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  • Design patterns and interview question

    - by user160758
    When I was learning to code, I read up on the design patterns like a good boy. Long after this, I started to actually understand them. Design discussions such as those on this site constantly try to make the rules more and more general, which is good. But there is a line, over which it becomes over-analysis starts to feed off itself and as such I think begins to obfuscate the original point - for example the "What's Alternative to Singleton" post and the links contained therein. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1300655/whats-alternative-to-singleton I say this having been asked in both interviews I’ve had over the last 2 weeks what a singleton is and what criticisms I have of it. I have used it a few times for items such as user data (simple key-value eg. last file opened by this user) and logging (very common i'm sure). I've never ever used it just to have what is essentially global application data, as this is clearly stupid. In the first interview, I reply that I have no criticisms of it. He seemed disappointed by this but as the job wasn’t really for me, I forgot about it. In the next one, I was asked again and, as I wanted this job, I thought about it on the spot and made some objections, similar to those contained in the post linked to above (I suggested use of a factory or dependency injection instead). He seemed happy with this. But my problem is that I have used the singleton without ever using it in this kind of stupid way, which I had to describe on the spot. Using it for global data and the like isn’t something I did then realised was stupid, or read was stupid so didn’t do, it was just something I knew was stupid from the start. Essentially I’m supposed to be able to think of ways of how to misuse a pattern in the interview? Which class of programmers can best answer this question? The best ones? The medium ones? I'm not sure.... And these were both bright guys. I read more than enough to get better at my job but had never actually bothered to seek out criticisms of the most simple of the design patterns like this one. Do people think such questions are valid and that I ought to know the objections off by heart? Or that it is reasonable to be able to work out what other people who are missing the point would do on the fly? Or do you think I’m at least partially right that the question is too unsubtle and that the questions ought to be better thought out in order to make sure only good candidates can answer. PS. Please don’t think I’m saying that I’m just so clever that I know everything automatically - I’ve learnt the hard way like everyone else. But avoiding global data is hardly revolutionary.

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  • div "top" bug IE and everything else. Big problem

    - by Victor
    Hi everyone. I am new in CSS so please help me in this problem. I hope to describe it wright. I am making div named content where my site content is. I made it with z-index:-1; so an image to be over this div. But in Chrome, FF and safari, content became inactive. I cant select text , click on link and write in the forms. So I tried with positive states in the z-index but IE don't know what this means. Damn. So I decided to make conditional div. Here is the code: .content { background:#FFF; width:990px; position:relative; float:left; top:50px; } .content_IE { background:#FFF; width:990px; position:relative; float:left; top: 50px; z-index:-1; } and here is the HTML: <!--[if IE 7]> <div class="content_IE" style="height:750px;"> <![endif]--> <div class="content" style="height:550px;"> Everything is fine with the z-index but the problem is that if there is no top in .content class everything looks fine in IE but there is no space in the other browsers. If i put back the top:50px; there onother 50px like padding in the .content_IE class. I mean that the page looks like I've put top:50px; and padding-top=50px;. I've try everything like margin-top:-50px; padding-top:-50px; and stuff like this but I am still in the circle. It look fine only if there is no top option in .content class. Please help.

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  • Hibernate Communications Link Failure in Restlet-Hibernate Based Java application powered by MySQL

    - by Vatsala
    Let me describe my question - I have a Java application - Hibernate as the DB interfacing layer over MySQL. I get the communications link failure error in my application. The occurence of this error is a very specific case. I get this error , When I leave mysql server unattended for more than approximately 6 hours (i.e. when there are no queries issued to MySQL for more than approximately 6 hours). I am pasting a top 'exception' level description below, and adding a pastebin link for a detailed stacktrace description. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect the link to the pastebin for further investigation - http://pastebin.com/4KujAmgD What I understand from these exception statements is that MySQL is refusing to take in any connections after a period of idle/nil activity. I have been reading up a bit about this via google search, and came to know that one of the possible ways to overcome this is to set values for c3p0 properties as c3p0 comes bundled with Hibernate. Specifically, I read from here http://www.mchange.com/projects/c3p0/index.html that setting two properties idleConnectionTestPeriod and preferredTestQuery will solve this for me. But these values dont seem to have had an effect. Is this the correct approach to fixing this? If not, what is the right way to get over this? The following are related Communications Link Failure questions at stackoverflow.com, but I've not found a satisfactory answer in their answers. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2121829/java-db-communications-link-failure http://stackoverflow.com/questions/298988/how-to-handle-communication-link-failure Note 1 - i dont get this error when I am using my application continuosly. Note 2 - I use JPA with Hibernate and hence my hibernate.dialect,etc hibernate properties reside within the persistence.xml in the META-INF folder (does that prevent the c3p0 properties from working?)

