Search Results

Search found 39426 results on 1578 pages for 'hash function'.

Page 66/1578 | < Previous Page | 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73  | Next Page >

  • How to get an embedded function to run multiple times

    - by Guy Montag
    The question I have is how to I get multiple instances of a function to run. Here is my function below - A simple fade function. Problem I'm having is that when it is called a second time it abandons the first call. So if a user clicks on a button it will display a message which fades. If the user clicks on another button the previous fading message just stops at the current opacity level. Try it here - www.arcmarks.com ( please do not repost this domain name) click on SignUp and than quickly click on SignIn with out typing anything. You will see the previous message simply halts. ? What is the stopping mechanism? Where did the previous function go? The function function newEffects(element, direction, max_time ) { newEffects.arrayHold = []; newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] = 0; function next() { newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] += 10; if ( direction === 'up' ) { element.style.opacity = newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] / max_time; } else if ( direction === 'down' ) { element.style.opacity = ( max_time - newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] ) / max_time; } if ( newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] <= max_time ) { setTimeout( next, 10 ); } } next(); return true; }; The Call newEffects(this.element, 'down', 4000 );

    Read the article

  • JavaScript audio not playing outside of jQuery function

    - by user1814016
    I know the question title doesn't make much sense, but I can't think of a better way to put it. I am a newbie to jQuery and I'm using this code to fade in a <div> and play a sound: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { play('msg_appear'); var sptx = $('<p class="stext">').text('There is nothing here.'); $('#speech').append(sptx); $('.stext').typeOut({marker: '', delay: 22}); }); }); This code runs fine however the sound plays after the fade-in is complete. I wanted it to play while it was fading in, so I tried placing the play() call outside of the fade-in function like this: $(document).ready(function(){ play('msg_appear'); $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { However, now it's not playing at all. There's no errors on the JavaScript console so I'm unsure if it's a syntax error, and probably something obvious, but I don't know what. play() is a function I found to play audio, here it is if it matters at all. I placed it in the same file the above code is; right above the $(document).ready(). function play(sound) { if (window.HTMLAudioElement) { var snd = new Audio(''); if(snd.canPlayType('audio/ogg')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.ogg'); } else if(snd.canPlayType('audio/mp3')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.mp3'); } snd.play(); } else { alert('HTML5 Audio is not supported by your browser!'); } }

    Read the article

  • Hashing 11 byte unique ID to 32 bits or less

    - by MoJo
    I am looking for a way to reduce a 11 byte unique ID to 32 bits or fewer. I am using an Atmel AVR microcontroller that has the ID number burned in at the factory, but because it has to be transmitted very often in a very low power system I want to reduce the length down to 4 bytes or fewer. The ID is guaranteed unique for every microcontroller. It is made up of data from the manufacturing process, basically the coordinates of the silicone on the wafer and the production line that was used. They look like this: 304A34393334-16-11001000 314832383431-0F-09000C00 Obviously the main danger is that by reducing these IDs they become non-unique. Unfortunately I don't have a large enough sample size to test how unique these numbers are. Having said that because there will only be tens of thousands of devices in use and there is secondary information that can be used to help identify them (such as their approximate location, known at the time of communication) collisions might not be too much of an issue if they are few and far between. Is something like MD5 suitable for this? My concern is that the data being hashed is very short, just 11 bytes. Do hash functions work reliably on such short data?

    Read the article

  • JQuery to PHP function and back Ajaxed

    - by Xaris
    Hi all, i have a set of php function that i want to call on different events mostly onclick with jquery async (ajax). The first function is called on load $(document).ready(function() { $("#div2").hide('slow'); $("#div1").empty().html('<img src="ajax-loader.gif" />'); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "WebFunctions.php", data: {'func':'1'}, success: function(html) { $("#div1").show('slow').html(html) } }); The Data: {'func':'1'} -- is a switch statement on the php side switch($_POST['func']) { case '1': getParents(); break; case '2': getChilds(params); break; case '3': getChildObjects(params); break; default: } "This functions are calls to a soap server" <-- irrelevant. So when that function finishes i get an array which contains IDs and Names. I echo the names but i want the ID for reference so when i click on the echoed name i can call an other php function with parameter the ID of the name... How do i get rid of the switch statement?? How do i call properly php functions and pass params to it??? How can i save this IDs so when i click on an item with that id an other php function is called?? Plz feel free to ask any question, any answer is welcome :)

