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  • Memory leak in PHP with Symfony + Doctrine

    - by Nicklas Ansman
    I'm using PHP with the Symfony framework (with Doctrine as my ORM) to build a spider that crawls some sites. My problem is that the following code generates a memory leak: $q = $this -> createQuery('Product p'); if($store) { $q -> andWhere('p.store_id = ?', $store -> getId()) -> limit(1); } $q -> andWhere('p.name = ?', $name); $data = $q -> execute(); $q -> free(true); $data -> free(true); return NULL; This code is placed in a subclass of Doctrine_Table. If I comment out the execute part (and of course the $data - free(true)) the leak stops. This has led me to the conclusion that it's the Doctrine_Collection that's causing the leak. Any ideas on what I can do to fix this? I'd be happy to provide more info on the problem if you need it. Regards Nicklas

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  • Update Web Reference in Visual Studio

    - by NeilD
    Hi, I have inherited a web site project that makes use of a number of WCF Web Services hosted on a BizTalk server. We have two environments that I need to deploy this project to, with different URLs for the different BizTalk servers. i.e. In the Staging environment, I need to point the services at xx.xx.xx.101 In the Live environment, I need to point them at xx.xx.xx.102, or whatever. Currently, we've got all of the URLs stored in keys in the web.config file, so that we can change them dynamically... Unfortunately this isn't working! If I change the URL in the web.config to something other than what the project was compiled with, I get an error when calling the service: Server did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: xx.xx.xx.101\ServiceName\MethodName I'm told that the only way they've known to deploy this is to update the web.config URLs, change all of the web references in Visual Studio to match, click on "update web reference" for each reference in Visual Studio, and then compile. It's driving me mad! I've written a pre-build NAnt script to go through and replace all instances of the URL found anywhere in the project directory, and even that isn't making any difference. There must be something else being pulled down from the service when I click the "update reference", but I'm new to working with web services, and so I'm not sure what. Does anyone have any ideas? Is there a way to do this programatically? Thanks.

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  • Imlpementations of an Interface with Different Types?

    - by b3njamin
    Searched as best I could but unfortunately I've learned nothing relevant; basically I'm trying to work around the following problem in C#... For example, I have three possible references (refA, refB, refC) and I need to load the correct one depending on a configuration option. So far however I can't see a way of doing it that doesn't require me to use the name of said referenced object all through the code (the referenced objects are provided, I can't change them). Hope the following code makes more sense: public ??? LoadedClass; public Init() { /* load the object, according to which version we need... */ if (Config.Version == "refA") { Namespace.refA LoadedClass = new refA(); } else if (Config.Version == "refB") { Namespace.refB LoadedClass = new refB(); } else if (Config.Version == "refC") { Namespace.refC LoadedClass = new refC(); } Run(); } private void Run(){ { LoadedClass.SomeProperty... LoadedClass.SomeMethod(){ etc... } } As you can see, I need the Loaded class to be public, so in my limited way I'm trying to change the type 'dynamically' as I load in which real class I want. Each of refA, refB and refC will implement the same properties and methods but with different names. Again, this is what I'm working with, not by my design. All that said, I tried to get my head around Interfaces (which sound like they're what I'm after) but I'm looking at them and seeing strict types - which makes sense to me, even if it's not useful to me. Any and all ideas and opinions are welcome and I'll clarify anything if necessary. Excuse any silly mistakes I've made in the terminology, I'm learning all this for the first time. I'm really enjoying working with an OOP language so far though - coming from PHP this stuff is blowing my mind :-)

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  • CSS of iFramed page not being applied properly

    - by Mike E.
    My company has purchased a third-party package with a built-in customer facing web portal, and I'm being tasked with integrating it into our site. Unfortunately, the web portal does not look great, and we have absolutely no control over how it looks (other than asking the vendor for changes - $$). In order to make it look somewhat like the rest of our site, I've stuck it in an iFrame (I'm not thrilled about this either) to put our logo and top navigation on it. Please note, I am not attempting to manipulate the iframed page in any way. Firefox handles this just fine, but in IE7 and IE8, not all of the CSS is being applied properly when the application's pages are displayed in the iFrame. Specifically, it should be applying a font-family of Arial to all TDs, but some text inside TDs are not being displayed as Arial. Any ideas as to what is going on? This only happens when the pages are viewed inside the iFrame. Outside the iFrame, the CSS is applied as it should be. I'm guessing we're going to have to get our vendor to make some changes, but I'd love to know why the iFrame is impacting the page like this. Thanks!