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  • Problems with validates_inclusion_of, acts_as_tree and rspec

    - by Jens Fahnenbruck
    I have problems to get rspec running properly to test validates_inclusion_of my migration looks like this: class CreateCategories < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :categories do |t| t.string :name t.integer :parent_id t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :categories end end my model looks like this: class Category < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_tree validates_presence_of :name validates_uniqueness_of :name validates_inclusion_of :parent_id, :in => Category.all.map(&:id), :unless => Proc.new { |c| c.parent_id.blank? } end my factories: Factory.define :category do |c| c.name "Category One" end Factory.define :category_2, :class => Category do |c| c.name "Category Two" end my model spec looks like this: require 'spec_helper' describe Category do before(:each) do @valid_attributes = { :name => "Category" } end it "should create a new instance given valid attributes" do Category.create!(@valid_attributes) end it "should have a name and it shouldn't be empty" do c = Category.new :name => nil c.should be_invalid c.name = "" c.should be_invalid end it "should not create a duplicate names" do Category.create!(@valid_attributes) Category.new(@valid_attributes).should be_invalid end it "should not save with invalid parent" do parent = Factory(:category) child = Category.new @valid_attributes child.parent_id = parent.id + 100 child.should be_invalid end it "should save with valid parent" do child = Factory.build(:category_2) child.parent = Factory(:category) # FIXME: make it pass, it works on cosole, but I don't know why the test is failing child.should be_valid end end I get the following error: 'Category should save with valid parent' FAILED Expected #<Category id: nil, name: "Category Two", parent_id: 5, created_at: nil, updated_at: nil to be valid, but it was not Errors: Parent is missing On console everything seems to be fine and work as expected: c1 = Category.new :name => "Parent Category" c1.valid? #=> true c1.save #=> true c1.id #=> 1 c2 = Category.new :name => "Child Category" c2.valid? #=> true c2.parent_id = 100 c2.valid? #=> false c2.parent_id = 1 c2.valid? #=> true I'm running rails 2.3.5, rspec 1.3.0 and rspec-rails 1.3.2 Anybody, any idea?

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  • CSS selectors : should I minimise my use of the class attribute in the HTML or optimise the speed

    - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy
    As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It also make my .css file a little harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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  • C++ Beginner - 'friend' functions and << operator overloading: What is the proper way to overload an

    - by Francisco P.
    Hello, everyone! In a project I'm working on, I have a Score class, defined below in score.h. I am trying to overload it so, when a << operation is performed on it, _points + " " + _name is returned. Here's what I tried to do: ostream & Score::operator<< (ostream & os, Score right) { os << right.getPoints() << " " << right.scoreGetName(); return os; } Here are the errors returned: 1>c:\users\francisco\documents\feup\1a2s\prog\projecto3\projecto3\score.h(30) : error C2804: binary 'operator <<' has too many parameters (This error appears 4 times, actually) I managed to get it working by declaring the overload as a friend function: friend ostream & operator<< (ostream & os, Score right); And removing the Score:: from the function declaration in score.cpp (effectively not declaring it as a member). Why does this work, yet the code describe above doesn't? Thanks for your time! Below is the full score.h /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // Score.h // Implementation of the Class Score // Created on: 10-Mai-2010 11:43:56 // Original author: Francisco /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// #ifndef SCORE_H_ #define SCORE_H_ #include <string> #include <iostream> #include <iostream> using std::string; using std::ostream; class Score { public: Score(string name); Score(); virtual ~Score(); void addPoints(int n); string scoreGetName() const; int getPoints() const; void scoreSetName(string name); bool operator>(const Score right) const; ostream & operator<< (ostream & os, Score right); private: string _name; int _points; }; #endif

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  • Not allowing characters after Space. Mysql Insert With PHP

    - by Jake
    Ok so I think this is easy but I dont know (I'm a novice to PHP and MySQL). I have a select that is getting data from a table in the database. I am simply taking whatever options the user selects and putting it into a separate table with a php mysql insert statement. But I am having a problem. When I hit submit, everything is submitted properly except for any select options that have spaces don't submit after the first space. For example if the option was COMPUTER REPAIR, all that would get sent is COMPUTER. I will post code if needed, and any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Ok here is my select code: <?php include("./config.php"); $query="SELECT id,name FROM category_names ORDER BY name"; $result = mysql_query ($query); echo"<div style='overflow:auto;width:100%'><label>Categories (Pick three that describe your business)</label><br/><select name='select1'><option value='0'>Please Select A Category</option>"; // printing the list box select command while($catinfo=mysql_fetch_array($result)){//Array or records stored in $nt echo "<option>$catinfo[name]</option><br/> "; } echo"</select></div>"; ?> And here is my insert code ( Just to let you know its got everything not just the select!) ?php require("./config.php"); $companyname = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(trim($_REQUEST['name']))); $phone = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['phone'])); $zipcode = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['zipcode'])); $city = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['city'])); $description = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['description'])); $website = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['website'])); $address = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['address'])); $other = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['other'])); $payment = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['payment'])); $products = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['products'])); $email = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['email'])); $select1 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select1'])); $select2 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select2'])); $select3 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select3'])); $save=$_POST['save']; if(!empty($save)){ $sql="INSERT INTO gj (name, phone, city, zipcode, description, dateadded, website, address1, other2, payment_options, Products, email,cat1,cat2,cat3) VALUES ('$companyname','$phone','$city','$zipcode','$description',curdate(),'$website','$address','$other','$payment','$products','$email','$select1','$select2','$select3')"; if (!mysql_query($sql,$link)) { die('Error: ' . mysql_error()); } echo "<br/><h2><font color='green' style='font-size:15px'>1 business added</font></h2>"; mysql_close($link); } ?>

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  • No Method Error Undefined method 'save' for nil:NilClass