    Read the article

  • show hidden div tag from another page

    - by neueweblernen
    I'm trying to link to an all-inclusive FAQ page from various pages. The answers are contained in tags, nested within a line item of an unordered list housed by categories. The FAQ page has the following categories: Practical Nurse Exam Online Renewal Practice Hours etc. Under Practical Nurse Exam, there are sub categories, subjects, with questions below in tags that expand onClick. (e.g. Examination Day, Exam Results, etc.) Let's say I'm on a different page called Registration and there's a link to the FAQs for Exam Results. I'm able to link to the page and included the hashtag on the anchor or Exam Results, but it does not expand the subcategory. I've read this thread but it didn't work for me. Please help! The code is below: <script type="text/javascript"> function toggle(Info,pic) { var CState = document.getElementById(Info); CState.style.display = (CState.style.display != 'block') ? 'block' : 'none'; } window.onload = function() { var hash = window.location.hash; // would be "#div1" or something if(hash != "") { var id = hash.substr(1); // get rid of # document.getElementById(id).style.display = 'block'; } } </script> <style type="text/css"> .FAQ { cursor:hand; cursor:pointer; } .FAA { display:none; padding-left:20px; text-indent:-20px; } #FAQlist li { list-style-type: none; } #FAQlist ul { margin-left:0px; } headingOne{ font-family:Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; color:#66BBFF; font-size:20px; font-weight:bold;} </style> Here's the body (part of it anyway) <headingOne class="FAQ" onClick="toggle('CPNRE', this)">PRACTICAL NURSE EXAM</headingOne> <div class="FAA" id="CPNRE"> <h3><a name="applying">Applying to write the CPNRE</a></h3> <ul id="FAQlist" style="width:450px;"> <li class="FAQ"> <p onclick="toggle('faq1',this)"> <strong>Q: How much does it cost to write the exam?</strong></p> <div class="FAA" id="faq1"> <b>A.</b> In 2013, the cost for the first exam writing is $600.00 which includes the interim license fee. See <a href="https://www.clpnbc.org/What-is-an-LPN/Becoming-an-LPN/Canadian-Practical-Nurse-Registration-Examination/Fees-and-Deadlines.aspx"> fee schedule</a>.</div> <hr /> </li> and here's the body of the other page that contains the link and the same script syntax as the all-inclusive FAQ page. This is just a test, that's not exactly what it will say: <a onclick="toggle('CPNRE', this)" href="file:///S|/Designs/Web stuff/FAQ all inclusive.html#applying"> click here</a>

    Read the article

  • call function inside a nested jquery plugin

    - by tchoesang
    There are many topics related to my question and i have been through most of them, but i haven't got it right. The closest post to my question is the following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1042072/how-to-call-functions-that-are-nested-inside-a-jquery-plugin Below is the jquery plugin i am using. On resize, the element sizes are recalculated. I am now trying to call the function resizeBind() from outside of the jquery plugin and it gives me error I tried the following combinations to call the function $.fn.splitter().resizeBind() $.fn.splitter.resizeBind() Any ideas, where i am getting wrong? ;(function($){ $.fn.splitter = function(args){ //Other functions ...... $(window).bind("resize", function(){ resizeBind(); }); function resizeBind(){ var top = splitter.offset().top; var wh = $(window).height(); var ww = $(window).width(); var sh = 0; // scrollbar height if (ww <0 && !jQuery.browser.msie ) sh = 17; var footer = parseInt($("#footer").css("height")) || 26; splitter.css("height", wh-top-footer-sh+"px"); $("#tabsRight").css("height", splitter.height()-30+"px"); $(".contentTabs").css("height", splitter.height()-70+"px"); } return this.each(function() { }); }; })(jQuery);

    Read the article

  • Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

    - by TX_
    Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

    Read the article

  • How to map string keys to unique integer IDs?