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  • Determining if an unordered vector<T> has all unique elements

    - by Hooked
    Profiling my cpu-bound code has suggested I that spend a long time checking to see if a container contains completely unique elements. Assuming that I have some large container of unsorted elements (with < and = defined), I have two ideas on how this might be done: The first using a set: template <class T> bool is_unique(vector<T> X) { set<T> Y(X.begin(), X.end()); return X.size() == Y.size(); } The second looping over the elements: template <class T> bool is_unique2(vector<T> X) { typename vector<T>::iterator i,j; for(i=X.begin();i!=X.end();++i) { for(j=i+1;j!=X.end();++j) { if(*i == *j) return 0; } } return 1; } I've tested them the best I can, and from what I can gather from reading the documentation about STL, the answer is (as usual), it depends. I think that in the first case, if all the elements are unique it is very quick, but if there is a large degeneracy the operation seems to take O(N^2) time. For the nested iterator approach the opposite seems to be true, it is lighting fast if X[0]==X[1] but takes (understandably) O(N^2) time if all the elements are unique. Is there a better way to do this, perhaps a STL algorithm built for this very purpose? If not, are there any suggestions eek out a bit more efficiency?

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  • CSS positioning div above another div when not in that order in the HTML

    - by devmode
    Given a template where the HTML cannot be modified because of other requirements, how is it possible to display a div above another div when they are not in that order in the HTML and both divs contain data that could produce a varying height and width. HTML: <div id="wrapper"     <div id="firstDiv"         Content to be below in this situation     </div     <div id="secondDiv"         Content to be above in this situation     </div </div Other elements Hopefully it is obvious that the desired result is: Content to be above in this situation Content to be below in this situation Other elements When the dimensions are fixed it easy to position them where needed, but I need some ideas for when the content is variable. For the sake of this scenario, please just consider the width to be 100% on both. Edit: A CSS solution is the most ideal solution. Thank you for the Javascript options mentioned. Without getting too wordy about what or why (or who) ... I am specifically looking for a CSS only solution (and it will probably have to be met with other solutions if that doesn't pan out). One more ... there are other elements following this. A good suggestion was mentioned given the limited scenario I demonstrated -- given that it might be the best answer, but I am looking to also make sure elements following this aren't impacted.

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  • Where should global Application Settings be stored on Windows 7?

    - by Kerido
    Hi everybody, I'm working hard on making my product work seamlessly on Windows 7. The problem is that there is a small set of global (not user-specific) application settings that all users should be able to change. On previous versions I used HKLM\Software\__Company__\__Product__ for that purpose. This allowed Power Users and Administrators to modify the Registry Key and everything worked correctly. Now that Windows Vista and Windows 7 have this UAC feature, by default, even an Administrator cannot access the Key for writing without elevation. A stupid solution would, of course, mean adding requireAdministrator option into the application manifest. But this is really unprofessional since the product itself is extremely far from administration-related tasks. So I need to stay with asInvoker. Another solution could mean programmatic elevation during moments when write access to the Registry Key is required. Let alone the fact that I don't know how to implement that, it's pretty awkward also. It interferes with normal user experience so much that I would hardly consider it an option. What I know should be relatively easy to accomplish is adding write access to the specified Registry Key during installation. I created a separate question for that. This also very similar to accessing a shared file for storing the settings. My feeling is that there must be a way to accomplish what I need, in a way that is secure, straightforward and compatible with all OS'es. Any ideas?

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  • How to make smooth transition from a WebBrowser control to an Image in Silverlight 4?

    - by Trex
    Hi, I have the following XAML on my page: `<Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <Viewbox Stretch="Uniform"> <Image x:Name="myImage" /> </Viewbox> <WebBrowser x:Name="myBrowser" /> </Grid>` and then in the codebehind I'm switching the visibility between the image and the browser content: myBrowser.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; myImage.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri(p)); myImage.Visibility = Visibility.Visible; and myImage.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; myBrowser.Source = new Uri(myPath + p, UriKind.Absolute); myBrowser.Visibility = Visibility.Visible; This works fine, but what the client now wants is a smooth transition between when the Image is shown and when the browser is shown. I tried several approaches but always ran into dead end. Do you have any ideas? I tried setting two states using the VSM and than displaying a white rectangle on top as an overlay, before the swap takes place, but that didn't work (I guess it's because nothing can be placed above the WebBroser???) I tried setting the Visibility of the image control and the webbrowser control using the VSM, but that didn't work either. I really don't know what else to try to solve this simple task. Any help is greatly appreciated. Jan

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Why does VS2005 skip execution of lines when debugging managed C++ without optimizations?