    - by BennyB
    I'm getting this error when i try to create a "Lecture" via my Lecture controller's create method. This used to work but i went on to work on other parts of the app & then of course i come back & something is now throwing this error when a user tries to create a Lecture in my app. I'm sure its something small i'm just overlooking (been at it a while & probably need to take a break)...but I'd appreciate if someone could let me know why this is happening...let me know if i need to post anything else...thx! The error I get NoMethodError in LecturesController#create undefined method `save' for nil:NilClass Rails.root: /Users/name/Sites/rails_projects/app_name Application Trace | Framework Trace | Full Trace app/controllers/lectures_controller.rb:13:in `create' My view to create a new Lecture views/lectures/new.html.erb <% provide(:title, 'Start a Lecture') %> <div class="container"> <div class="content-wrapper"> <h1>Create a Lecture</h1> <div class="row"> <div class="span 6 offset3"> <%= form_for(@lecture) do |f| %> <%= render 'shared/error_messages', :object => f.object %> <div class="field"> <%= f.text_field :title, :placeholder => "What will this Lecture be named?" %> <%= f.text_area :content, :placeholder => "Describe this Lecture & what will be learned..." %> </div> <%= f.submit "Create this Lecture", :class => "btn btn-large btn-primary" %> <% end %> </div> </div> </div> </div> Then my controller where its saying the error is coming from controllers/lectures_controller.rb class LecturesController < ApplicationController before_filter :signed_in_user, :only => [:create, :destroy] before_filter :correct_user, :only => :destroy def index end def new @lecture = current_user.lectures.build if signed_in? end def create if @lecture.save flash[:success] = "Lecture created!" redirect_to @lecture else @activity_items = [ ] render 'new' end end def show @lecture = Lecture.find(params[:id]) end def destroy @lecture.destroy redirect_to root_path end private def correct_user @lecture = current_user.lectures.find_by_id(params[:id]) redirect_to root_path if @lecture.nil? end

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • In R, how do you get the best fitting equation to a set of data?

    - by Matherion
    I'm not sure wether R can do this (I assume it can, but maybe that's just because I tend to assume that R can do anything :-)). What I need is to find the best fitting equation to describe a dataset. For example, if you have these points: df = data.frame(x = c(1, 5, 10, 25, 50, 100), y = c(100, 75, 50, 40, 30, 25)) How do you get the best fitting equation? I know that you can get the best fitting curve with: plot(loess(df$y ~ df$x)) But as I understood you can't extract the equation, see Loess Fit and Resulting Equation. When I try to build it myself (note, I'm not a mathematician, so this is probably not the ideal approach :-)), I end up with smth like: y.predicted = 12.71 + ( 95 / (( (1 + df$x) ^ .5 ) / 1.3)) Which kind of seems to approximate it - but I can't help to think that smth more elegant probably exists :-) I have the feeling that fitting a linear or polynomial model also wouldn't work, because the formula seems different from what those models generally use (i.e. this one seems to need divisions, powers, etc). For example, the approach in Fitting polynomial model to data in R gives pretty bad approximations. I remember from a long time ago that there exist languages (Matlab may be one of them?) that do this kind of stuff. Can R do this as well, or am I just at the wrong place? (Background info: basically, what we need to do is find an equation for determining numbers in the second column based on the numbers in the first column; but we decide the numbers ourselves. We have an idea of how we want the curve to look like, but we can adjust these numbers to an equation if we get a better fit. It's about the pricing for a product (a cheaper alternative to current expensive software for qualitative data analysis); the more 'project credits' you buy, the cheaper it should become. Rather than forcing people to buy a given number (i.e. 5 or 10 or 25), it would be nicer to have a formula so people can buy exactly what they need - but of course this requires a formula. We have an idea for some prices we think are ok, but now we need to translate this into an equation.

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • Howoto get id of new record after model.save

    - by tonymarschall
    I have a model with the following db structure: mysql> describe units; +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | name | varchar(128) | NO | | NULL | | | created_at | datetime | NO | | NULL | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | NULL | | +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ 7 rows in set (0.00 sec) After creating a new record an saving i can not get the id of the record. 1.9.3p194 :001 > unit = Unit.new(:name => 'test') => #<Unit id: nil, name: "test", created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> 1.9.3p194 :002 > unit.save (0.2ms) BEGIN SQL (0.3ms) INSERT INTO `units` (`created_at`, `name`, `updated_at`) VALUES ('2012-08-31 23:48:12', 'test', '2012-08-31 23:48:12') (144.6ms) COMMIT => true 1.9.3p194 :003 > unit.inspect => "#<Unit id: nil, name: \"test\", created_at: \"2012-08-31 23:48:12\", updated_at: \"2012-08-31 23:48:12\">" # unit.rb class Unit < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name end # migration class CreateUnits < ActiveRecord::Migration def change create_table :units do |t| t.string :name, :null => false t.timestamps end end end Tried this with other models and have the same result (no id). Data is definitily saved and i can get data with Unit.last Another try with Foo.id = nil # /var/www# rails g model Foo name:string invoke active_record create db/migrate/20120904030554_create_foos.rb create app/models/foo.rb invoke test_unit create test/unit/foo_test.rb create test/fixtures/foos.yml # /var/www# rake db:migrate == CreateFoos: migrating ===================================================== -- create_table(:foos) -> 0.3451s == CreateFoos: migrated (0.3452s) ============================================ # /var/www# rails c Loading development environment (Rails 3.2.8) 1.9.3p194 :001 > foo = Foo.new(:name => 'bar') => #<Foo id: nil, name: "bar", created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> 1.9.3p194 :002 > foo.save (0.2ms) BEGIN SQL (0.4ms) INSERT INTO `foos` (`created_at`, `name`, `updated_at`) VALUES ('2012-09-04 03:06:26', 'bar', '2012-09-04 03:06:26') (103.2ms) COMMIT => true 1.9.3p194 :003 > foo.inspect => "#<Foo id: nil, name: \"bar\", created_at: \"2012-09-04 03:06:26\", updated_at: \"2012-09-04 03:06:26\">" 1.9.3p194 :004 > Foo.last Foo Load (0.5ms) SELECT `foos`.* FROM `foos` ORDER BY `foos`.`id` DESC LIMIT 1 => #<Foo id: 1, name: "bar", created_at: "2012-09-04 03:06:26", updated_at: "2012-09-04 03:06:26">