    - by Marek
    I have some data that comes regularily as a dump from a data souce with a string natural key that is long (up to 60 characters) and not relevant to the end user. I am using this key in a url. This makes urls too long and user unfriendly. I would like to transform the string keys into integers with the following requirements: The source dataset will change over time. The ID should be: non negative integer unique and constant even if the set of input keys changes preferrably reversible back to key (not a strong requirement) The database is rebuilt from scratch every time so I can not remember the already assigned IDs and match the new data set to existing IDs and generate sequential IDs for the added keys. There are currently around 30000 distinct keys and the set is constantly growing. How to implement a function that will map string keys to integer IDs? What I have thought about: 1. Built-in string.GetHashCode: ID(key) = Math.Abs(key.GetHashCode()) is not guaranteed to be unique (not reversible) 1.1 "Re-hashing" the built-in GetHashCode until a unique ID is generated to prevent collisions. existing IDs may change if something colliding is added to the beginning of the input data set 2. a perfect hashing function I am not sure if this can generate constant IDs if the set of inputs changes (not reversible) 3. translate to base 36/64/?? does not shorten the long keys enough What are the other options?

    Read the article

  • where is c function attribute set (how to unset) with gcc

    - by cvsdave
    I am working with code from the GNU core utils, and find that the void usage() function is apparently set with the attribute "noreturn". Well, I am modifying the function, and I wish it to return (I removed the call to exit()). The compiler still complains that a "noreturn" function returns, and when using the Eclipse CDT debugger, stepping thorugh the code is anomolous - I skip over lines of code. I do not see the function be set in the .c file, and there is no .h file for this .c file. The file is df.c. I have renamed the file df_call.c. How can the compiler be finding this attribute? How can I unset it? Thanks. ======= Thanks to all contributors for their help! The short answer is "the usage() function found in GNUutils 7.4 is prototyped in system.h as 'void usage (int status) ATTRIBUTE_NORETURN'. Changing to 'void usage (int status); /*ATTRIBUTE_NORETURN;*/' resolved the issue for me, but leaves the problem of a modified system.h. The long answer is: The GNU c compiler supports assigning attributes to functions (see http://gcc.gnu.org/onlinedocs/gcc/Function-Attributes.html) one of which is "noreturn". The syntax is "attribute ((noreturn))" (see http://gcc.gnu.org/onlinedocs/gcc/Attribute-Syntax.html#Attribute-Syntax) but is often macro'd to ATTRIBUTE_NORETURN. If the attribute is set, and in this case one tries to return from the function, the executable compiles with a complaint, but compiles and runs. It will, however, behave unexpectedly (skipping over src lines in my case, maybe due to the optimization). The debugger in Eclipse CDT actually jumps past lines of code, leading the developer to doubt his senses.

    Read the article

  • Is this the best way to grab common elements from a Hash of arrays?

    - by Hulihan Applications
    I'm trying to get a common element from a group of arrays in Ruby. Normally, you can use the & operator to compare two arrays, which returns elements that are present or common in both arrays. This is all good, except when you're trying to get common elements from more than two arrays. However, I want to get common elements from an unknown, dynamic number of arrays, which are stored in a hash. I had to resort to using the eval() method in ruby, which executes a string as actual code. Here's the function I wrote: def get_common_elements_for_hash_of_arrays(hash) # get an array of common elements contained in a hash of arrays, for every array in the hash. # ["1","2","3"] & ["2","4","5"] & ["2","5","6"] # => ["2"] # eval("[\"1\",\"2\",\"3\"] & [\"2\",\"4\",\"5\"] & [\"2\",\"5\",\"6\"]") # => ["2"] eval_string_array = Array.new # an array to store strings of Arrays, ie: "[\"2\",\"5\",\"6\"]", which we will join with & to get all common elements hash.each do |key, array| eval_string_array << array.inspect end eval_string = eval_string_array.join(" & ") # create eval string delimited with a & so we can get common values return eval(eval_string) end example_hash = {:item_0 => ["1","2","3"], :item_1 => ["2","4","5"], :item_2 => ["2","5","6"] } puts get_common_elements_for_hash_of_arrays(example_hash) # => 2 This works and is great, but I'm wondering...eval, really? Is this the best way to do it? Are there even any other ways to accomplish this(besides a recursive function, of course). If anyone has any suggestions, I'm all ears. Otherwise, Feel free to use this code if you need to grab a common item or element from a group or hash of arrays, this code can also easily be adapted to search an array of arrays.

