Search Results

Search found 57458 results on 2299 pages for 'http response codes'.

Page 66/2299 | < Previous Page | 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73  | Next Page >

  • IIS: redirect everything to another URL, except for one Directory

    - by DrStalker
    I have an IIS server (IIS 6, Win 2003) that hosts the site http://www.foo.com. I want any request to http://foo.com (no matter what path/filename is used) to redirect to http://www.bar.org/AwesomePage.html UNLESS the request is for http://www.foo.com/specialdir, in which case the HTML files in the local directory specialdir should be used. The problem I have is once the redirect is set it also affects /specialdir - even if I right click on that directory and select "content should come from ... local directory" that change does not take effect, and the directory still shows as redirecting to http://www.bar.org/AwesomePage.html. The same thing happens if I try to set individual files to load from the local system instead of redirecting - IIS gives no error, but the change does not take effect and the files still show as being redirected. How can I set specialdir to override the redirection to the new URL?

    Read the article

  • How to restrict HTTP Methods

    - by hemalshah
    How can I restrict HTTP methods to those required by the MOSS07 application(s) using IIS6? Update This is what was written in the document IIS6 should be used to restrict HTTP methods to those required by the MOSS07 application(s). I also searched some books and saw something curious in O'Reilly's Sharepoint 2007 by James Pyles and others. There is no real suppported way to use HTTP POST and HTTP GET because of the web.config settings and the static definition of the WSDL. In the web.config <protocols> <remove name="HttpGet"> <remove name="HttpPost"> <remove name="HttpPostLocalHost"> <add name="Documentation"> </protocols> If we do this in the Web.Config file, would it solve the problem?

    Read the article

  • Emergency response CMS

    - by mmcglynn
    I have been asked to do some investigation regarding an emergency website response scenario, a critical situation that would bring quintuple website traffic to 30K visits a day for a few days. No one wants to use our current CMS for this, but rather WordPress or something else. The obvious, a static HTML page is out. I have a separate research track for optimizing WP, so my question is, is there a hosted, easy to use CMS that can handle huge traffic? Like Squarespace but for enterprise.

    Read the article

  • slow interactive response time

    - by ndhert
    VMWare ESXi4 with 2 VM's (FreeBSD-amd64). When doing a reboot on one of the VM's, the reboot is done in normal speed, but after that, the interactive response time on the other gets very slow: pressing return at the command prompt, takes serveral seconds to be exectuted. SSH-ing to the VM machine takes a long time before you are logged in. Only after 20 minutes or so, the situation is normalized. What's the reason and how to remedy?

    Read the article

  • IIRF - Redirecting all traffic to the http equivalent

    - by GordonB
    I'm using IIRF and having some trouble getting it to redirect all traffic to the secure version of my sites. So... I have a website with about 20 apps in virtual directories in IIS6. The website takes 80 and 443 traffic. I want to use IIRF to redirect all port 80 traffic EG; http://myserver/app1/page1/param1 http://myserver/app2/ http://myserver To the secure equivalent (https). Here's my config so far; # Iirf.ini # # ini file for IIRF # RewriteLogLevel 1 RewriteLog D:\Websites\Apptemetry\IirfLogs RewriteEngine ON StatusInquiry ON IterationLimit 5 RewriteLogLevel 3 RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off RewriteCond %{SERVER_PORT} ^80$ RedirectRule ^http(.*)$ https$1 Can anyone advise the correct configuration to use, to redirect all traffic?

    Read the article

  • Virtualhost one https site, the rest http

    - by RJP1
    I have a linode server with Apache2 running a handful of sites with virtualhosting. All sites work fine on port 80, but one site has a ssl certificate and also runs okay. My problem is as follows: The non-https sites, if visiting https://domain.com - show the contents of the only secure site... Is there a way of disabling the *:443 match for these non-secure sites? Thanks! EDIT (more information): Here's a typical config in sites-available for a normal insecure http site: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.insecure.com ServerAlias insecure.com ... </VirtualHost> The secure https site is as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.secure.com Redirect permanent / https://secure.com/ </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName secure.com RedirectMatch permanent ^/(.*) https://secure.com/$1 </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443> SSLEngine on SSLProtocol all SSLCertificateChainFile ... SSLCertificateFile ... SSLCertificateKeyFile ... SSLCACertificateFile ... ServerName secure.com ServerAlias secure.com ... </VirtualHost> So, visiting: http:/insecure.com - works http:/www.insecure.com - works http:/secure.com - redirects to https:/secure.com - works http:/www.secure.com - redirects to https:/secure.com - works https:/insecure.com - shows https:/secure.com - WRONG!