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  • Object relationships

    - by Hammerstein
    This stems from a recent couple of posts I've made on events and memory management in general. I'm making a new question as I don't think the software I'm using has anything to do with the overall problem and I'm trying to understand a little more about how to properly manage things. This is ASP.NET. I've been trying to understand the needs for Dispose/Finalize over the past few days and believe that I've got to a stage where I'm pretty happy with when I should/shouldn't implement the Dispose/Finalize. 'If I have members that implement IDisposable, put explicit calls to their dispose in my dispose method' seems to be my understanding. So, now I'm thinking maybe my understanding of object lifetimes and what holds on to what is just wrong! Rather than come up with some sample code that I think will illustrate my point, I'm going to describe as best I can actual code and see if someone can talk me through it. So, I have a repository class, in it I have a DataContext that I create when the repository is created. I implement IDisposable, and when my calling object is done, I call Dispose on my repository and explicitly call DataContext.Dispose( ). Now, one of the methods of this class creates and returns a list of objects that's handed back to my front end. Front End - Controller - Repository - Controller - Front End. (Using Redgate Memory Profiler, I take a snapshot of my software when the page is first loaded). My front end creates a controller object on page load and then makes a request to the repository sending back a list of items. When the page is finished loading, I call Dispose on the controller which in turn calls dispose on the context. In my mind, that should mean that my connection is closed and that I have no instances of my controller class. If I then refresh the page, it jumps to two 'Live' instances of the controller class. If I look at the object retention graph, the objects I created in my call to the list are being held onto ultimately by what looks like Linq. The controller/repository aside, if I create a list of objects somewhere, or I create an object and return it somewhere, am I safe to just assume that .NET will eventually come and clean things up for me or is there a best practice? The 'Live' instances suggest to me that these are still in memory and active objects, the fact that RMP apparently forces GC doesn't mean anything?

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  • Yet another Memory Leak Issue (memory is still gone when program terminates)- C program on SLES

    - by user1426181
    I run my C program on Suse Linux Enterprise that compresses several thousand large files (between 10MB and 100MB in size), and the program gets slower and slower as the program runs (it's running multi-threaded with 32 threads on a Intel Sandy Bridge board). When the program completes, and it's run again, it's still very slow. When I watch the program running, I see that the memory is being depleted while the program runs, which you would think is just a classic memory leak problem. But, with a normal malloc()/free() mismatch, I would expect all the memory to return when the program terminates. But, most of the memory doesn't get reclaimed when the program completes. The free or top command shows Mem: 63996M total, 63724M used, 272M free when the program is slowed down to a halt, but, after the termination, the free memory only grows back to about 3660M. When the program is rerun, the free memory is quickly used up. The top program only shows that the program, while running, is using at most 4% or so of the memory. I thought that it might be a memory fragmentation problem, but, I built a small test program that simulates all the memory allocation activity in the program (many randomized aspects were built in - size/quantity), and it always returns all the memory upon completion. So, I don't think that's it. Questions: Can there be a malloc()/free() mismatch that will lose memory permanently, i.e. even after the process completes? What other things in a C program (not C++) can cause permanent memory loss, i.e. after the program completes, and even the terminal window closes? Only a reboot brings the memory back. I've read other posts about files not being closed causing problems, but, I don't think I have that problem. Is it valid to be looking at top and free for the memory statistics, i.e. do they accurately describe the memory situation? They do seem to correspond to the slowness of the program. If the program only shows a 4% memory usage, will something like valgrind find this problem?

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  • JPA - Can I create an Entity class, using an @DiscriminatorValue, that doesn't have its own table?