    Read the article

  • Is this the best way to grab Common element from a Hash of arrays?

    - by Hulihan Applications
    I'm trying to get a common element from a group of arrays in Ruby. Normally, you can use the & operator to compare two arrays, which returns elements that are present or common in both arrays. This is all good, except when you're trying to get common elements from more than two arrays. However, I want to get common elements from an unknown, dynamic number of arrays, which are stored in a hash. I had to resort to using the eval() method in ruby, which executes a string as actual code. Here's the function I wrote: def get_common_elements_for_hash_of_arrays(hash) # get an array of common elements contained in a hash of arrays, for every array in the hash. # ["1","2","3"] & ["2","4","5"] & ["2","5","6"] # => ["2"] # eval("[\"1\",\"2\",\"3\"] & [\"2\",\"4\",\"5\"] & [\"2\",\"5\",\"6\"]") # => ["2"] eval_string_array = Array.new # an array to store strings of Arrays, ie: "[\"2\",\"5\",\"6\"]", which we will join with & to get all common elements hash.each do |key, array| eval_string_array << array.inspect end eval_string = eval_string_array.join(" & ") # create eval string delimited with a & so we can get common values return eval(eval_string) end example_hash = {:item_0 => ["1","2","3"], :item_1 => ["2","4","5"], :item_2 => ["2","5","6"] } puts get_common_elements_for_hash_of_arrays(example_hash) # => 2 This works and is great, but I'm wondering...eval, really? Is this the best way to do it? Are there even any other ways to accomplish this(besides a recursive function, of course). If anyone has any suggestions, I'm all ears. Otherwise, Feel free to use this code if you need to grab a common item or element from a group or hash of arrays, this code can also easily be adapted to search an array of arrays.

    Read the article

  • Drupal 7 - I can't pass post data in module function

    - by user2603290
    I can't pass post data in my custom module. filenames: mymodule.info mymodule.mod .info name = My Module description = My custom module. package = DEV version = 1.0 core = 7.x .module <?php function mymodule_menu() { $items = array(); $items['getcountries'] = array( 'title' => 'Get Countries', 'page callback' => 'getcountries', 'access arguments' => array('access content'), 'type' => MENU_CALLBACK, ); $items['getstates'] = array( 'title' => 'Get States', 'page callback' => 'getstates', 'access arguments' => array('access content'), 'type' => MENU_CALLBACK, ); return $items; } function getcountries() { $result = db_query("select distinct(country) from region"); $jsonarray = Array(); foreach ($result as $record) { $jsonarray[] = array( 'item' => $record->country, 'value' => $record->country ); } $json = json_encode($jsonarray); echo $json; } function getstates() { echo $_POST["test"]; } Ajax call $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ url: '/getstates', type: 'POST', data: '{"test":"1"}', success : function () { alert('ok'); }, error : function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert('error'); } }); }); The first item "getcountries" is working fine however the second one is not. I can browse to http://mysite.com/getstates ok but when I call this function using ajax it is not passing the value of "test" which is "1" to $_POST["test"]. I am new to Drupal so I am positive that I miss something here. I thought I need a new set of eyes.

