out why this is happening. This is kind of a repost, so forgive me, but I have new data. I am running a javascript log out function called logOut() that has make a jQuery ajax call to a php script... function logOut(){ var data = new Object; data.log_out = true; $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://www.mydomain.com/functions.php', data: data, success: function() { alert('done'); } }); } the php function it calls is here: if(isset($_POST['log_out'])){ $query = "INSERT INTO `token_manager` (`ip_address`) VALUES('logOutSuccess')"; $connection->runQuery($query); // <-- my own database class... // omitted code that clears session etc... die(); } Now, 18 hours out of the day this works, but for some reason, every once in a while, the POST data will not trigger my query. (this will last about an hour or so). I figured out the post data is not being set by adding this at the end of my script... $query = "INSERT INTO `token_manager` (`ip_address`) VALUES('POST FAIL')"; $connection->runQuery($query); So, now I know for certain my log out function is being skipped because in my database is the following data: if it were NOT being skipped, my data would show up like this: I know it is being skipped for two reasons, one the die() at the end of my first function, and two, if it were a success a "logOutSuccess" would be registered in the table. Any thoughts? One friend says it's a janky hosting company (hostgator.com). I personally like them because they are cheap and I'm a fan of cpanel. But, if that's the case??? Thanks in advance. -J

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  • PHP/Javascript limiting amount of checkboxes

    - by Carl294
    Hi everyone Im trying to limit the amount of checkboxes that can be checked, in this case only 3 can be checked. When using plain HTML this works fine. The code can be seen below. HTML example <td ><input type=checkbox name=ckb value=2 onclick='chkcontrol()';></td><td>Perl</td> Javascript Function <script type="text/javascript"> function chkcontrol(j) { var total=0; for(var i=0; i < document.form1.ckb.length; i++){ if(document.form1.ckb[i].checked){ total =total +1;} if(total > 3){ alert("Please Select only three") document.form1.ckb[j].checked = false; return false; } } } </script> The problem appears when replacing the fixed HTML values with values from a MYSQL database. All the information appears correctly, and can be posted to another page via a submit button. However, it seems like the 'value' assigned to each record from the database is not making its way too the javascript function. <td><input name="checkbox[]" type="checkbox" value="<?php echo $rows['TCA_QID'];?>" onclick="chkcontrol();"></td> I have tried changed the name in the javascript function to match the 'checkbox' name.Any advice would be greatly appreciated Thanks

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  • Why does multiple sessions started on the same page gets the same session id?

    - by Calmarius
    I tryed the following: <?php session_name('user'); session_start(); // sets an 'user' cookie with session id. // This session stores the user's login data. // Its an ordinary session. $USERSESSION=$_SESSION; // saving this session $userSessId=session_id(); session_write_close(); //closing this session session_name('chatroom'); session_start(); // set a 'chatroom' cookie but contains the same session id and points to the same data :( . // This session would be used to store the chat text. This session would be // shared between all users joined in this chat room by setting the same session id for all members. // by calling session_regenerate_id would make a diffent session id for every user and it won't be a chat room anymore. ?> So I want to do a chat like thing with sessions. On the client side it would be done with ajax that polls this php page in every 5-10 seconds. Sessions may be cached in the server's memory so it can be accessible fast. I can store the chat in the database but my service runs on a free webhost which is limited, only 4 mysql connections allowed at a time which is almost nothing. I try to touch my database as least times as possible.

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  • updating multiple nodes in xml with xquery and xdmp:node-replace

    - by morja
    Hi all, I wnat to update an XML document in my xml database (Marklogic). I have xml as input and want to replace each node that exists in the target xml. If a node does not exist it would be great if it gets added, but thats maybe another task. My XML in the database: <user> <username>username</username> <firstname>firstname</firstname> <lastname>lastname</lastname> <email>[email protected]</email> <comment>comment</comment> </user> The value of $user_xml: <user> <firstname>new firstname</firstname> <lastname>new lastname</lastname> </user> My function so far: declare function update-user ( $username as xs:string, $user_xml as node()) as empty-sequence() { let $uri := user-uri($username) return for $node in $user_xml/user return xdmp:node-replace(fn:doc($uri)/user/fn:node-name($node), $node) }; First of all I cannot iterate over $user_xml/user. If I try to iterate over $user_xml I get "arg1 is not of type node()" exception. But maybe its the wrong approach anyway? Does anybody maybe have sample code how to do this?