    - by DaveyDaveDave
    Hi - this is potentially a bit complex, so I'll do my best to describe my situation - it's also my first post here, so please forgive formatting mistakes, etc! I'm using JPA with joined inheritance and a database structure that looks like: ACTION --------- ACTION_ID ACTION_MAPPING_ID ACTION_TYPE DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID CHANNEL_ID OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID (various fields specific to this action type) So, in plain English, I have multiple different types of action, all share an ACTION_MAPPING, which is referenced from the 'parent' ACTION table. DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION and OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION both have extra, supplementary data of their own, and are mapped to ACTION with a FK. Real-world, I also have a 'suppress' action, but this doesn't have any supplementary data of its own, so it doesn't have a corresponding table - all it needs is an ACTION_MAPPING, which is stored in the ACTION table. Hopefully you're with me so far... I'm creating a new project from scratch, so am pretty flexible in what I can do, but obviously would like to get it right from the outset! My current implementation, which works, has three entities loosely defined as follows: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class Action @Entity @Table(name="DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("DELIVERY_CHANNEL") public class DeliveryChannelAction extends Action @Entity @Table(name="OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("OVERRIDE_ADDRESS") public class OverrideAddressAction extends Action That is - I have a concrete base class, Action, with a Joined inheritance strategy. DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction both extend Action. What feels wrong here though, is that my Action class is the base class for these two actions, but also forms the concrete implementation for the suppress action. For the time being this works, but at some point more actions are likely to be added, and there's every chance that some of them will, like SUPPRESS, have no supplementary data, which will start to get difficult! So... what I would like to do, in the object model world, is to have Action be abstract, and create a SuppressAction class, which is empty apart from having a @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS"). I've tried doing exactly what is described above, so, changing Action to: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) public abstract class Action and creating: @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class SuppressAction extends Action but no luck - it seems to work fine for DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction, but when I try to create a SuppressAction and persist it, I get: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Object: com.mypackage.SuppressAction[actionId=null] is not a known entity type. at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.sessions.UnitOfWorkImpl.registerNewObjectForPersist(UnitOfWorkImpl.java:4147) at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:368) at com.mypackage.test.util.EntityTestUtil.createSuppressAction(EntityTestUtil.java:672) at com.mypackage.entities.ActionTest.testCRUDAction(ActionTest.java:27) which I assume is down to the fact that SuppressAction isn't registered as an entity, but I don't know how I can do that, given that it doesn't have an associated table. Any pointers, either complete answers or hints for things to Google (I'm out of ideas!), most welcome :) EDIT: to correct my stacktrace.

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  • Defined variables and arrays vs functions in php

    - by Frank Presencia Fandos
    Introduction I have some sort of values that I might want to access several times each page is loaded. I can take two different approaches for accessing them but I'm not sure which one is 'better'. Three already implemented examples are several options for the Language, URI and displaying text that I describe here: Language Right now it is configured in this way: lang() is a function that returns different values depending on the argument. Example: lang("full") returns the current language, "English", while lang() returns the abbreviation of the current language, "en". There are many more options, like lang("select"), lang("selectact"), etc that return different things. The code is too long and irrelevant for the case so if anyone wants it just ask for it. Url The $Url array also returns different values depending on the request. The whole array is fully defined in the beginning of the page and used to get shorter but accurate links of the current page. Example: $Url['full'] would return "http://mypage.org/path/to/file.php?page=1" and $Url['file'] would return "file.php". It's useful for action="" within the forms and many other things. There are more values for $Url['folder'], $Url['file'], etc. Same thing about the code, if wanted, just request it. Text [You can skip this section] There's another array called $Text that is defined in the same way than $Url. The whole array is defined at the beginning, making a mysql call and defining all $Text[$i] for current page with a while loop. I'm not sure if this is more efficient than multiple calls for a single mysql cell. Example: $Text['54'] returns "This is just a test array!" which this could perfectly be implemented with a function like text(54). Question With the 3 examples you can see that I use different methods to do almost the same function (no pun intended), but I'm not sure which one should become the standard one for my code. I could create a function called url() and other called text() to output what I want. I think that working with functions in those cases is better, but I'm not sure why. So I'd really appreciate your opinions and advice. Should I mix arrays and functions in the way I described or should I just use funcions? Please, base your answer in this: The source needs to be readable and reusable by other developers Resource consumption (processing, time and memory). The shorter the code the better. The more you explain the reasons the better. Thank you PS, now I know the differences between $Url and $Uri.

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  • installing a package with xml based configuration in python

    - by saminny
    Hi, I am planning to write a generic python module for installing a package. This script should retrieve the module from a remote machine or locally and install it on a given host and user. However, there needs to be changes made to the package files based on the host, user and given environment. My approach is to use XML to describe changes to be made to package files based on environment. It will first extract the package to the user directory and then using an xml configuration file, it should replace the file values in the package directory. The xml would look something like this: <package version="1.3.3"> <environment type="prod"> <file dir="d1/d2" name="f1"> <var id="RECV_HOST" value="santo"> <var id="RECV_PORT" value="RECV_PORT_SERVICE" type="service"> <var id="JEPL_SERVICE_NAME" value="val_omgact"> </file> <var dir="d4/d3/s2" name="f2"> <var id="PRECISION" value="true"> <var id="SEND_STATUS_CODE" value="323"> <var id="JEPL_SERVICE_NAME" value="val_omgact"> </file> </environment> <environment type="qa"> <file dir="d1/d2" name="f1"> <var id="RECV_HOST" value="test"> <var id="RECV_PORT" value="1444"> <var id="JEPL_SERVICE_NAME" value="val_tsdd"> </file> <file dir="d4/d3/s2" name="f2"> <var id="PRECISION" value="false"> <var id="SEND_STATUS_CODE" value="323"> <var id="JEPL_SERVICE_NAME" value="val_dsd"> </file> </environment> </package> What are your thoughts on this approach? Is there an existing python module, package or script that I could use for this purpose since this seems fairly generic and can be used for any installation. Thanks! Sam

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  • Adding a clustered index to a SQL table: what dangers exist for a live production system?

