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  • Sourcing a shell script, while running with sudo

    - by WishCow
    I would like to write a shell script that sets up a mercurial repository, and allow all users in the group "developers" to execute this script. The script is owned by the user "hg", and works fine when ran. The problem comes when I try to run it with another user, using sudo, the execution halts with a "permission denied" error, when it tries to source another file. The script file in question: create_repo.sh #!/bin/bash source colors.sh REPOROOT="/srv/repository/mercurial/" ... rest of the script .... Permissions of create_repo.sh, and colors.sh: -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 551 2011-01-07 10:20 colors.sh -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 1137 2011-01-07 11:08 create_repo.sh Sudoers setup: %developer ALL = (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh What I'm trying to run: user@nebu:~$ id uid=1000(user) gid=1000(user) groups=4(adm),20(dialout),24(cdrom),46(plugdev),105(lpadmin),113(sambashare),116(admin),1000(user),1001(developer) user@nebu:~$ sudo -l Matching Defaults entries for user on this host: env_reset User user may run the following commands on this host: (ALL) ALL (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh: line 3: colors.sh: Permission denied So the script is executed, but halts when it tries to include the other script. I have also tried using: user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /bin/bash /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh Which gives the same result. What is the correct way to include another shell script, if the script may be ran with a different user, through sudo?

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  • Kohana 3.2 - Database Session losing data on new Page Request

    - by reado
    I've setup my dev Kohana server to use an encrypted database as the default Session type. I'm also using this in combination with Auth to implement user authentication. Right now my user's are able to authenticate correctly and the authentication keys are being stored in the session. I'm also storing additional data like the user's firstname and businessname during the login procedure. When my login function is ready to redirect the user to the user dashboard, I'm able to see all the data correctly when I do $session::instance()->as_array(); (Array ( [auth_user] => NRyk6lA8 [businessname] => Dudetown [firstname] => Matt )) As soon as I redirect the user to another page, $session::instance()->as_array(); is empty. By dumping out the Session::instance() object, I can see that the Session id's are still the same. When I look at my database table though, i dont see any session records being saved and my session table is empty. My bootstrap.php contains: Session::$default = 'database'; Cookie::$salt = 'asdfasdf'; Cookie::$expiration = 1209600; Cookie::$domain = FALSE; and my session.php config file looks like: return array( 'database' => array( 'name' => 'auth_user', 'encrypted' => TRUE, 'lifetime' => 24 * 3600, 'group' => 'default', 'table' => 'sessions', 'columns' => array( 'session_id' => 'session_id', 'last_active' => 'last_active', 'contents' => 'contents' ), 'gc' => 500, ), ); I've looked high and low for an answer.. if anyone has any suggestions, i'm all ears! Thanks!

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  • Use Django ORM as standalone [closed]

    - by KeyboardInterrupt
    Possible Duplicates: Use only some parts of Django? Using only the DB part of Django I want to use the Django ORM as standalone. Despite an hour of searching Google, I'm still left with several questions: Does it require me to set up my Python project with a setting.py, /myApp/ directory, and modules.py file? Can I create a new models.py and run syncdb to have it automatically setup the tables and relationships or can I only use models from existing Django projects? There seems to be a lot of questions regarding PYTHONPATH. If you're not calling existing models is this needed? I guess the easiest thing would be for someone to just post a basic template or walkthrough of the process, clarifying the organization of the files e.g.: db/ __init__.py settings.py myScript.py orm/ __init__.py models.py And the basic essentials: # settings.py from django.conf import settings settings.configure( DATABASE_ENGINE = "postgresql_psycopg2", DATABASE_HOST = "localhost", DATABASE_NAME = "dbName", DATABASE_USER = "user", DATABASE_PASSWORD = "pass", DATABASE_PORT = "5432" ) # orm/models.py # ... # myScript.py # import models.. And whether you need to run something like: django-admin.py inspectdb ... (Oh, I'm running Windows if that changes anything regarding command-line arguments.).