    Read the article

  • SQL SERVER – Fix: Error: 10920 Cannot drop user-defined function. It is being used as a resource governor classifier

    - by pinaldave
    If you have not read my SQL SERVER – Simple Example to Configure Resource Governor – Introduction to Resource Governor yesterday’s detailed primer on Resource Governor, I suggest you go ahead and read it before continuing this article. After reading the article the very first email I received was as follows: “Pinal, I configured resource governor on my development server and it worked fine with tests I ran. After doing some tests, I decided to remove the resource governor and as a first step I disabled it however, I was not able to drop the classification function during the process of the clean up. It was continuously giving me following error. Msg 10920, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot drop user-defined function myudfname. It is being used as a resource governor classifier. Would you please give me solution?” The original email was really this short and there is no other information. I am glad he has done experiments on development server and not on the production server. Production server must not be the playground of the experiments. I think I have covered the answer of this error in an earlier blog post. If the user disables the Resource Governor it is still not possible to drop the function because it can be enabled again and when enabled it can still use the same function. Here is the simple resolution of the how one can drop the classifier function (do this only if you are not going to use the function). The reason the classifier function can’t be dropped because it is associated with resource governor. Create a new classified function for your resource governor or just assign NULL as described in the following T-SQL Script and you will be able to drop the function without error. ALTER RESOURCE GOVERNOR WITH (CLASSIFIER_FUNCTION = NULL) GO ALTER RESOURCE GOVERNOR DISABLE GO DROP FUNCTION dbo.UDFClassifier GO I am glad that user asked me question instead of doing something radically different, which can leave the server in the unusable state. I am aware of this only method to avoid this error. Is there any better way to achieve the same? Reference: Pinal Dave (http://blog.sqlauthority.com) Filed under: PostADay, SQL, SQL Authority, SQL Error Messages, SQL Query, SQL Server, SQL Tips and Tricks, T SQL, Technology

    Read the article

  • Why do we write the action to be performed by a function in jQuery inside the parentheses?

    - by ikartik90
    Generally whenever we're programming in any Programming language, say C, we would pass the parameters we need to pass to a function using the parentheses next to the name of the function. Whereas in jQuery, other than the user defined function() we write the action we need the function to perform inside the parentheses, for example, $('div').mouseenter(function(){ /* blah blah blah*/ }); Why?

    Read the article

  • How to use the autocomplete feature for VBA function in Excel 2007 with Excel Add-In

    - by Nam G. VU
    (cloning from question on SO) I created a function in VBA. I want Excel 2007 to show the Autocomplete when writing this function in the cell's Excel. Detail as How to use the autocomplete feature for VBA function in Excel 2007 with Excel Add-In (.xlam)? ps. In Excel 2010, the autocomplete works In Excel 2007 with Excel Macro-Enabled Worksheet (.xlsm), the autocomplete works. The test file here. But, in Excel 2007 with Excel Add-In (.xlam), the autocomplete NOT works. The test file here.

    Read the article

  • Split time in arbitrary periods, EXCEL

    - by Gabriel A. Zorrilla
    I have a list with date and quantity of items used IE: 2009.03.18 -1 2009.06.05 -2 2009.06.22 -1 2009.06.29 -2 2009.07.14 -1 2009.07.14 -1 2009.07.14 -2 2009.07.20 -2 2009.07.30 -1 2009.07.30 -1 2009.08.06 -1 2009.08.26 -1 2009.09.15 -1 2009.09.16 -2 2009.09.22 -2 2009.09.23 -2 2009.09.30 -2 2009.10.07 -1 2009.10.08 -2 2009.10.22 -1 2009.11.06 -3 2009.11.17 -2 2009.11.20 -1 2009.11.23 -2 2009.11.23 -1 2009.11.25 -2 2009.11.27 -1 2009.12.02 -2 I need to know how much items i consumed in a determined period, ie, 15 days. I can do it in a monthly basis, basically using the month function to extract the month and work from there, but with an arbitrary time (which is the average lead time from my supplier) dont know how to get a function to split the date list in chunks of 15 (or whatever) days. Any tips? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • PowerShell filter vs. function