    - by MoSlo
    Right, keep in mind i need to describe this by abstracting all possible confidential info: I've been put in charge of a 10-year old transactional system of which the majority business logic is implemented at database level (triggers, stored procedures etc). Win2000 server, MSSQL 2000 Enterprise. No immediate plans for replacing/updating the system are being considered :( The core process is a program that executes transactions - specifically, it executes a stored procedure with various parameters, lets call it sp_ProcessTrans. The program executes the stored procedure at asynchronous intervals. By itself, things work fine. But there are 30 instances of this program on remotely located workstations, all of them asynchronously executing sp_ProcessTrans and then retrieving data from the SQL server (execution is pretty regular - ranging 0 to 60 times a minute, depending on what items the program instance is responsible for) . Performance of the system has dropped considerably with 10 yrs of data growth: the reason is the deadlocks and specifically deadlock wait times. The deadlock is on the Employee table. I have discovered: In sp_ProcessTrans' execution, it selects from an Employee table 7 times (dont ask) The select is done on a field that is NOT the primary key No index exists on this field. Thus a table scan is performed. 7 times. per transaction So the reason for deadlocks is clear. I created a non-unique ordered clustered index on the field (field looks good, almost unique, NUM(7), very rarely changes). Immediate improvement in the test environment. The problem is that i cannot simulate the deadlocks in a test environment (I'd need 30 workstations; i'd need to simulate 'realistic' activity on those stations, so visualization is out). I need to know if i must schedule downtime. Creating an index shouldn't be a risky operation for MSSQL, but is there any danger (data corruption in transactions/select statements/extra wait time etc) to create this field index on the production database while the transactions are still taking place? (although i can select a time when transactions are fairly quiet through the 30 stations) Are there any hidden dangers i'm not seeing (not looking forward to needing to restore the DB if something goes wrong, restoring would take a lot of time with 10yrs of data).

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  • How to get all captures of subgroup matches with preg_match_all()?

    - by hakre
    Update/Note: I think what I'm probably looking for is to get the captures of a group in PHP. Referenced: PCRE regular expressions using named pattern subroutines. (Read carefully:) I have a string that contains a variable number of segments (simplified): $subject = 'AA BB DD '; // could be 'AA BB DD CC EE ' as well I would like now to match the segments and return them via the matches array: $pattern = '/^(([a-z]+) )+$/i'; $result = preg_match_all($pattern, $subject, $matches); This will only return the last match for the capture group 2: DD. Is there a way that I can retrieve all subpattern captures (AA, BB, DD) with one regex execution? Isn't preg_match_all suitable for this? This question is a generalization. Both the $subject and $pattern are simplified. Naturally with such the general list of AA, BB, .. is much more easy to extract with other functions (e.g. explode) or with a variation of the $pattern. But I'm specifically asking how to return all of the subgroup matches with the preg_...-family of functions. For a real life case imagine you have multiple (nested) level of a variant amount of subpattern matches. Example This is an example in pseudo code to describe a bit of the background. Imagine the following: Regular definitions of tokens: CHARS := [a-z]+ PUNCT := [.,!?] WS := [ ] $subject get's tokenized based on these. The tokenization is stored inside an array of tokens (type, offset, ...). That array is then transformed into a string, containing one character per token: CHARS -> "c" PUNCT -> "p" WS -> "s" So that it's now possible to run regular expressions based on tokens (and not character classes etc.) on the token stream string index. E.g. regex: (cs)?cp to express one or more group of chars followed by a punctuation. As I now can express self-defined tokens as regex, the next step was to build the grammar. This is only an example, this is sort of ABNF style: words = word | (word space)+ word word = CHARS+ space = WS punctuation = PUNCT If I now compile the grammar for words into a (token) regex I would like to have naturally all subgroup matches of each word. words = (CHARS+) | ( (CHARS+) WS )+ (CHARS+) # words resolved to tokens words = (c+)|((c+)s)+c+ # words resolved to regex I could code until this point. Then I ran into the problem that the sub-group matches did only contain their last match. So I have the option to either create an automata for the grammar on my own (which I would like to prevent to keep the grammar expressions generic) or to somewhat make preg_match working for me somehow so I can spare that. That's basically all. Probably now it's understandable why I simplified the question. Related: pcrepattern man page Get repeated matches with preg_match_all()

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  • Problems with starting windows service on windows xp SP3

    - by Michiel Peeters
    I'm currently facing a problem which I can not resolve and I really don't know what to do anymore. When I'm trying to start the service I receive the message: "The service is started but again also stopped, this because that some of the services will stop if they have nothing to do, for example the performance logs and the alerts service". I've looked into the Windows Logs but nothing is written there which could describe why my service is all the time stopping. I've also tried to fire the windows service via the command prompt which gives me the message: "The service is not started, but the service didn't return any faults.". I've tried to remove all keys which references to my service, which didn't resolve the issue. I've searched on google (maybe not good enough) to find an answer but I didn't found any. I did found some websites which describes what I could do, but all of these suggestions didn't work. This is kinda ** because I do not know where to look. I do not have any error message, i do not have any id which i can use to search on. I really don't know where to start and I hope you guys can help me on this one. Detailed explanation about the windows service OS: Windows XP SP3 .Net Framework: .Net 4.0 Client Profile Language: C# Development environment: Visual Studio 2010 Professional (but Visual Studio 2012 RC is installed) Communications: WCF (Named Pipes), WCF (BasicHTTPBinding) Named Pipes: I have chosen for this solution because I wanted to communicate from a windows service to a windows form application. It worked now for quite some time but suddenly my windows service shuts it self down and I couldn't restart it anymore. There are two named pipes services implemented: An event service which will send any notification to the windows form application and an management service which gives my windows form application the possibility to maintain my windows service. BasicHTTPBinding: The basic http binding makes the connection to a central server. This connection is then used for streaming information from the client to the server. I do not know which additional information you will need, but if you guys need something then I'll try to give it as detailed as possible. Thank you in advance.

