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• Setting spring bean property value using ref-bean

  - by Apache Fan

  Hi, I am trying to set a property value using spring. <bean id="velocityPropsBean" class="com.test.CustomProperties" abstract="false" singleton="true" lazy-init="false" autowire="default" dependency-check="default"> <property name="properties"> <props> <prop key="resource.loader">file</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.cache">true</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.class">org.apache.velocity.runtime.resource.loader.FileResourceLoader</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.path">NEED TO INSERT VALUE AT STARTUP</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="velocityResourcePath" class="java.lang.String" factory-bean="velocityHelper" factory-method="getLoaderPath"/> Now what i need to do is insert the result from getLoaderPath into file.resource.loader.path. The value of getLoaderPath changes so it has to be loaded at server startup. Any thoughts how i can inset the velocityResourcePath value to the property?

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• Hibernate - Problem in parsing mapping file (.hbm.xml)

  - by Yatendra Goel

  I am new to Hibernate. I have an exception while running an Hibernate-based application. The exception is as follows: 16 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - Hibernate 3.3.2.GA 16 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - hibernate.properties not found 16 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - Bytecode provider name : javassist 31 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - using JDK 1.4 java.sql.Timestamp handling 94 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration - configuring from resource: /hibernate.cfg.xml 94 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration - Configuration resource: /hibernate.cfg.xml 219 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration - Reading mappings from resource : app/data/City.hbm.xml 266 [main] ERROR org.hibernate.util.XMLHelper - Error parsing XML: XML InputStream(12) Attribute "coloumn" must be declared for element type "property". 266 [main] ERROR org.hibernate.util.XMLHelper - Error parsing XML: XML InputStream(13) Attribute "coloumn" must be declared for element type "property". 266 [main] ERROR org.hibernate.util.XMLHelper - Error parsing XML: XML InputStream(14) Attribute "coloumn" must be declared for element type "property". It seems that it is not finding coloumn attribute of the property element in the mappings file but my mappings file do have the coloumn attribute. Below is the mappings file (City.hbm.xml) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping package="app.data"> <class name="City" table="CITY"> <id column="CITY_ID" name="cityId"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="cityDisplyaName" coloumn="CITY_DISPLAY_NAME" /> <property coloumn="CITY_MEANINGFUL_NAME" name="cityMeaningFulName" /> <property coloumn="CITY_URL" name="cityURL" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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• Receiving generic typed <T> custom objects through remote object in Flex

  - by Aaron

  Is it possible to receive custom generic typed objects through AMF? I'm trying to integrate a flex app with an existing C# service but flex is choking on custom generic typed objects. As far as I can tell Flex doesn't even support generics, but I'd like to be able to even just read in the object and cast its members as necessary. I basically just want flex to ignore the <T>. I'm hopeful that there's a way to do this, since flex doesn't complain about typed collections (a server call returning List works fine and flex converts it to an ArrayCollection just like an un-typed List). Here's a trimmed down example of what's going on for me: The custom C# typed class public class TypeTest<T> { public T value { get; set; } public TypeTest () { } } The server method returning the typeTest public TypeTest<String> doTypeTest() { TypeTest<String> theTester = new TypeTest<String>("grrrr"); return theTester; } The corresponding flex value object: [RemoteClass(alias="API.Model.TypeTest")] public class TypeTest { private var _value:Object; public function get value():Object { return _value; } public function set value(theValue:Object):void { _value = value; } public function TypeTest() { } } and the result handler code: public function doTypeTest(result:TypeTest):void { var theString:String = result.value as String; trace(theString); } When the result handler is called I get the runtime error: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert mx.utils::ObjectProxy@11a98041 to com.model.vos.TypeTest. Irritatingly if I change the result handler to take parameter of type Object it works fine. Anyone know how to make this work with the value object? I feel like i'm missing something really obvious.

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• Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

  - by Glinkot

  Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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• Serialize Object

  - by Mark Pearl

  Hi.. I am new to serialization and I cannot for the life of me figure out how to fix this exception I am getting... I have an object that has the following structure [XmlRoot("MaxCut2")] public class MaxCut2File : IFile { public MaxCut2File() { MyJob = new Job(); Job.Reference = "MyRef"; } [XmlElement("JobDetails", typeof(Job))] public IJob MyJob { get; set; } } An inteferface... public interface IJob { string Reference { get; set; } } And an class [Serializable()] public class Job : IJob { [XmlElement("Reference")] public string Reference { get; set; } } When I try to serialize an instance of the MaxCut2File object I get an error {"Cannot serialize member 'MaxCut2File.MaxCut2File.MyJob' of type 'MaxCut2BL.Interfaces.IJob', see inner exception for more details."} "There was an error reflecting type 'MaxCut2File.MaxCut2File'." However if I change my property MyJob from the IJob type to the Job type it works fine... Any ideas?

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• Overloading operator>> to a char buffer in C++ - can I tell the stream length?