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  • A GUID as the MySQL table's Primary Key or as a separate column

    - by Ben
    I have a multi-process program that performs, in a 2 hour period, 5-10 million inserts to a 34GB table within a single Master/Slave MySQL setup (plus an equal number of reads in that period). The table in question has only 5 fields and 3 (single field) indexes. The primary key is auto-incrementing. I am far from a DBA, but the database appears to be crippled during this two hour period. So, I have a couple of general questions. 1) How much bang will I get out of batching these writes into units of 10? Currently, I am writing each insert serially because, after writing, I immediately need to know, in my program, the resulting primary key of each insert. The PK is the only unique field presently and approximating the order of insertion with something like a Datetime field or a multi-column value is not acceptable. If I perform a bulk insert, I won't know these IDs, which is a problem. So, I've been thinking about turning the auto-increment primary key into a GUID and enforcing uniqueness. I've also been kicking around the idea of creating a new column just for the purposes of the GUID. I don't really see the what that achieves though, that the PK approach doesn't already offer. As far as I can tell, the big downside to making the PK a randomly generated number is that the index would take a long time to update on each insert (since insertion order would not be sequential). Is that an acceptable approach for a table that is taking this number of writes? Thanks, Ben

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  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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  • How do I rewrite a for loop with a shared dependency using actors

    - by Thomas Rynne
    We have some code which needs to run faster. Its already profiled so we would like to make use of multiple threads. Usually I would setup an in memory queue, and have a number of threads taking jobs of the queue and calculating the results. For the shared data I would use a ConcurrentHashMap or similar. I don't really want to go down that route again. From what I have read using actors will result in cleaner code and if I use akka migrating to more than 1 jvm should be easier. Is that true? However, I don't know how to think in actors so I am not sure where to start. To give a better idea of the problem here is some sample code: case class Trade(price:Double, volume:Int, stock:String) { def value(priceCalculator:PriceCalculator) = (priceCalculator.priceFor(stock)-> price)*volume } class PriceCalculator { def priceFor(stock:String) = { Thread.sleep(20)//a slow operation which can be cached 50.0 } } object ValueTrades { def valueAll(trades:List[Trade], priceCalculator:PriceCalculator):List[(Trade,Double)] = { trades.map { trade => (trade,trade.value(priceCalculator)) } } def main(args:Array[String]) { val trades = List( Trade(30.5, 10, "Foo"), Trade(30.5, 20, "Foo") //usually much longer ) val priceCalculator = new PriceCalculator val values = valueAll(trades, priceCalculator) } } I'd appreciate it if someone with experience using actors could suggest how this would map on to actors.

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  • Ninject giving NullReferenceException

    - by Iceman
    I'm using asp.net MVC 2 and Ninject 2. The setup is very simple. Controller calls service that calls repository. In my controller I use inject to instantiate the service classes with no problem. But the service classes don't instantiate the repositories, giving me NullReferenceException. public class BaseController : Controller { [Inject] public IRoundService roundService { get; set; } } This works. But then this does not... public class BaseService { [Inject] public IRoundRepository roundRepository { get; set; } } Giving a NullReferenceException, when I try to use the roundRepository in my RoundService class. IList<Round> rounds = roundRepository.GetRounds( ); Module classes... public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load( ) { Bind( ).To( ).InRequestScope( ); } } public class RepositoryModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load( ) { Bind<IRoundRepository>( ).To<RoundRepository>( ).InRequestScope( ); } } In global.axax.cs protected override IKernel CreateKernel( ) { return new StandardKernel( new ServiceModule( ), new RepositoryModule( ) ); }

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  • jQuery "growl-like" effect in VB.net