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  • Association Mapping Details confusion?

    - by AaronLS
    I have never understood why the associations in EntityFramework look the way they do in the Mapping Details window. When I select the line between 2 tables for an association, for example FK_ApplicationSectionsNodes_FormItems, it shows this: Association Maps to ApplicationSectionNodes FormItems (key symbol) FormItemId:Int32 <--> FormItemId:int ApplicationSectionNodes (key symbol) NodeId:Int32 <--> (key symbol) NodeId : int Fortunately this one was create automatically for me based on the foreign key constraints in my database, but whenever no constraints exist, I have a hard to creating associations manually(when the database doesn't have a diagram setup) because I don't understand the mapping details for associations. FormItems table has a primary key identity column FormItemId, and ApplicationSectionNodes contains a FormItemId column that is the foreign key and has NodeId as a primary key identity column. What really makes no sense to me is why the association has anything listed about the NodeId, when NodeId doesn't have anything to do with the foreign key relationship? (It's even more confusing with self referencing relationships, but maybe if I could understand the above case I'd have a better handle). CREATE TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes]( [NodeID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [OutlineText] [varchar](5000) NULL, [ParentNodeID] [int] NULL, [FormItemId] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_ApplicationSectionNodes] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [NodeID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY], CONSTRAINT [UQ_ApplicationSectionNodesFormItemId] UNIQUE NONCLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] FOREIGN KEY([ParentNodeID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] ([NodeID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItems] ([FormItemId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] GO FormItems Table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[FormItems]( [FormItemId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [FormItemType] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_FormItems] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemType]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItemTypes] ([FormItemTypeId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] GO

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  • Keeping cached browser data inside ASP update panel textboxes/dropdowns for browser back click

    - by pmlevere
    I'm new in VB.net/asp and am running a VB web application in a visual database program called IronSpeed designer. I'm primarily using IronSpeed in this case for its login/role security features. I have a basic two page setup for this app. The user logs in then is taken to AccountEntry.aspx, they enter data into textboxes and select some dropdown values that are linked to a sql database, then they click "submit" to move to Results.aspx. On Results.aspx, the user can change data and then generate several types of reports (PDF, Excel, etc). I'm used to setting up ASP controls inside ASPContent areas, and in these areas if a user performs a browser back click the previously entered data will still be on the page for potential user modification. However in this web app, IronSpeed is setting up the page and asp controls inside an asp update panel. It appears inside an asp update panel, cached values can't be seen on a browser back click. In this case, it's important that the orginally entered values still be there for the user experience if the user advances to Results.aspx then clicks browser back to modify a value on AccountEntry.aspx. If I have to I'll setup Session Variables and disable browser clicking, but that is last resort. Is there any way to save cached data inside an asp update panel and have it there for a browser back click?

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  • What should i do for accomodating large scale data storage and retrieval?

    - by kailashbuki
    There's two columns in the table inside mysql database. First column contains the fingerprint while the second one contains the list of documents which have that fingerprint. It's much like an inverted index built by search engines. An instance of a record inside the table is shown below; 34 "doc1, doc2, doc45" The number of fingerprints is very large(can range up to trillions). There are basically following operations in the database: inserting/updating the record & retrieving the record accoring to the match in fingerprint. The table definition python snippet is: self.cursor.execute("CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `fingerprint` (fp BIGINT, documents TEXT)") And the snippet for insert/update operation is: if self.cursor.execute("UPDATE `fingerprint` SET documents=CONCAT(documents,%s) WHERE fp=%s",(","+newDocId, thisFP))== 0L: self.cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `fingerprint` VALUES (%s, %s)", (thisFP,newDocId)) The only bottleneck i have observed so far is the query time in mysql. My whole application is web based. So time is a critical factor. I have also thought of using cassandra but have less knowledge of it. Please suggest me a better way to tackle this problem.

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  • In App Purchase Unique Identifying Data

    - by dageshi
    O.K so I'm writing a iPhone travel guide, you purchase a subscription to a travel guide for 3 months, it downloads a fairly hefty database and for 3 months that database gets updated weekly with new stuff. Now what I'd like to do is make the user enter their email address as a one off action before they purchase their first guide, for China say. The purpose for doing this is 1) To allow me to contact the user by email when they add a note/tip for a particular place (the app will allow them to send notes & information to me) 2) To Uniquely identify who has purchased the subscription so that if they wipe their device and reinstall the app they can plug the email address in and pickup their subscriptions again. Or so they can use the same subscription on another device they own. My concerns are 1) Will Apple allow the email method of restoring functionality to a second or restored device? 2) As long as I tell the user what I'm using their email address for (aka I won't sell it to anyone else and use it for X purposes) will it be o.k to ask for said email address? And as a side note, can I tack the devices unique id onto my server comms to track devices or is apple going to through a hissy fit about that as well?