    - by Sakin
    I ran into a rather odd behavior that I don't even know how to start describing. I wrote a piece of managed C++ code that makes calls to native methods. A (very) simplified version of the code would look like this (I know it looks like a full native function, just assume there is managed stuff being done all over the place): int somefunction(ptrHolder x) { // the accessptr method returns a native pointer if (x.accessptr() != nullptr) // I tried this with nullptr, NULL, 0) { try { x->doSomeNativeVeryImportantStuff(); // or whatever, doesn't matter } catch (SomeCustomExceptionClass &) { return 0; } } SomeOtherNativeClass::doStaticMagic(); return 1; } I compiled this code without optimizations using the /clr flag (VS.NET 2005, SP2) and when running it in the debugger I get to the if statement, since the pointer is actually null, I don't enter the if, but surprisingly, the cursor jumps directly to the return 1 statement, ignoring the doStaticMagic() method completely!!! When looking at the assembly code, I see that it really jumps directly to that line. If I force the debugger to enter the if block, I also jump to the return 1 statement after I press F10. Any ideas why this is happening? Thanks, Ariel

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  • Displaying code with <pre> tags.

    - by iMaster
    Currently I'm using <pre><code> code here </code><pre> to display code. I'm pulling this information from a DB for a blog. The problem I'm having is that some of the code isn't showing. For example, in the source code I have this: <pre><code><br /> echo '<ul class="mylist"><li><ul class="left">'; foreach($nameArray as $name) { if($countervar == $half) { echo '</ul></li>'; echo'<li><ul class="right">'; } echo '<li>$name</li>'; ++$i; } echo '</ul></li>'; echo '</ul>'; ?> But all that shows up is this: echo ''; foreach($nameArray as $name) { if($countervar == $half) { echo ''; echo''; } echo '$name'; ++$i; } echo ' An there's some really weird formatting/spacing issues as well. Any ideas as to what is causing this? I should also mention that some of the other sets of code show up just fine.

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  • after assembling jar - No Persistence provider for EntityManager named ....

    - by alabalaa
    im developing a standalone application and it works fine when starting it from my ide(intellij idea), but after creating an uberjar and start the application from it javax.persistence.spi.PersistenceProvider is thrown saying "No Persistence provider for EntityManager named testPU" here is my persistence.xml which is placed under meta-inf directory: <persistence-unit name="testPU" transaction-type="RESOURCE_LOCAL"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <class>test.model.Configuration</class> <properties> <property name="hibernate.connection.username" value="root"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.password" value="root"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/test"/> <property name="hibernate.show_sql" value="true"/> <property name="hibernate.dialect" value="org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLInnoDBDialect"/> <property name="hibernate.c3p0.timeout" value="300"/> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto" value="update"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> and here is how im creating the entity manager factory: emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("testPU"); im using maven and tried the assembly plug-in with the default configuration fot it, i dont have much experience with assembling jars and i dont know if im missing something, so if u have any ideas ill be glad to hear them

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  • Jquery find first visible element after horizontal scroll

    - by lolo flores
    I’m new (only two weeks old) in Jquery, so please bear with me. I know that a very similar question was asked some time ago but I do not know how to adapt the answer to my problem. I have a very wide multicolumn layout something like this: | aaaa | bbbb | cccc | … | | aaaa | b | cc | … | | aaa | cccc | ddd | … | The code looks like: <div id="container"> <p>aaaaaaaaaaa</p> <p>bbbbb</p> <p>ccccccccccc</p> <p>dddddddddd</p> ... <p>xxxxxx</p> </div> There is no vertical scrolling and the container width is set in such a way that only two columns are shown. The user scrolls left or right to see the relevant text. What I want is to get the position currently on display, store it (maybe in a cookie) and retrieve it the next time the user opens the page. I think that I need a way of finding out what paragraph is currently the left-top most, but other suggestions are very welcome. Any ideas? btw: this is an internal project, so Mozilla only :-) Thanks Lolo

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  • CSS to create curved corner between two elements?