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  • MVC3 - render view that is not a method in a controller

    - by scoo-b
    I don't know how to best describe my requirement, but here goes. I'm trying to render a view from the following controller/model in a nopCommerce application: CustomerController.cs snippet: [NonAction] protected CustomerNavigationModel GetCustomerNavigationModel(Customer customer) { var model = new CustomerNavigationModel(); model.HideAvatar = !_customerSettings.AllowCustomersToUploadAvatars; model.HideRewardPoints = !_rewardPointsSettings.Enabled; model.HideForumSubscriptions = !_forumSettings.ForumsEnabled || !_forumSettings.AllowCustomersToManageSubscriptions; model.HideReturnRequests = !_orderSettings.ReturnRequestsEnabled || _orderService.SearchReturnRequests(customer.Id, 0, null).Count == 0; model.HideDownloadableProducts = _customerSettings.HideDownloadableProductsTab; model.HideBackInStockSubscriptions = _customerSettings.HideBackInStockSubscriptionsTab; return model; } CustomerNavigationModel.cs: public partial class CustomerNavigationModel : BaseNopModel { public bool HideInfo { get; set; } public bool HideAddresses { get; set; } public bool HideOrders { get; set; } public bool HideBackInStockSubscriptions { get; set; } public bool HideReturnRequests { get; set; } public bool HideDownloadableProducts { get; set; } public bool HideRewardPoints { get; set; } public bool HideChangePassword { get; set; } public bool HideAvatar { get; set; } public bool HideForumSubscriptions { get; set; } public CustomerNavigationEnum SelectedTab { get; set; } } public enum CustomerNavigationEnum { Info, Addresses, Orders, BackInStockSubscriptions, ReturnRequests, DownloadableProducts, RewardPoints, ChangePassword, Avatar, ForumSubscriptions } MyAccountNavigation.cshtml snippet: @model CustomerNavigationModel @using Nop.Web.Models.Customer; @if (!Model.HideInfo) { <li><a href="@Url.RouteUrl("CustomerInfo")" class="@if (Model.SelectedTab == CustomerNavigationEnum.Info) {<text>active</text>} else {<text>inactive</text>}">@T("Account.CustomerInfo")</a></li>} Views: @Html.Partial("MyAccountNavigation", Model.NavigationModel, new ViewDataDictionary()) I am aware that it is unable to render MyAccountNavigation because it doesn't exist in the controller. However, depending on which page the syntax is placed it works. So is there a way to achieve that without changing the code in the controller? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to optimize foreach loop in PHP

    - by vanneto
    First off, I know the title is generic and not fitting. I just couldn't think of a title that could describe my problem. I have a table Recipients in MySQL structured like this: id | email | status 1 foo@bar S 2 bar@baz S 3 abc@def R 4 sta@cko B I need to convert the data into the following XML, depending on the status field. For example: <Recipients> <RecipientsSent> <!-- Have the 'S' status --> <recipient>foo@bar</recipient> <recipient>bar@baz</recipient> </RecipientsSent> <RecipientsRegexError> <recipient>abc@def</recipient> </RecipientsRegexError> <RecipientsBlocked> <recipient>sta@cko</recipient> </RecipientsBlocked> </Recipients> I have this PHP code to implement this ($recipients contains an associative array of the db table): <Recipients> <RecipientsSent> <?php foreach ($recipients as $recipient): if ($recipient['status'] == 'S'): echo "<recipient>" . $recipient['email'] . "</recipient>"; endif; endforeach; ?> </RecipientsSent> <RecipientsRegexError> <?php foreach ($recipients as $recipient): if ($recipient['status'] == 'R'): echo "<recipient>" . $recipient['email'] . "</recipient>"; endif; endforeach; ?> </RecipientsRegexError> <?php /** same loop for the B status */ ?> </Recipients> So, this means that if I have 1000 entries in the table and 4 different status' that can be checked, it means that there will be 4 loops, each one executing 1000 times. How can this be done in a more efficient manner? I thought about fetching four different sets from the database, meaning 4 different queries, would that be more efficient? I'm thinking it could be done with one loop but but I can't come up with a solution. Any way this could be done with only one loop?

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  • php: parsing and converting array structure

    - by mwb
    I need to convert one array structure into another array structure. I hope someone will find it worthy their time to show how this could be done in a simple manner. It's a little above my array manipulation skills. The structure we start out with looks like this: $cssoptions = array( array( 'group' => 'Measurements' , 'selector' => '#content' , 'rule' => 'width' , 'value' => '200px' ) // end data set , array( 'group' => 'Measurements' , 'selector' => '#content' , 'rule' => 'margin-right' , 'value' => '20px' ) // end data set , array( 'group' => 'Colors' , 'selector' => '#content' , 'rule' => 'color' , 'value' => '#444' ) // end data set , array( 'group' => 'Measurements' , 'selector' => '.sidebar' , 'rule' => 'margin-top' , 'value' => '10px' ) // end data set ); // END $cssoptions It's a collection of discreet datasets, each consisting of an array that holds two key = value pairs describing a 'css-rule' and a 'css-rule-value'. Further, each dataset holds a key = value pair describing the 'css-selector-group' that the 'css-rule' should blong to, and a key = value pair describing a 'rule-group' that should be used for structuring the rendering of the final css into a neat css code block arranged by the kind of properties they describe (colors, measurement, typography etc..) Now, I need to parse that, and turn it into a new structure, where the: 'rule' => 'rule-name' , 'value' => 'value-string' for each dataset is converted into: 'rule-name' => 'value-string' ..and then placed into a new array structure where all 'rule-name' = 'value-string' pairs should be aggregated under the respective 'selector-values' Like this: '#content' => array( 'width' => '200px' , 'margin-right' => '20px' ) // end selecor block ..and finally all those blocks should be grouped under their respective 'style-groups', creating a final resulting array structure like this: $css => array( 'Measurements' => array( '#content' => array( 'width' => '200px' , 'margin-right' => '20px' ) // end selecor block , '.sidebar' => array( 'margin-top' => '10px' ) // end selector block ) // end rule group , 'Colors' => array( '#content' => array( 'color' => '#444' ) // end selector block ) // end rule group ); // end css