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  • Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

    - by Ben Robinson
    We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

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  • DBTransactions between stateless calls using GUIDs

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I'm looking to add transactional support to my DB engine and providing to Abstract Transaction Handling down to passing in Guids with the DB Action Command. The DB engine would run similar to: private static Database DB; public static Dictionary<Guid,DBTransaction> Transactions = new ...() public static void DoDBAction(string cmdstring,List<Parameter> parameters,Guid TransactionGuid) { DBCommand cmd = BuildCommand(cmdstring,parameters); if(Transactions.ContainsKey(TransactionGuid)) cmd.Transaction = Transactions[TransactionGuid]; DB.ExecuteScalar(cmd); } public static BuildCommand(string cmd, List<Parameter> parameters) { // Create DB command from EntLib Database and assign parameters } public static Guid BeginTransaction() { // creates new Transaction adding it to "Transactions" and opens a new connection } public static Guid Commit(Guid g) { // Commits Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } public static Guid Rollback(Guid g) { // Rolls back Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } The Calling system would run similar to: Guid g try { g = DBEngine.BeginTransaction() DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring1, parameters,g) // do some other stuff DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring2, parameters2,g) // sit here and wait for a response from other item DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring3, parameters3,g) DBEngine.Commit(g) } catch(Exception){ DBEngine.Rollback(g);} Does this interfere with .NET connection pooling (other than a connection be accidently left open)? Will EntLib keep the connection open until the commit or rollback?

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  • Hibernate saveorUpdate method problem

    - by umesh awasthi
    Hi all, i am trying to work on with Hibernate (Database side for first time) and some how struck in choosing best possible way to use saveOrUpdate or Save.Update i have a destination POJO class and its other attributes which needs to be updated along with the Destination entity. i am getting an XML file to be imported and i am using the following code to update/save the destination entity along with its attribute classes. try{ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().beginTransaction(); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().saveOrUpdate(entity); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().commit(); } catch(Exception e){ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().rollback(); } finally{ getSessionFactory().close(); } everything is working fine untill i am using the same session instance.but later on when i am using the same XML file to update the destination PO for certain attributes it giving me the following error. SEVERE: Duplicate entry 'MNLI' for key 'DESTINATIONID' 9 Jan, 2011 4:58:11 PM org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener performExecutions SEVERE: Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException: Could not execute JDBC batch update at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:94) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.executeBatch(AbstractBatcher.java:275) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:114) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:109) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareBatchStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:244) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2242) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2678) at org.hibernate.action.EntityInsertAction.execute(EntityInsertAction.java:79) i am using UUID as primary key for the Destination table and in destination table i have a destination id which is unique.but i can understand that in the secodn case hibernate is not able to find if there is already an entry for the same destination in the DB and trying to execute insert statement rather than update. one possible solution is i can user destinationid to check if there is already a destination inplace with the given id and based on the results i can issue save or update command. my question is can this be achieve by any other good way..? Thanks in advance

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  • Can I use foreign key restrictions to return meaningful UI errors with PHP

    - by Shane
    I want to start by saying that I am a big fan of using foreign keys and have a tendency to use them even on small projects to keep my database from being filled with orphaned data. On larger projects I end up with gobs of keys which end up covering upwards of 8 - 10 layers of data. I want to know if anyone could suggest a graceful way of handling 'expected errors' from the MySQL database in a way that I can construct meaningful messages for the end user. I will explain 'expected errors' with an example. Lets say I have a set of tables used for basic discussions: discussion questions responses users Hierarchically they would probably look something like this: -users --discussion ---questions ----responses When I attempt to delete a user the FKs will check discussions and if any discussion exist the deletion is restricted, deleting discussion checks questions, deleting questions checks responses. An 'expected error' in this case would be attempting to delete a user--unless they are newly created I can anticipate that one or more foreign keys will fail causing an error. What I WANT to do is to catch that error on deletion and be able to tell the end user something like 'We're sorry, but all discussions must be removed before you can delete this user...'. Now I know I can keep and maintain matching arrays in PHP and map specific errors to messages but that is messy and prone to becoming stagnant, or I could manually run a set of selects prior to attempting the deletion, but then I am doing just as much work as without using FKs. Any help here would be greatly appreciated, or if I am just looking at this completely wrong then please let me know. On a side note I generally use CodeIgniter for my application development, so if that would open up an avenue through that framework please consider that in your answers. Thanks in Advance