    Read the article

  • HTTP resource bundling/streaming practice

    - by icelava
    Our SPA (plain HTML and Javascript) makes use of huge volume of javascript and other resources that are downloaded via XHR. Given the sheer number of components and browser simultaneous request limits, we're thinking for ways to deliver our resources in a more efficient manner. A method we're considering is bundling several resources that logically form a coherent group into a single file; thus reducing down to only one XHR (per group). Furthermore to make it more responsive, we'd like to constantly inspect the partial responseText during the LOADING state, determining if a usable chunk (atomic resource) has already been downloaded, and make it available for deserialization/processing even before the XHR is DONE. (a stream-like experience) We're thinking surely somebody else would've considered roughly the same approach before, but haven't really come across any library/framework or container file format that is suitable for our scenario. Anybody else know of something similar?

    Read the article

  • Nginx return 444 depending on upstream response code

    - by Mark
    I have nginx setup to pass to an upstream using proxy pass. The upstream is written to return a 502 http response on certain requests, rather then returning the 502 with all the header I would like nginx to recoginse this and return 444 so nothing is returned. Is this possible? I also tried to return 444 on any 50x error but it doesn't work either. location / { return 444; } location ^~ /service/v1/ { proxy_pass http://127.0.0.1:3333; proxy_next_upstream error timeout http_502; error_page 500 502 503 504 /50x.html; } location = /50x.html { return 444; } error_page 404 /404.html; location = /404.html { return 444; }

    Read the article

  • Internet (HTTP) is not working on Sony Viao

    - by vijay
    I switched my sony viao laptop from XP to ubuntu 10.04 recently. I have it connected through router at home. The internet was working fine with XP. With ubuntu, i am not able to connect to interenet. I am able to update using apt, and i am able to ping too. It seems like there is a DNS issue, when i try to goto sites from firefox, it doesn't work. I tried disabling the ipv6 in firefox config, it doesn't work. My router is on 192.168.2.1 instead of 192.168.1.1 any ideas on what config i might need to change to make this work? or could this be a drive issue?

    Read the article

  • Apache HTTP Not Working When SSL Enabled

    - by dominic7il
    I've got a very bizarre problem in that after enabling SSL support in Apache I'm only able to access my site via SSL and not through http as well. I can confirm that Apache is definitely listening on both ports 80 and 443 (accdording to netstat). Additionally the Apache access logs are showing the requests - it's just that going in through http results in a timeout and I'm never actually able to reach the content. Like I said going through https works. Here is my httpd.conf: http://pastebin.com/kG2dPjJ2 and here is my httpd-ssl.conf: http://pastebin.com/thqvjgGJ Can anyone spot any issues with those configurations? or Have any suggestion at all? I've searched and searched but there appear to be very few people who have experienced the same. Also worth mentioning that I did a comparision between those configurations and those of a working set up and I couldn't spot anything.

    Read the article

  • Spring 3.0 making JSON response using jackson message converter

    - by dupdup
    i configure my messageconverter as Jackson's then class Foo{int x; int y} and in controller @ResponseBody public Foo method(){ return new Foo(3,4) } from that i m expecting to return a JSON string {x:'3',y:'4'} from server without any other configuration. but getting 404 error response to my ajax request If the method is annotated with @ResponseBody, the return type is written to the response HTTP body. The return value will be converted to the declared method argument type using HttpMessageConverters. Am I wrong ? or should I convert my response Object to Json string myself using serializer and then returning that string as response.(I could make string responses correctly) or should I make some other configurations ? like adding annotations for class Foo here is my conf.xml <bean id="jacksonMessageConverter" class="org.springframework.http.converter.json.MappingJacksonHttpMessageConverter"> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"> <property name="messageConverters"> <list> <ref bean="jacksonMessageConverter"/> </list> </property>

    Read the article

  • Apk Expansion Files - Application Licensing - Developer account - NOT_LICENSED response