    - by Tauren
    My UI has an unordered list on the left. When a list item is selected, a div appears on the right of it. I'd like to have a curved outer corner where the <li> and the <div> meet. See the white arrow in the image below. To extend the blue <li> to the edge of the <ul>, I'm planning to do something like this: li { right-margin: 2em; border-radius: 8px; } li.active { right-margin: 0; border-bottom-right-radius: 0; border-top-right-radius: 0; } Is there a better way to extend the <li> to the edge of the <ul>? Obviously, I'll include the webkit and mozilla border radius CSS as well. The main thing I'm unsure about is that outer corner underneath the bottom right corner of the active <li>. I have some ideas, but they seem like hacks. Any suggestions? NOTE that the <ul> is indicated in grey, but it would be white in the real design. Also, I'm planning to use Javascript to position the <div> correctly when an <li> is selected.

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  • C#/.NET: FInd out whether a server exists, Query DNS for SVC records.

    - by TomTom
    Writing a cleint/Server tool I am tasked trying to find a server to connect to. I would love to make things as easy as possible for the user. As such, my idea is to: CHeck whether specific servers (coded by name) exist (like "mail.xxx" for a mail server, for example - my exampüle is not a mail server;) Query otherwise for DNS SVC records, allowing the admin to configure a server location for a specific serivce (that the client connects to). The result is that the user may have to enter only a domain name, possibly even not even that (using the registered standard domain of the computer in a LAN environment). Anyone ideas how: To find out whether a server exists and answers (i.e. is online) in the fastest way? TCP can take a long time if the server is not there. A UDP style ping sounds like a good idea to me. PING itself may be unavailable. Anyonw knows how to ask from withint .NET best for a SVC record in a specific (the default) domain?

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  • Best Method For High Data Availability for SQL Server

    - by omatase
    I have a web service that runs 24/7. Periodically it needs to refresh its database with data from another web service. There is a lot of data. It's tens of thousands of rows. (no, I don't mean this is a lot of data for SQL Server, just trying to point out that I expect it to take some time to come down the pipe from the other web service) The data refresh can take between 5 and 10 minutes. The actual data update portion of that is between 1 and 2 minutes. This means the service would be down for all intents and purposes when consumers would be requesting this type of data. I would like to implement a system where data is always available. The only thing that comes to mind is some type of system where I maintain two separate databases. I populate the inactive one, swapping it to active before populating the other one. I'm not sure I know the best way to do this. My current ideas just revolve around two sets of the schema in a single database (using views to access the active set) or two databases each with the same schema. The application would rotate between the two databases. Any suggestions from someone who has done something like this before?

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  • Redeploying an ASP.NET site in IIS7 without files in use interfering

    - by fyjham
    Hey, We've got a process currently which causes ASP.NET websites to be redeployed. The code is itself an ASP.NET application. The current method, which has worked for quite a while, is simply to loop over all the files in one folder and copy them over the top of the files in the webroot. The problem that's arisen is that occasionally files end up being in use and hence can't be copied over. This has in the past been intermittent to the point it didn't matter but on some of our higher traffic sites it happens the majority of the time now. I'm wondering if anyone has a workaround or alternative approach to this that I haven't thought of. Currently my ideas are: Simply retry each file until it works. That's going to cause errors for a short time though which isn't really that good. Deploy to a new folder and update IIS's webroot to the new folder. I'm not sure how to do this short of running the application as an administrator and running batch files, which is very untidy. Does anyone know what the best way to do this is, or if it's possible to do #2 without running the publishing application as a user who has admin access (Willing to grant it special privileges, but I'd prefer to stop short of administrator)?

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  • How do I strip multiple (optional) parts of a SQL string using .NET Regular Expressions?

    - by Luc
    I've been working on this for a few hours now and can't find any help on it. Basically, I'm trying to strip a SQL string into various parts (fields, from, where, having, groupBy, orderBy). I refuse to believe that I'm the first person to ever try to do this, so I'd like to ask for some advise from the StackOverflow community. :) To understand what I need, assume the following SQL string: select * from table1 inner join table2 on table1.id = table2.id where field1 = 'sam' having table1.field3 > 0 group by table1.field4 order by table1.field5 I created a regular expression to group the parts accordingly: select\s+(?<fields>.+)\s+from\s+(?<from>.+)\s+where\s+(?<where>.+)\s+having\s+(?<having>.+)\s+group\sby\s+(?<groupby>.+)\s+order\sby\s+(?<orderby>.+) This gives me the following results: fields => * from => table1 inner join table2 on table1.id = table2.id where => field1 = 'sam' having => table1.field3 > 0 groupby => table1.field4 orderby => table1.field5 The problem that I'm faced with is that if any part of the SQL string is missing after the 'from' clause, the regular expression doesn't match. To fix that, I've tried putting each optional part in it's own (...)? group but that doesn't work. It simply put all the optional parts (where, having, groupBy, and orderBy) into the 'from' group. Any ideas?