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all, i have made a simple form that mimiks the jQuery "GROWL" effect seen here http://www.sandbox.timbenniks.com/projects/jquery-notice/ However, i have ran into a problem. If i have more than one call to the form to display a "Growl" then it just refreshes the same form with whatever call i send it. In other words, i can only display one form at a time instead of having one drop down and a new one appear above it. Here is my simple form code for the "GROWL" form: Public Class msgWindow Public howLong As Integer Public theType As String Private loading As Boolean Protected Overrides Sub OnPaint(ByVal pe As System.Windows.Forms.PaintEventArgs) Dim pn As New Pen(Color.DarkGreen) If theType = "OK" Then pn.Color = Color.DarkGreen ElseIf theType = "ERR" Then pn.Color = Color.DarkRed Else pn.Color = Color.DarkOrange End If pn.Width = 2 pe.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pn, 0, 0, Me.Width, Me.Height) pn = Nothing End Sub Public Sub showMessageBox(ByVal typeOfBox As String, ByVal theMessage As String) Me.Opacity = 0 Me.Show() Me.SetDesktopLocation(My.Computer.Screen.WorkingArea.Width - 350, 15) Me.loading = True theType = typeOfBox lblSaying.Text = theMessage If typeOfBox = "OK" Then Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(192, 255, 192) ElseIf typeOfBox = "ERR" Then Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(255, 192, 192) Else Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(255, 255, 192) End If If Len(theMessage) <= 30 Then howLong = 4000 ElseIf Len(theMessage) >= 31 And Len(theMessage) <= 80 Then howLong = 7000 ElseIf Len(theMessage) >= 81 And Len(theMessage) <= 100 Then howLong = 12000 Else howLong = 17000 End If Me.opacityTimer.Start() End Sub Private Sub opacityTimer_Tick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles opacityTimer.Tick If Me.loading Then Me.Opacity += 0.07 If Me.Opacity >= 0.8 Then Me.opacityTimer.Stop() Me.opacityTimer.Dispose() Pause(howLong) Me.loading = False Me.opacityTimer.Start() End If Else Me.Opacity -= 0.08 If Me.Opacity <= 0 Then Me.opacityTimer.Stop() Me.Close() End If End If End Sub Public Sub Pause(ByVal Milliseconds As Integer) Dim dTimer As Date dTimer = Now.AddMilliseconds(Milliseconds) Do While dTimer > Now Application.DoEvents() Loop End Sub End Class I call the form by this simple call: Call msgWindow.showMessageBox("OK", "Finished searching images.") Does anyone know a way where i can have the same setup but would allow me to add any number of forms without refreshing the same form over and over again? Like always, any help would be great! :) David

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  • ASP.NET web form Routing issue via UNC Path

    - by Slash
    I create a IIS 7.0 website via UNC path to load .aspx to dynamic compile files and runs. however, it's running perfect. I always use IIS URL Rewrite module 2 to rewrite my site URL n' its perfect, too. Today, I wanna use System.Web.Routing to implement url rewrite but I encountered difficulties... When I wrote code in Global.asax: System.Web.Routing.RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("TEST", "AAA/{prop}", "~/BBB/CCC.aspx"); And it just CANNOT reDirect to /BBB/CCC.aspx When I type the URL(like: xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx) in browser directly, it runs normally that I want. (so it proof CCC.aspx is in right path.) thus, I copy all of the code and open VS2010 running with IIS 7.5 Express locally, it works perfect! e.g: in browser URL I type xx.xx.xx.xx/AAA/1234, it will turn to page xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx (Works perfect!) Why??? help me plz. thanks. Update: I think I should consider not UNC path to make it error! when I move all code to physical disk and setup IIS 7.0 to monitor this Folder, it still not works! But the same code run in VS2010 + IIS 7.5 Express it works!? so strange!

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  • Adding a block of XML as child of a SimpleXMLElement object

    - by miCRoSCoPiC_eaRthLinG
    Hey all, I have this SimpleXMLElement object with a XML setup similar to the following... $xml <<< EOX <books> <book> <name>ABCD</name> </book> </books> EOX; $sx = new SimpleXMLElement( $xml ); Now I have a class named Book that contains info. about each book. The same class can also spit out the book info. in XML format akin the the above (the nested block).. example, $book = new Book( 'EFGH' ); $book->genXML(); ... will generate <book> <name>EFGH</name> </book> Now I'm trying to figure out a way by which I can use this generated XML block and append as a child of so that now it looks like... for example.. // Non-existent member method. For illustration purposes only. $sx->addXMLChild( $book->genXML() ); ...XML tree now looks like: <books> <book> <name>ABCD</name> </book> <book> <name>EFGH</name> </book> </books> From what documentation I have read on SimpleXMLElement, addChild() won't get this done for you as it doesn't support XML data as tag value. Any ideas on how I should go about this ? Thanks, m^e

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  • How can you adjust the height of a jquery UI accordian?