    - by mUncescu
    I am trying to use the APK Expansion Files extension for Android. I have uploaded the APK to the server along with the extension files. If the application was previously published i get a response from the server saying NOT_LICENSED: The code I use is: APKExpansionPolicy aep = new APKExpansionPolicy(mContext, new AESObfuscator(getSALT(), mContext.getPackageName(), deviceId)); aep.resetPolicy(); LicenseChecker checker = new LicenseChecker(mContext, aep, getPublicKey(); checker.checkAccess(new LicenseCheckerCallback() { @Override public void allow(int reason) { @Override public void dontAllow(int reason) { try { switch (reason) { case Policy.NOT_LICENSED: mNotification.onDownloadStateChanged(IDownloaderClient.STATE_FAILED_UNLICENSED); break; case Policy.RETRY: mNotification.onDownloadStateChanged(IDownloaderClient.STATE_FAILED_FETCHING_URL); break; } } finally { setServiceRunning(false); } } @Override public void applicationError(int errorCode) { try { mNotification.onDownloadStateChanged(IDownloaderClient.STATE_FAILED_FETCHING_URL); } finally { setServiceRunning(false); } } }); So if the application wasn't previously published the Allow method is called. If the application was previously published and now it isn't the dontAllow method is called. I have tried: http://developer.android.com/guide/google/play/licensing/setting-up.html#test-response Here it says that if you use a developer or test account on your test device you can set a specific response, I use LICENSED as response and still get NOT_LINCESED. Resetting the phone, clearing google play store cache, application data. Changing the versioncode number in different combinations still doesn't work. Edit: In case someone else was facing this problem I received an mail from the google support team We are aware that newly created accounts for testing in-app billing and Google licensing server (LVL) return errors, and are working on resolving this problem. Please stay tuned. In the meantime, you can use any accounts created prior to August 1st, 2012, for testing. So it seems to be a problem with their server, if I use the main developer thread everything works fine.

    Read the article

  • cURL gets response with utf-8 BOM

    - by Reshat Belyalov
    In my script I send data with cURL, and enabled CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER. The response is json encoded data. When I'm trying to json_decode, it returns null. Then I found that response contains utf-8 BOM symbols at the beginning of string (). There is some experiments: $data = $data = curl_exec($ch); echo $data; the result is {"field_1":"text_1","field_2":"text_2","field_3":"text_3"} $data = $data = curl_exec($ch); echo mb_detect_encoding($data); result - UTF-8 $data = $data = curl_exec($ch); echo mb_convert_encoding($data, 'UTF-8', mb_detect_encoding($data)); // identical to echo mb_convert_encoding($data, 'UTF-8', 'UTF-8'); result - {"field_1":"text_1","field_2":"text_2","field_3":"text_3"} The one thing that helps is removing first 3 symbols: if (substr($data, 0, 3) == pack('CCC', 239, 187, 191)) { $data = substr($data, 3); } But what if there will be another BOM? So the question is: How to detect right encoding of cURL response? OR how to detect what BOM has arrrived? Or maybe how to convert the response with BOM? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Axis2 attachments are vanishing in the response

    - by Shamik
    I am using axis2 to come up with a basic web service which will get the file name as parameter and produces a response SOAP packet which will have the file attached along with the SOAP. Here is the way I am creating the service code (its simple and inspired by Axis2 sample code) public String getFile(String name) throws IOException { MessageContext msgCtx = MessageContext.getCurrentMessageContext(); File file = new File (name); System.out.println("File = " + name); System.out.println("File exists = " + file.exists()); FileDataSource fileDataSource = new FileDataSource(file); System.out.println("fileDataSource = " + fileDataSource); DataHandler dataHandler = new DataHandler(fileDataSource); System.out.println("DataHandler = " + dataHandler); String attachmentID = msgCtx.addAttachment(dataHandler); System.out.println("attachment ID = " + attachmentID); return attachmentID; } Now The client side code - MessageContext response = mepClient .getMessageContext(WSDLConstants.MESSAGE_LABEL_IN_VALUE); SOAPBody body = response.getEnvelope().getBody(); OMElement element = body.getFirstElement().getFirstChildWithName( new QName("http://service.soapwithattachments.sample","return")); String attachementId = element.getText(); System.out.println("attachment id is " + attachementId); Attachments attachment = response.getAttachmentMap(); DataHandler dataHandler = attachment.getDataHandler(attachementId); Problem is that dataHandler is always null. Though I think at the server side, the file was read and attached along with the SOAP packet. Am I doing something wrong ? EDIT : I have put <parameter name="enableSwA" locked="false">true</parameter> in the axis2.xml file.