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  • How can I shared controller logic in ASP.NET MVC for 2 controllers, where they are overriden

    - by AbeP
    Hello, I am trying to implement user-friendly URLS, while keeping the existing routes, and was able to do so using the ActionName tag on top of my controller (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/436866/can-you-overload-controller-methods-in-asp-net-mvc) I have 2 controllers: ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { ... } public ActionResult Index(long id) { ... } Basically, what I am trying to do is I store the user-friendly URL in the database for each project. If the user enters the URL /Project/TopSecretProject/, the action UserFriendlyProjectIndex gets called. I do a database lookup and if everything checks out, I want to apply the exact same logic that is used in the Index action. I am basically trying to avoid writing duplicate code. I know I can separate the common logic into another method, but I wanted to see if there is a built-in way of doing this in ASP.NET MVC. Any suggestions? I tried the following and I go the View could not be found error message: [ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { var filteredProjectName = projectName.EscapeString().Trim(); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filteredProjectName)) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); using (var db = new PIMPEntities()) { var project = db.Project.Where(p => p.UserFriendlyUrl == filteredProjectName).FirstOrDefault(); if (project == null) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); return View(Index(project.ProjectId)); } } Here's the error message: The view 'UserFriendlyProjectIndex' or its master could not be found. The following locations were searched: ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx Project\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark Shared\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark I am using the SparkViewEngine as the view engine and LINQ-to-Entities, if that helps. thank you!

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  • Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

    - by Aki Iskandar
    Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

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  • Oracle manually add an FK constraint

    - by Oxymoron
    Alright, since a client wants to automate a certain process, which includes creating a new key structure in a LIVE database, I need to create relations between tables.columns. Now I've found the tables ALL_CONS_COLS en USER_CONSTRAINTS to hold information about constraints. If I were to manually create constraints, by inserting into these tables, I should be able to recreate the original constraints. My question: are there any more tables I should look into? Do you have an alternate suggestions, as this sounds VERY dirty and error prone to begin with. Current modus operandi: Create a new column in each table for the PK; Generate a guid for this PK; Create a new column in each table for the FKs; Fetch the guid associated with the FK; ....... done sofar...... Add new constraint based on the old one; Remove old constraint; Rename new columns; This is kind of dodgy and I'd rather change my method, any ideas would be helpful. To put it different, client wants to change key structure from int to guid on a live database. What's the best way to approach this

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  • Projects integration question

    - by qkrsppopcmpt
    Other team has one legacy system, which is data aggregators. It is implemented as web service using JAVA, SOAP,MTOM,Tomcat and Axis2. They have wsdl files defining functionalities such as search, retrieve data, upload, download. Our team has a new developed website which is developed using RoR with mySQL. It is sort of social networking. Users can register, add friends, upload images, videos. Also, they can search data. We are required to connect the two systems. One possible solution I think is - Adding components into our website. The component invoke services on the aggregators. - Synchronize website database to the aggregators. My doubts are: 1. How to add components in our websites? The components should use Java or Ruby or adapter from java to ruby. It is possible using ruby invoke web service. I think it should work since it is the point of web service. If so, can ruby call those services in wsdl directly? But how to deal with those different data structure? How to synchroinze our database to the aggregators. I think the best way is also through web service invocation such as upload. That means, we have to export the db records into xml files and then write some tools to upload. The web service project support MTOM. So, it is fine to upload huge data. Am I on the right record? Can anybody give me some hint. Thanks.

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  • What's the best way to transfer a large dataset over a .NET web service?