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  • RPC command to initiate a software install

    - by ericmayo
    I was recently working with a product from Symantech called Norton EndPoint protection. It consists of a server console application and a deployment application and I would like to incorporate their deployment method into a future version of one of my products. The deployment application allows you to select computer workstations running Win2K, WinXP, or Win7. The selection of workstations is provided from either AD (Active Directory) or NT Domain (WINs/DNS NetBIOS lookup). From the list, one can click and choose which workstations to deploy the end point software which is Symantech's virus & spyware protection suite. Then, after selecting which workstations should receive the package, the software copies the setup.exe program to each workstation (presumable over the administrative share \pcname\c$) and then commands the workstation to execute setup.exe resulting in the workstation installing the software. I really like how their product works but not sure what they are doing to accomplish all the steps. I've not done any deep investigations into this such as sniffing the network, etc... and wanted to check here to see if anyone is familiar with what I'm talking about and if you know how it's accomplished or have ideas how it could be accomplished. My thinking is that they are using the admin share to copy the software to the selected workstations and then issuing an RPC call to command the workstation to do the install. What's interesting is that the workstations do this without any of the logged in users knowing what's going on until the very end where a reboot is necessary. At which point, the user gets a pop-up asking to reboot now or later, etc... My hunch is that the setup.exe program is popping this message. To the point: I'm looking to find out the mechanism by which one Windows based machine can tell another to do some action or run some program. My programming language is C/C++ Any thoughts/suggestions appreciated.

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  • JApplet behaving unexpectedly

    - by JohnW
    import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.Image; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import javax.swing.JApplet; import javax.swing.Timer; public class CountingSheep extends JApplet { private Image sheepImage; private Image backgroundImage; private GameBoard gameBoard; private scoreBoard scoreBoard; public void init() { loadImages(); gameBoard = new GameBoard(sheepImage, backgroundImage); scoreBoard = new scoreBoard(); getContentPane().add(gameBoard); getContentPane().add(scoreBoard); } public void loadImages() { sheepImage = getImage(getDocumentBase(), "sheep.png"); backgroundImage = getImage(getDocumentBase(), "bg.jpg"); } } Update guys: Alright, first of all, thank you very much for all the help you've given so far (specifically creemam and Hovercraft Full of Eels), and your persistence. You've helped me out a lot as this is incredibly important (i.e. me passing my degree). The problem now is: The program works correctly when nothing but the GameBoard class is added to the JApplet, however, when I try to add the ScoreBoard class, both Panel classes do not show on the Applet. I'm guessing this is now down to positioning? Any ideas? EDIT: Gone back to the previously asked question Hovercraft, and found it was due to the layout of the contentPane and the order at with the components were added. Thanks to all of you so much. People like you make the development community a bit of alright.

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  • Mysterious Flickering Visual Artifact

    - by Axis
    A flashing bar of red appears at the top of the EAGLView that I have added as a subview in my iPhone app. It flickers on and off (i.e., one frame it's there, the next frame it's not, the next frame it's there again). I have removed a lot of code from my app until I'm essentially left with the stock OpenGL-ES project and a few changes: The glview is not fullscreen; it's a subview. I enabled the depth buffer. I'm not even trying to draw anything. If the glview is fullscreen, or if I disable the depth buffer, then there is no flicker and it works fine. But needless to say, this is a 3D view and I'd like to be able to display it within a larger UIKit view. I'm not sure what code would be useful to post, but here's how I add the glview to my main view: appDelegate.glView.frame = CGRectMake(245, 65, 215, 215); [self.view addSubview:appDelegate.glView]; [appDelegate.glView startAnimation]; Here's my render function: - (void) render { [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, defaultFramebuffer); glViewport(0, 0, backingWidth, backingHeight); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, colorRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; } It seems pretty obvious to me that the problem lies with the depth buffer somehow, but I'm not sure why. Also, it works fine in the simulator, but not on my iphone. I'm using iPhone OS 3.1. Any ideas on where to look for a problem?