    Read the article

  • How to parse a custom XML-style error code response from a website

    - by user1870127
    I'm developing a program that queries and prints out open data from the local transit authority, which is returned in the form of an XML response. Normally, when there are buses scheduled to run in the next few hours (and in other typical situations), the XML response generated by the page is handled correctly by the java.net.URLConnection.getInputStream() function, and I am able to print the individual results afterwards. The problem is when the buses are NOT running, or when some other problem with my queries develops after it is sent to the transit authority's web server. When the authority developed their service, they came up with their own unique error response codes, which are also sent as XMLs. For example, one of these error messages might look like this: <Error xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <Code>3005</Code> <Message>Sorry, no stop estimates found for given values.</Message> </Error> (This code and similar is all that I receive from the transit authority in such situations.) However, it appears that URLConnection.getInputStream() and some of its siblings are unable to interpret this custom code as a "valid" response that I can handle and print out as an error message. Instead, they give me a more generic HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found error. This problem cascades into my program which then prints out a java.io.FileNotFoundException error pointing to the offending input stream. My question is therefore two-fold: 1. Is there a way to retrieve, parse, and print a custom XML-formatted error code sent by a web service using the plugins that are available in Java? 2. If the above is not possible, what other tools should I use or develop to handle such custom codes as described?

    Read the article

  • C# TcpClient, getting back the entire response from a telnet device

    - by Dan Bailiff
    I'm writing a configuration tool for a device that can communicate via telnet. The tool sends a command via TcpClient.GetStream().Write(...), and then checks for the device response via TcpClient.GetStream().ReadByte(). This works fine in unit tests or when I'm stepping through code slowly. If I run the config tool such that it performs multiple commands consecutively, then the behavior of the read is inconsistent. By inconsistent I mean sometimes the data is missing, incomplete or partially garbled. So even though the device performed the operation and responded, my code to check for the response was unreliable. I "fixed" this problem by adding a Thread.Sleep to make sure the read method waits long enough for the device to complete its job and send back the whole response (in this case 1.5 seconds was a safe amount). I feel like this is wrong, blocking everything for a fixed time, and I wonder if there is a better way to get the read method to wait only long enough to get the whole response from the device. private string Read() { if (!tcpClient.Connected) throw (new Exception("Read() failed: Telnet connection not available.")); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); do { ParseTelnet(ref sb); System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1500); } while (tcpClient.Available > 0); return sb.ToString(); } private void ParseTelnet(ref StringBuilder sb) { while (tcpClient.Available > 0) { int input = tcpClient.GetStream().ReadByte(); switch (input) { // parse the input // ... do other things in special cases default: sb.Append((char)input); break; } } }

    Read the article

  • cookies handling on webrequest and response

    - by manish patel
    I have created a application that has a function mainpost. It is created to post data on a https sites. Here I want to handle cookies in this function. How can I do this task? public string Mainpost(string website, string content) { // this is what we are sending string post_data = content; // this is where we will send it string uri = website; // create a request HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest) WebRequest.Create(uri); request.KeepAlive = false; request.ProtocolVersion = HttpVersion.Version10; request.Method = "POST"; // turn our request string into a byte stream byte[] postBytes = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(post_data); // this is important - make sure you specify type this way request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; request.ContentLength = postBytes.Length; Stream requestStream = request.GetRequestStream(); // now send it requestStream.Write(postBytes, 0, postBytes.Length); requestStream.Close(); // grab te response and print it out to the console along with the status // code HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); string str = (new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()).ReadToEnd()); Console.WriteLine(response.StatusCode); return str; }

    Read the article

  • How to handle image/gif type response on client side using GWT

    - by user200340
    Hi all, I have a question about how to handle image/gif type response on client side, any suggestion will be great. There is a service which responds for retrieving image (only one each time at the moment) from database. The code is something like, JDBC Connection Construct MYSQL query. Execute query If has ResultSet, retrieve first one { //save image into Blob image, “img” is the only entity in the image table. image = rs.getBlob("img"); } response.setContentType("image/gif"); //set response type InputStream in = image.getBinaryStream(); //output Blob image to InputStream int bufferSize = 1024; //buffer size byte[] buffer = new byte[bufferSize]; //initial buffer int length =0; //read length data from inputstream and store into buffer while ((length = in.read(buffer)) != -1) { out.write(buffer, 0, length); //write into ServletOutputStream } in.close(); out.flush(); //write out The code on client side .... imgform.setAction(GWT.getModuleBaseURL() + "serviceexample/ImgRetrieve"); .... ClickListener { OnClick, then imgform.submit(); } formHandler { onSubmit, form validation onSubmitComplete ??????? //handle response, and display image **Here is my question, i had tried Image img = new Image(GWT.getHostPageBaseURL() +"serviceexample/ImgRetrieve"); mg.setSize("300", "300"); imgpanel.add(img); but i only got a non-displayed image with 300X300 size.** } So, how should i handle the responde in this case? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Submit a form and get a JSON response with jQuery

    - by Leopd
    I expect this is easy, but I'm not finding a simple explanation anywhere of how to do this. I have a standard HTML form like this: <form name="new_post" action="process_form.json" method=POST> <label>Title:</label> <input id="post_title" name="post.title" type="text" /><br/> <label>Name:</label><br/> <input id="post_name" name="post.name" type="text" /><br/> <label>Content:</label><br/> <textarea cols="40" id="post_content" name="post.content" rows="20"></textarea> <input id="new_post_submit" type="submit" value="Create" /> </form> I'd like to have javascript (using jQuery) submit the form to the form's action (process_form.json), and receive a JSON response from the server. Then I'll have a javascript function that runs in response to the JSON response, like function form_success(json) { alert('Your form submission worked'); // process json response } How do I wire up the form submit button to call my form_success method when done? Also it should override the browser's own navigation, since I don't want to leave the page. Or should I move the button out of the form to do that?