    - by Malvineous
    I've inherited a C# .NET application which talks to a web service, and the web service talks to an Oracle database. I need to add an export function to the UI, to produce an Excel spreadsheet of some of the data. I have created a web service function to run a database query, load the data into a DataTable and then return it, which works fine for a small number of rows. However there is enough data in the full run that the client application locks up for a few minutes and then returns a timeout error. Obviously this isn't the best way to retrieve such a large dataset. Before I go ahead and come up with some dodgy way of splitting the call, I'm wondering if there is already something in place that can handle this. At the moment I'm thinking of a startExport function then repeatedly calling a next50Rows function until there is no data left, but because web services are stateless this means I'm going to have to keep some sort of ID number around and deal with the associated permissions. It would mean that I don't have to load the entire data set into the web server's memory though, which is one good thing. So if anyone knows a better way to retrieve a large amount of data (in a table format) over a .NET web service, please let me know!

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  • Hibernate does not allow an embedded object with an int field to be null?

    - by Jason Novak
    Hibernate does not allow me to persist an object that contains an null embedded object with an integer field. For example, if I have a class called Thing that looks like this @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; public Part part; } where Part is an embeddable class that looks like this @Embeddable public class Part { public String a; public int b; } then trying to persist a Thing object with a null Part causes Hibernate to throw an Exception. In particular, this code Thing th = new Thing(); th.id = "thing.1"; th.part = null; session.saveOrUpdate(th); causes Hibernate to throw this Exception org.hibernate.PropertyValueException: not-null property references a null or transient value: com.ace.moab.api.jobs.Thing.part My guess is that this is happening because Part is an embedded class and so Part.a and Part.b are simply columns in the Thing database table. Since the Thing.part is null Hibernate wants to set the Part.a and Part.b column values to null for the row for thing.1. However, Part.b is an integer and Hibernate will not allow integer columns in the database to be null. This is what causes the Exception, right? So I am looking for workarounds for this problem. I noticed making Part.b an Integer instead of an int seems to work, but for reasons I won't bore you with this is not a good option for us. Thanks!

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  • Where to store site settings: DB? XML? CONFIG? CLASS FILES?

    - by Emin
    I am re-building a news portal of which already have a large number of visits every day. One of the major concerns when re-building this site was to maximize performance and speed. Having said this, we have done many things from caching, to all sort of other measures to ensure speed. Now towards the end of the project, I am having a dilemma of where to store my site settings that would least affect performance. The site settings will include things such as: Domain, DefaultImgPath, Google Analytics code, default emails of editors as well as more dynamic design/display feature settings such as the background color of specific DIVs and default color for links etc.. As far as I know, I have 4 choices in storing all these info. Database: Storing general settings in the DB and caching them may be a solution however, I want to limit the access to the database for only necessary and essential functions of the project which generally are insert/update/delete news items, author articles etc.. XML: I can store these settings in an XML file but I have not done this sort of thing before so I don't know what kind of problems -if any- I might face in the future. CONFIG: I can also store these settings in web.config CLASS FILE: I can hard code all these settings in a SiteSettings class, but since the site admin himself will be able to edit these settings, It may not be the best solution. Currently, I am more close to choosing web.config but letting people fiddle with it too often is something I do not want. E.g. if somehow, I miss out a validation for something and it breaks the web.config, the whole site will go down. My concern basically is that, I cannot forsee any possible consequences of using any of the methods above (or is there any other?), I was hoping to get this question over to more experienced people out here who hopefully help make my decision.

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  • HOWTO: implement a jQuery version of ASP.Net MVC "Strongly Typed Partial Views"

    - by Sam Carleton
    I am working on a multi-page assessment form where the questions/responses are database driven. Currently I the basic system working with Html.BeginForm via standard ASP.Net MVC. At this point in time, the key to the whole system is the 'Strongly Typed Partial Views'. When the question/response is read from the database, the response type determines which derived model is created and added to the collection. The main view it iterates through the collection and uses the 'Strongly Typed Partial Views' system of ASP.Net MVC to determine which view to render the correct type of response (radio button, drop down, or text box). I would like to change this process from a Html.BeginForm to Ajax.BeginForm. The problem is I don't have a clue as to how to implement the dynamic creation of the question/response in the JavaScript/jQuery world. Any thoughts and/or suggestions? Here is the current code to generate the dynamic form: @using (Html.BeginForm(new { mdsId = @Model.MdsId, sectionId = @Model.SectionId })) { <div class="SectionTitle"> <span>Section @Model.SectionName - @Model.SectionDescription</span> <span style="float: right">@Html.CheckBoxFor(x => x.ShowUnansweredQuestions) Show only unaswered questions</span> </div> @Html.HiddenFor(x => x.PrevSectionId) @Html.HiddenFor(x => x.NextSectionId) for (var i = 0; i < Model.answers.Count(); i++) { @Html.EditorFor(m => m.answers[i]); } }