    - by KallDrexx
    In my UI I have an accordian setup that so far functions <div id="object_list"> <h3>Section 1</h3> <div>...content...</div> // More sections </div> The accordian works properly when it is first formed, and it seems to adjust itself well for the content inside each of the sections. However, if I then add more content into the accordian after the .accordian() call (via ajax), the inner for the section ends up overflowing. Since the accordian is being formed with almost no content, all the inner divs are extremely small, and thus the content overflows and you get accordians with scrollbars inside with almost no viewing area. I have attempted to add min-height styles to the object_list div, and the content divs to no avail. Adding the min-height to the inner divs kind of worked, but it messed up the accordian's animations, and adding it to the object_list div did absolutely nothing. How can I get a reasonable size out of the content sections even when there is not enough content to fill those sections?

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  • Identify server that made call to web service

    - by sleepybobos
    I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

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  • PHP JQuery: Where to specify uploadify destination folder

    - by Eamonn
    I have an uploadify script running, basic setup. Works fine when I hard code the destination folder for the images into uploadify.php - now I want to make that folder dynamic. How do I do this? I have a PHP variable $uploadify_path which contains the path to the folder I want. I have switched out my hard coded $targetPath = path/to/directory for $targetPath = $uploadify_path in both uploadify.php and check_exists.php, but it does not work. The file upload animation runs, says it is complete, yet the directory remains empty. The file is not hiding out somewhere else either. I see there is an option in the Javascript to specify a folder. I tried this also, but to no avail. If anyone could educate me on how to pass this variable destination to uploadify, I'd be very grateful. I include my current code for checking (basically default): The Javascript <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#file_upload').uploadify({ 'swf' : 'uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'uploader' : 'uploadify/uploadify.php', // Put your options here }); }); </script> uploadify.php $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $uploadify_path; // Relative to the root if (!empty($_FILES)) { $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetFile = $targetPath . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; // Validate the file type $fileTypes = array('jpg','jpeg','gif','png'); // File extensions $fileParts = pathinfo($_FILES['Filedata']['name']); if (in_array($fileParts['extension'],$fileTypes)) { move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); echo '1'; } else { echo 'Invalid file type.'; } }

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  • How do you test a command object in a grails controller integration test?

    - by egervari
    I'm new to grails. How do I test a form command object to make sure that it's working? Here's some setup code in a test. When I try to do it, I get the following exceptions: Error occurred creating command object. org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.servlet.mvc.exceptions.ControllerExecutionException: Error occurred creating command object. at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) .... Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: password for class: project.user.RegistrationForm Possible solutions: password Here is my test case. As you can see, I set "password" on the params map... void testSaveWhenDataIsCorrect() { controller.params.emailAddress = "[email protected]" controller.params.password = "secret" controller.params.confirmPassword = "secret" controller.save() assertEquals "success", redirectArgs.view ... } Here's the controller action, that adds the command object as a closure parameter: def save = { RegistrationForm form -> if(form.hasErrors()) { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } else { def user = new User(form.properties) user.password = form.encryptedPassword if(user.save()) { redirect(action: "success") } else { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } } } Here's the command object itself... and note that it DOES have a "password" field... class RegistrationForm { def springSecurityService String emailAddress String password String confirmPassword String getEncryptedPassword() { springSecurityService.encodePassword(password) } static constraints = { emailAddress(blank: false, email: true) password(blank: false, size:4..10) confirmPassword(blank: false, validator: { password != confirmPassword }) } } I'm totally lost in the non-intuitive way to do controllers... Please help.

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  • Stop an executing recursive javascript function

    - by DA
    Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

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  • Windows Service Installation

    - by Goober
    Scenario I have a server, that has NO Visual Studio Installed. It literally has a normal command prompt and nothing installed yet. We don't want to install anything (except the .Net framework which we have already done). We just want to install a bunch of C# Windows Services that we have written. So far I have been installing and running the windows service on my local machine using a "setup and deploy" project that I built into the application, which I could then use to install the service locally. Question How can I install the service on the server? I imagine it can be done from the command prompt only, but what else do I need? - If anything? and where do I put the files that I want to install BEFORE I install them? I imagine I will have to compile the application on my local machine in Visual Studio, then copy it over to the server, and then run an install utility to install it on the server? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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  • Bluetooth to arduino

    - by user1833709
    My current project includes an Arduino Uno attached via USB to a laptop. The laptop is there is receive messages via bluetooth (I realize I could connect a bluetooth modem directly to the arduino but this project has to come in under budget). What I'd ideally like to do is write a program that continually checks whether the laptop has been paired to a bluetooth transmitter (my phone) and sends this to the arduino. Do you think should write a program that checks the bluetooth state and writes a 0 or 1 to a text document, and then use something like Gobetwino to read from the text document? I could probably figure out how to continually read from the file, but I don't know enough about bluetooth to know how to check whether it's paired or not, computer-side. Something that writes directly to the arduino instead of a text document would be my preference, but I don't know where to start. I'm using an Android phone and Windows 7. If you need more info about the setup, just ask. Does anyone have any experience with this?