    Read the article

  • Response Redirect - Open Link in New Window

    - by bacis09
    First, I've taken the time to review this question which seems to be the most similar, however, the solution that seems to have been selected will not work in my scenario.Not to mention I worry about some of the comments claiming it to be brittle or an inadequate solution. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/104601/asp-net-response-redirect-to-new-window -We have an XML document which basically contains all of the information for a Side menu. -We have numerous URLS which are stored in a constants class. -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it label) is used to determine if the menu item is created as a LinkButton or a Label. -Links use a custom user control that is used standard for all links across the application (why suggestion on similar thread doesn't work - I don't want all links to open in a new window - just one) -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it function) is used in a Switch statement to generate our links using Response Redirect. It may look something like this. switch (function) { case goto 1: string url; if (user_group == 1) { url = Constants.CONSTANT1 } else { url = Constants.CONSTANT2 } Response.Redirect(url) case goto 2: ...... default: ...... break; } Given this scenario, I'm trying to find the best way to quickly open a New Window, when a specific case in this switch statement is met. Can it be done with Response Redirect (this seems to be arguable - people say no it can't, yet other people say they have made it work)? If not, what alternative can work here?

    Read the article

  • Calling a function from a ajax response content

    - by pistolshrimp
    Hi guys. I have a function when the page is ready. <script> $(function(){ function do_ajax(){ do some stuff } });.... This works great on that page. Then I make a .post call and load the response into a div. The response has a <script>$(selector).click(function(){ do_ajax(); });</script> with the result. I get an error "do_ajax() is undefined". How can I call do_ajax() from an event from the ajax content? Another one. I am using jquery ui datepicker. So, when the page is loaded, I invoke the $(".datepicker").datepicker(); This works great on that page. Then I make a .post call and load the response into a div. The response has a couple of .datepicker fields. The problem is that the newly loaded datepicker fields don't get the calendar unless I return <script>$(".datepicker").datepicker();</script> with the result. Is that how you guys do it or is there another way? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • remove double http:// from input via jquery

    - by loo
    I have a textarea with a default value of http://. Now when an user pastes in an url (if they don't know what they are doing, like most people) it comes out like this http://http://www.google.com. I've seen a site that as soon as you have http://http:// it removes one via Ajax. I am not familiar with Ajax, so can anyone help me? I don't want to clear the field on focus only.

    Read the article

  • Where can I find sample XHTML5 source codes?

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    Where can I find sample *X*HTML 5 pages? I mainly want to know if it is possible to mix and match XHTML 5 with other XML languages just like XHTML 1 or not. For example is something like this valid in XHTML 5? <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "WHAT SHOULD BE HERE?" "WHAT SHOULD BE HERE?"> <html xmlns="WHAT SHOULD BE HERE?" xmlns:ui="http://java.sun.com/jsf/facelets"> <head> <title><ui:insert name="title">Default title</ui:insert></title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="./css/main.css"/> </head> <body> <div id="header"> <ui:insert name="header"> <ui:include src="header.xhtml"/> </ui:insert> </div> <div id="left"> <ui:insert name="navigation" > <ui:include src="navigation.xhtml"/> </ui:insert> </div> <div id="center"> <br /> <span class="titleText"> <ui:insert name="title" /> </span> <hr /> <ui:insert name="content"> <div> <ui:include src="content.xhtml"/> </div> </ui:insert> </div> <div id="right"> <ui:insert name="news"> <ui:include src="news.xhtml"/> </ui:insert> </div> <div id="footer"> <ui:insert name="footer"> <ui:include src="footer.xhtml"/> </ui:insert> </div> </body> </html> Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • htaccess redirect to www excluding subdomains both https and http

    - by wes
    So this is what I currently have, I'm trying to redirect http://something.com to http://www.something.com but if its a subdomain do no such things, so http://other.somethings.com will stay the same AND conditional based on https/http Currently have.. RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www. RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L]

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73  | Next Page >