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  • How to merge two test into one RSpec

    - by thefonso
    Both the last two test work individually...but when both are set to run (non pending) I get problems. question: can I create a test that merges the two into one? How would this look?(yes, I am new to rspec) require_relative '../spec_helper' # the universe is vast and infinite....and...it is empty describe "tic tac toe game" do context "the game class" do before (:each) do player_h = Player.new("X") player_c = Player.new("O") @game = Game.new(player_h, player_c) end it "method drawgrid must return a 3x3 game grid" do @game.drawgrid.should eq("\na #{$thegrid[:a1]}|#{$thegrid[:a2]}|#{$thegrid[:a3]} \n----------\nb #{$thegrid[:b1]}|#{$thegrid[:b2]}|#{$thegrid[:b3]} \n----------\nc #{$thegrid[:c1]}|#{$thegrid[:c2]}|#{$thegrid[:c3]} \n----------\n 1 2 3 \n") @game.drawgrid end #FIXME - last two test here - how to merge into one? it "play method must display 3x3 game grid" do STDOUT.should_receive(:puts).and_return("\na #{$thegrid[:a1]}|#{$thegrid[:a2]}|#{$thegrid[:a3]} \n----------\nb #{$thegrid[:b1]}|#{$thegrid[:b2]}|#{$thegrid[:b3]} \n----------\nc #{$thegrid[:c1]}|#{$thegrid[:c2]}|#{$thegrid[:c3]} \n----------\n 1 2 3 \n").with("computer move") @game.play end it "play method must display 3x3 game grid" do STDOUT.should_receive(:puts).with("computer move") @game.play end end end just for info here is the code containing the play method require_relative "player" # #Just a Tic Tac Toe game class class Game #create players def initialize(player_h, player_c) #bring into existence the board and the players @player_h = player_h @player_c = player_c #value hash for the grid lives here $thegrid = { :a1=>" ", :a2=>" ", :a3=>" ", :b1=>" ", :b2=>" ", :b3=>" ", :c1=>" ", :c2=>" ", :c3=>" " } #make a global var for drawgrid which is used by external player class $gamegrid = drawgrid end #display grid on console def drawgrid board = "\n" board << "a #{$thegrid[:a1]}|#{$thegrid[:a2]}|#{$thegrid[:a3]} \n" board << "----------\n" board << "b #{$thegrid[:b1]}|#{$thegrid[:b2]}|#{$thegrid[:b3]} \n" board << "----------\n" board << "c #{$thegrid[:c1]}|#{$thegrid[:c2]}|#{$thegrid[:c3]} \n" board << "----------\n" board << " 1 2 3 \n" return board end #start the game def play #draw the board puts drawgrid #external call to player class @player = @player_c.move_computer("O") end end player_h = Player.new("X") player_c = Player.new("O") game = Game.new(player_h, player_c) game.play

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  • C++ dynamic type construction and detection

    - by KneLL
    There was an interesting problem in C++, but it concerns more likely architecture. There are many (10, 20, 40, etc) classes that describe some characteristics (mix-in classes), for exmaple: struct Base { virtual ~Base() {} }; struct A : virtual public Base { int size; }; struct B : virtual public Base { float x, y; }; struct C : virtual public Base { bool some_bool_state; }; struct D : virtual public Base { string str; } // .... Primary module declares and exports a function (for simplicity just function declarations without classes): // .h file void operate(Base *pBase); // .cpp file void operate(Base *pBase) { // .... } Any other module can has a code like this: #include "mixins.h" #include "primary.h" class obj1_t : public A, public C, public D {}; class obj2_t : public B, public D {}; // ... void Pass() { obj1_t obj1; obj2_t obj2; operate(&obj1); operate(&obj2); } The question is how to know what the real type of given object in operate() without dynamic_cast and any type information in classes (constants, etc)? Function operate() is used with big array of objects in small time periods and dynamic_cast is too slow for it. And I don't want to include constants (enum obj_type { ... }) because this is not OOP-way. // module operate.cpp void some_operate(Base *pBase) { processA(pBase); processB(pBase); } void processA(A *pA) { } void processB(B *pB) { } I cannot directly pass a pBase to these functions. And it's impossible to have all possible combinations of classes, because I can add new classes just by including new .h files. As one of solutions that comed to mind, in editor application I can use a composite container: struct CompositeObject { vector<Base *pBase> parts; }; But editor does not need a time optimization and can use dynamic_cast for parts to determine the exact type. In operate() I cannot use this solution. So, is it possible to not use a dynamic_cast and type information to solve this problem? Or maybe I should use another architecture?

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