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  • Ideas Needed for a Base Code System

    - by Tegan Snyder
    I've developed a PHP web application that is currently in need of a strategic restructuring. Currently when we setup new clients we give them the entire code base on a subdomain of our main domain and create a new table for them in the database. This results in each client having the entire codebase, meaning when we make bug changes, fixes we have to go back and apply them independently across all clients and this is a pain. What I'd like to create is a base code server that holds all the core PHP files. base.domain.com Then all of our clients (client.domain.com) will only need a few files: config.php would have the database connection information. index.php - displays the login box if session non-existant, otherwise it loads baseline code via remote includes to base.domain.com. My question is does my logic seem feasible? How do other people handle similar situations by having a base code? Also.... Is it even possbile to remotely include PHP files from base.domain.com and include them in client.domain.com? Thanks, Tegan

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  • PHP Exceptions in Classes

    - by mike condiff
    I'm writing a web application (PHP) for my friend and have decided to use my limited OOP training from Java. My question is what is the best way to note in my class/application that specific critical things failed without actually breaking my page. Currently my problem is I have an Object "SummerCamper" which takes a camper_id as it's argument to load all of the necessary data into the object from the database. Say someone specifies a camper_id in the querystring that does not exist, I pass it to my objects constructor and the load fails. Currently I don't see a way for me to just return false from the constructor. I have read I could possibly do this with Exceptions, throwing an exception if no records are found in the database or if some sort of validation fails on input of the camper_id from the application etc. However, I have not really found a great way to alert my program that the Object Load has failed. I tried returning false from within the CATCH but the Object still persists in my php page. I do understand I could put a variable $is_valid = false if the load fails and then check the Object using a get method but I think there may be better ways. What is the best way of achieving the essential termination of an object if a load fails? Should I load data into the object from outside the constructor? Is there some osrt of design pattern that I should look into? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Dynamic TextBox on LinkButton click

    - by Alex Peta
    I am creating dynamic TextBoxes in a page by clicking a LinkButton. However, after that, if the page is submitted, I can't find the items created dynamically, thus, can't send the information to the database. protected void lbAddTag_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { for (int i = 0; i < 3;i++ ) { CreateTextBox("txtTag-" + i.ToString()); } } private void CreateTextBox(string ID) { TextBox txt = new TextBox(); txt.ID = ID; txt.Width = Unit.Pixel(300); //txt.TextChanged += new EventHandler(OnTextChanged); txt.AutoPostBack = false; tagsPanel.Controls.Add(txt); Literal lt = new Literal(); lt.Text = "<br /><br />"; tagsPanel.Controls.Add(lt); } If I put: foreach (Control c in tagsPanel.Controls) { if (c is TextBox) { lblError.Text += c.ClientID + " , "; } } in the lbAddTag_Click method I can see the items, and they exist, but if I submit the page and try to insert the values in the database nothing... Any hint is much appreciated.

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  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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  • Oracle Forms on-button-pressed trigger to solve three scenarios

    - by DBase486
    Hello, I'm writing a when-button-pressed trigger on a save button for an Oracle Forms 6i form, and it has to fulfill a couple of scenarios. Here's some background information: the fields we're primarily concerned with are: n_number, alert_id, end_date For all three scenarios we are comparing candidate records against the following records in the database (for the sake of argument, let's assume they're the only records in the database so far): alert_id|| n_number|| end_date ------------------------------------- 1|| 5|| _______ 2|| 6|| 10/25/2009 Scenario 1: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 5 end_date NULL Objective: prevent the user from committing duplicate rows Scenario 2: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 10 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id already exists, but allow the user the ability to commit the row, if desired. Scenario 3: The user enters a new record: alert_id 2 n_number 6 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id has occurred in the past (i.e. it has a not-null end_date), but allow the user to commit the row, if desired. I've written the code, which seems to comply with the first two scenarios, but prevents me from fulfilling the third. Issues: When I enter the third scenario case, I am prompted to commit the record, but when I attempt this, the "duplicate_stop" alert pops up, preventing me. Issues: I'm getting the following error: ORA-01843: not a valid month. While testing the code for the third scenario in Toad (hard-coding the values, etc) things seemed to be fine. Why would I encounter these problems at run-time? Help is very much appreciated. Thank you

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