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  • Address family not supported by protocol exception

    - by srg
    I'm trying to send a couple of values from an android application to a web service which I've setup. I'm using Http Post to send them but when I run the application I get the error- request time failed java.net.SocketException: Address family not supported by protocol. I get this while debugging with both the emulator as well as a device connected by wifi. I've already added the internet permission using: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> This is the code i'm using to send the values void insertData(String name, String number) throws Exception { String url = "http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/"; HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); try { List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("a", name)); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("b", number)); post.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse response = client.execute(post); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Also I know that my web service work fine because when I send the values from an html page it works fine - <form name="form1" action="http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/" method="post"> <input type="text" name="a"/> <input type="text" name="b"/> <input type="submit"/> I've seen questions of similar problems but haven't really found a solution. Thanks

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  • npgsql Leaking Postgres DB Connections: Way to monitor connections?

    - by Alan
    Background: I'm moving my application from npgsql v1 to npgsql v2.0.9. After a few minutes of running my application, I get a System.Exception: Timeout while getting a connection from the pool. The web claims that this is due to leaking connections (opening a db connection, but not properly closing them). So I'm trying to diagnose leaking postgres connections in npgsql. From the various web literature around; one way to diagnose leaking connections is to setup logging on npgsql, and look for the leaking connection warning message in the log. Problem is, I'm not seeing this message in the logs anywhere. I also found utility that monitors npgsql connections, but it's unstable and crashes. So I'm left manually inspecting code. For everyplace that creates an npgsql connection, there is a finally block disposing of it. For everyplace that opens a datareader, CommandBehavior.CloseConnection is used (and the datareader is disposed). Any other places to check or can someone recommend a way to look for leaking pool connections?

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  • ASP MVC - Routing Required?

    - by evo_9
    I've been reading up on MVC2 which came in VS2010 and it sounds pretty interesting. I'm actually in the middle of a large multi-tenant application project, and have just started coding the UI. I'm considering changing to MVC as I'm not that far along at this point. I have some questions about the Routing capabilities, namely are they required to use MVC or can I more or less ignore Routing? Or do I have to setup a default routing record that will make things work like standard ASPX (as far as routing alone is concerned)? The reason why I don't want to use Routing is because I've already defined a custom URL 'rewrite' mechanism of my own (which fires on session_start). In addition, I'm using jquery and opens-standards for the entire UI, and MVC's aspx overhead-free approach seems like a better fit based on how I've already started to build the application (I am not using viewstate at all, for example). I guess my big concern is whether the routing can be ignored, of if I will have to re-implement my custom URL rewriting to work with MVC, and if that's the case, how would I do that? As a new Routing routine, or stick with the session_start (if that's even possible?). Lastly, I don't want to use anything even remotely 'intelligent/readable' for the url - for a site like StackOverflow, the readability of the URL is a positive, but the opposite is true if it's not a public website like this one. In fact, it would seem to me that the more friendly MVC routing URL (which indirectly show method names) could pose a security risk on a private, non-public website app like I'm developing. For all these reasons I would love to use the lightweight aspects of MVC but skip the Routing entirely - is this possible?

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  • How do I test is storage-conf is being loaded in Cassandra 0.7.3?

    - by user657253
    I have installed Cassandra and gotten it working on two machines. I have followed the instructions to hook them up to each other by configuring the storage-conf.xml files. Both machines respond well to thrift and to command line cassandra. This is tutorial I used to setup the storage-conf.xml files. The tutorial says that if I run netstat, I should NOT see Cassandra bound to 127.0.0.1 on my seed node. I should see it bound to my internal IP, which I have configured in the storage-conf.xml file. I have rebooted the servers and relaunched cassandra. Still, I see the localhost address insead of the correct internal IP address. Is it that my .yaml file is overriding the storage-conf.xml file? If so, how do I delete the appropriate things in the .yaml? Or how do I tell Cassandra to look for my storage-conf.xml file? A few things I have tried: renaming the cassandra.yaml file. What happens is that cassandra will not load. If i rename the storage-conf.xml, cassandra does load. When I installed Cassandra, it did not come with a storage-conf.xml file. I had to grab it off the apache wiki.