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  • How do you use glFrustrum in OpenGL ES1 on iPhone

    - by Paul
    So I am using Xcode 3.2.1 and am trying to make an iPhone OpenGL ES1 project. The default template for an opengl project is ok, but I have been trying to split the code up so not everything is done per frame on the drawView() call. I have a seperate setupRC method that sets the lighting, turns on depth test, turns on culling and sets the clear color. This is called on the init of the EAGLView and this works just fine. I have took the glViewport() and glFrustrum() calls and put them at the end of the resizeFromLayer() method in the ES1Renderer.m file. This gets hit when the app starts and when the app gets resized as it should. Now the problem is the frustrum's far seems to be messed up, as in all my objects get cut / clipped off. I tried adjusting the camera position and angle and it still all objects are cut / clipped. I increased the far from 1000.0f to 30000.0f and still get the same result. What is crazy is that if i call both the glViewport() and glFrustrum() calls in the drawView() every frame everything looks right. Nothing is clipped and looks like i want it. From everything I've been reading the frustrum and viewport calls only need to be called when the window / gets made and resizes, but If I don't call it every frame in my project it doesn't work. Any ideas? Thanks In Advance

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  • Proper API Design for Version Independence?

    - by Justavian
    I've inherited an enormous .NET solution of about 200 projects. There are now some developers who wish to start adding their own components into our application, which will require that we begin exposing functionality via an API. The major problem with that, of course, is that the solution we've got on our hands contains such a spider web of dependencies that we have to be careful to avoid sabotaging the API every time there's a minor change somewhere in the app. We'd also like to be able to incrementally expose new functionality without destroying any previous third party apps. I have a way to solve this problem, but i'm not sure it's the ideal way - i was looking for other ideas. My plan would be to essentially have three dlls. APIServer_1_0.dll - this would be the dll with all of the dependencies. APIClient_1_0.dll - this would be the dll our developers would actual refer to. No references to any of the mess in our solution. APISupport_1_0.dll - this would contain the interfaces which would allow the client piece to dynamically load the "server" component and perform whatever functions are required. Both of the above dlls would depend upon this. It would be the only dll that the "client" piece refers to. I initially arrived at this design, because the way in which we do inter process communication between windows services is sort of similar (except that the client talks to the server via named pipes, rather than dynamically loading dlls). While i'm fairly certain i can make this work, i'm curious to know if there are better ways to accomplish the same task.

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  • Only want "Required field" error to appear ONCE in ASP.NET Validation Summary

    - by PapillonUK
    I have a form with several fields with a RequiredFieldValidator on them. If any of these fields are not filled in I only want the message "Please enter the items marked with an asterisk" to appear once in the ValidationSummary control and an asterisk to appear next to each field. I have done this using the method here. i.e. by setting Text to "*" and ValidationSummary.HeaderText to my message. Great, but no cigar as I also have other fields with other validators e.g. a RegEx for an Email field. This means that if all the required fields are entered but the email is incorrect, the ValidationSummary with "Please enter the items marked with an asterisk" will appear along with the message for the invalid email. Crap! I then tried using a ValidationGroup called "ReqField" and have a one ValidationSummary for this group (with my HeaderText) and another for the other validators, but alas, my Submit button only allows one ValidationGroup to be triggered upon the click event. Does anyone have any ideas as to how I can get this to work? Thanks in adavnce.

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  • Static libraries in version-cross-compiled program

    - by Brian Postow
    I have a unix command line app (with big nasty makefile) that I'm trying to run on a mac. I am compiling it on a 10.6 system, with all of the appropriate libraries of course. The deployment environment is a 10.5 system, with no extra libraries. I compiled without -dynamic, and it appears to have static libraries, correctly. When I run it on the 10.6 system, it works. However, when I run it on the 10.5 system, I get: dyld: unknown required load command 0x80000022 I got this same error when I compiled things for the 10.6 system using the 10.5 xcode, so it looks like a version mis-match type problem. However, I used gcc-4.0, and $CFLAGS = -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.5.sdk -mmacosx-version-min=10.5 so it SHOULD be set up for 10.5... any ideas? thanks Editing an ancient question: I have the exact same problem on a different computer. This time I am at 10.5.8, fully update, the same executable works on 10.6 still. Has anyone had any luck with this in the months since I asked this?

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