    - by Marcel Janus
    I'm reading currently the Windows PowerShell 3.0 Step by Step book to get some more insights to PowerShell. On page 201 the author demonstrates that a filter is faster than the function with the same functionally. This script takes 2.6 seconds on his computer: MeasureaddOneFilter.ps1 Filter AddOne { "add one filter" $_ + 1 } and this one 4.6 seconds MeasureaddOneFunction.ps1 Function AddOne { "Add One Function" While ($input.moveNext()) { $input.current + 1 } } If I run this code is get the exact opposite of his result: .\MeasureAddOneFilter.ps1 Days : 0 Hours : 0 Minutes : 0 Seconds : 0 Milliseconds : 226 Ticks : 2266171 TotalDays : 2,62288310185185E-06 TotalHours : 6,29491944444444E-05 TotalMinutes : 0,00377695166666667 TotalSeconds : 0,2266171 TotalMilliseconds : 226,6171 .\MeasureAddOneFunction.ps1 Days : 0 Hours : 0 Minutes : 0 Seconds : 0 Milliseconds : 93 Ticks : 933649 TotalDays : 1,08061226851852E-06 TotalHours : 2,59346944444444E-05 TotalMinutes : 0,00155608166666667 TotalSeconds : 0,0933649 TotalMilliseconds : 93,3649 Can someone explain this to me?

    Read the article

  • Excel SUM From Different Sheets IF Date Found

    - by user329005
    I have a workbook with separate sheets for each product (about 20 sheets, adding more on a regular basis). Each product is only available for a certain time frame, and has daily sales data recorded on that product's sheet. I want an overall snapshot across all products from any given date to be consolidated on a new sheet. This would sum from a particular column on each of the other sheets if a corresponding date exists. I have a moderately passable function right now that has a separate VLOOKUP for each product sheet like SUM(IF(ISERROR(VLOOKUP(DATECELL,SHEETNAME!ARRAY,COLUMN... next VLOOKUP, next VLOOKUP etc., but it's incredibly cumbersome to update each function when a new product is added. I'm thinking there's a much easier way utilizing a named group (sheet names), SUMIF, VLOOKUP etc. Then when a new product sheet is added, I can simply add the sheet name to the named group rather than editing all the functions. Any help would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Wait for function to finish before starting again.

    - by Matthew Brown
    Good Morning, I am trying to call the same function everytime the user presses a button. Here is what happens at the moment.. User clicks button - Calls function - function takes 1000ms+ to finish (due to animation with jQuery and AJAX calls) What I want to happen is every time the user presses the button it adds the function to the queue, waits for the previous call to finish, and then starts.. Is this possible? Sorry if my explanation is a bit confusing.. Thanks Matthew

    Read the article

  • PLT Scheme sort function

    - by Danny
    PLT Scheme guide says that it's implemented sort function is able to sort a list according to an extarcted value using a lambda function. link text The guide provides an unworking code example of this- (sort '(("aardvark") ("dingo") ("cow") ("bear")) #:key car string<?) Which returns an error. How is this function is supposed to be calles so that it will actually sort a list according to values calculated by a given function?

    Read the article

  • How can I call a function at the very end of document.ready

    - by Umair
    I have multiple document.ready functions on a page and I want a function to be called when all my document.ready functions have been executed. I simply want the function to be called at the very end, after all other document.ready functions have executed. An example of this could be that each document.ready function increments a global variable when it has been executed, and the last function needs to check the value of that variable at the very end. Any ideas ?

    Read the article

  • Calling ADODB inside a function?

    - by David
    Hi, I'm wondering why when i put an sql ADODB query in side a function it produces the following error: Fatal error: Call to a member function Execute() on a non-object in -path to script- My function is something like: $dsn = 'mysql://user:pass@localhost/db'; $db = ADONewConnection($dsn); function getem($q){ $r=$db->Execute($q); return $r->RecordCount(); } echo getem("select * from table"); Any ideas how to fix that?

    Read the article

  • basic delay on jquery .click function

    - by kalpaitch
    I have the most basic jquery function of them all, but I couldn't find a way in the documentation to trigger the contents of this click function after say 1500 milliseconds: $('.masonryRecall').click(function(){ $('#mainContent').masonry(); }); P.S. just noticed the .delay function jquery 1.4, although, I am using version 1.3. I don't know whether updating this would interfere with any of the other javascript I currently have.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73  | Next Page >