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  • Polymorphic urls with singular resources

    - by Brendon Muir
    I'm getting strange output when using the following routing setup: resources :warranty_types do resources :decisions end resource :warranty_review, :only => [] do resources :decisions end I have many warranty_types but only one warranty_review (thus the singular route declaration). The decisions are polymorphically associated with both. I have just a single decisions controller and a single _form.html.haml partial to render the form for a decision. This is the view code: = simple_form_for @decision, :url => [@decision_tree_owner, @decision.becomes(Decision)] do |form| The warranty_type url looks like this (for a new decision): /warranty_types/2/decisions whereas the warranty_review url looks like this: /admin/warranty_review/decisions.1 I think because the warranty_review id has no where to go, it's just getting appended to the end as an extension. Can someone explain what's going on here and how I might be able to fix it? I can work around it by trying to detect for a warranty_review class and substituting @decision_tree_owner with :warranty_review and this generates the correct url, but this is messy. I would have thought that the routing would be smart enough to realise that warranty_review is a singular resource and thus discard the id from the URL. This is Rails 3 by the way :)

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  • facebook authentication / login trouble

    - by salmane
    I have setup facebook authentication using php and it goes something like this first getting the authorization here : https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?client_id=<?= $facebook_app_id ?>&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&scope=user_about_me,publish_stream then getting the access Token here : $url = "https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id=".$facebook_app_id."&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&client_secret=".$facebook_secret."&code=".$code;" function get_string_between($string, $start, $end){ $string = " ".$string; $ini = strpos($string,$start); if ($ini == 0) return ""; $ini += strlen($start); $len = strpos($string,$end,$ini) - $ini; return substr($string,$ini,$len); } $access_token = get_string_between(file_get_contents($url), "access_token=", "&expires="); then getting user info : $facebook_user = file_get_contents('https://graph.facebook.com/me?access_token='.$access_token); $facebook_id = json_decode($facebook_user)->id; $first_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->first_name; $last_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->last_name; this is pretty ugly ( in my opinion ) but it works....how ever....the user is still not logged in...because i did not create or retrieve any session variables to confirm that the user is logged in to facebook... which means that after getting the authentication done the use still has to login .... first: is there a better way using php to do what i did above ? second: how do i set/ get session variable / cookies that ensure that the user doesnt have to click login thanks for your help

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  • Finding Local IP via Socket Creation / getsockname

    - by BSchlinker
    I need to get the IP address of a system within C++. I followed the logic and advice of another comment on here and created a socket and then utilized getsockname to determine the IP address which the socket is bound to. However, this doesn't appear to work (code below). I'm receiving an invalid IP address (58.etc) when I should be receiving a 128.etc Any ideas? string Routes::systemIP(){ // basic setup int sockfd; char str[INET_ADDRSTRLEN]; sockaddr* sa; socklen_t* sl; struct addrinfo hints, *servinfo, *p; int rv; memset(&hints, 0, sizeof hints); hints.ai_family = AF_UNSPEC; hints.ai_socktype = SOCK_DGRAM; if ((rv = getaddrinfo("4.2.2.1", "80", &hints, &servinfo)) != 0) { fprintf(stderr, "getaddrinfo: %s\n", gai_strerror(rv)); return "1"; } // loop through all the results and make a socket for(p = servinfo; p != NULL; p = p->ai_next) { if ((sockfd = socket(p->ai_family, p->ai_socktype, p->ai_protocol)) == -1) { perror("talker: socket"); continue; } break; } if (p == NULL) { fprintf(stderr, "talker: failed to bind socket\n"); return "2"; } // get information on the local IP from the socket we created getsockname(sockfd, sa, sl); // convert the sockaddr to a sockaddr_in via casting struct sockaddr_in *sa_ipv4 = (struct sockaddr_in *)sa; // get the IP from the sockaddr_in and print it inet_ntop(AF_INET, &(sa_ipv4->sin_addr.s_addr), str, INET_ADDRSTRLEN); printf("%s\n", str); // return the IP return str; }

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