  - by exscape

  I'm on a custom C++ crash course. I've known the basics for many years, but I'm currently trying to refresh my memory and learn more. To that end, as my second task (after writing a stack class based on linked lists), I'm writing my own string class. It's gone pretty smoothly until now; I want to overload operator that I can do stuff like cin my_string;. The problem is that I don't know how to read the istream properly (or perhaps the problem is that I don't know streams...). I tried a while (!stream.eof()) loop that .read()s 128 bytes at a time, but as one might expect, it stops only on EOF. I want it to read to a newline, like you get with cin to a std::string. My string class has an alloc(size_t new_size) function that (re)allocates memory, and an append(const char *) function that does that part, but I obviously need to know the amount of memory to allocate before I can write to the buffer. Any advice on how to implement this? I tried getting the istream length with seekg() and tellg(), to no avail (it returns -1), and as I said looping until EOF (doesn't stop reading at a newline) reading one chunk at a time.

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• function in php for displaying a menu

  - by Stanislas Piotrowski

  I met some trouble with a function I have written. In fact I have an array in which I have different custom values. I would like to display the result of that, so here is my function function getAccess($var){ $data=mysql_fetch_array(mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `acces` WHERE `id`='.$var.'")); return $data; } getAccess($_SESSION['id']); $paramAcces = array( 'comptesfinanciers' => array( 'libelle' => 'COMPTES FINANCIERS', 'acces' => $data['comptesfinanciers'], 'lien' => 'financier', 'image' => 'images/finances.png' ) ); I have done a var_dump of $paramAcces which return array(1) { ["comptesfinanciers"]=> array(4) { ["libelle"]=> string(18) "COMPTES FINANCIERS" ["acces"]=> NULL ["lien"]=> string(9) "financier" ["image"]=> string(19) "images/finances.png" } } (that are the ecpected values). Here is the function for displaying what is in the array /** * AFFICHAGE DE LA SECTION PARAMETRES SUR LA PAGE D'ACCUEIL */ function affichParam($paramAccees){ echo '<ul class="getcash-vmenu"><li><a href="index.php?p='.$paramAccees['lien'].'" class="active"><span class="t"><img src="'.$paramAccees['image'].'"> '.$paramAccees['libelle'].'</span></a></li></ul>'; } The trouble is that actualy it return to me an empty line. I really do not know what I'm wrong doin: I call the function like that: <?php affichParam($paramAccees) ?> In a second time I will add more value, so I think I will have to do a for each loop or something like that. But actualy I just would like to display the first record. Any kind of help will be much apprecitaed

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• Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache within a session?

  - by Synesso

  Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy=true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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• OOP 101 - quick question.

  - by R Bennett

  I've used procedural for sometime now and trying to get a better understanding of OOP in Php. Starting at square 1 and I have a quick question ot get this to gel. Many of the basic examples show static values ( $bob-name = "Robert";) when assigning a value, but I want to pass values... say from a form ( $name = $_POST['name']; ) class Person { // define properties public $name; public $weight; public $age; public function title() { echo $this->name . " has submitted a request "; } } $bob = new Person; // want to plug the value in here $bob->name = $name; $bob->title(); I guess I'm getting a little hung up in some areas as far as accessing variables from within the class, encapsulation & "rules", etc., can $name = $_POST['name']; reside anywhere outside of the class or am I missing an important point? Thanks

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• connecting to MySQL using JDBC in eclipse

  - by Noona

  Hello, So I want to create a JDBC connection to MySQL server that is installed on my pc, here are the steps, I installed MySQL with the username and password "root", downloaded mysql-connector-java and from theere I coped the JAR "mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin" to "C:\Sun\SDK\jdk\jre\lib\ext", I then added it as an external JAR in my project in eclipse, now in my class I have this code: public void initialiseDatabase() { try { // Load the Driver class. Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); //Create the connection using the static getConnection method databaseConnection = DriverManager.getConnection (databaseUrl+databaseName, dbUserName, dbPassword); sqlStatement = databaseConnection.createStatement(); } catch (SQLException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (Exception e) {e.printStackTrace();} } (this is going to be psuedocode cause I am reading from a properties file and don't want the one helping me reading through long lines of code from main to figure out all the variables), where databaseUrl = "127.0.0.1" dbUserName = "root" dbPassword = "root" databaseName = "MySQL" //this one I am not sure of, do I need to create it or is it set inherenrly? now the MySQL server is up and running, but when I call the method initialiseDatabase the following exception is thrown: "java.sql.SQLException: No suitable driver found for rootroot at java.sql.DriverManager.getConnection(Unknown Source) at java.sql.DriverManager.getConnection(Unknown Source) at Proxy$JDBCConnection.initialiseDatabase(Proxy.java:721)" when line 721 is: sqlStatement = databaseConnection.createStatement(); Where have I gone wrong? thanks

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• What is the Difference between GC.GetTotalMemory(false) and GC.GetTotalMemory(true)

  - by somaraj

  Hi, Could some one tell me the difference between GC.GetTotalMemory(false) and GC.GetTotalMemory(true); I have a small program and when i compared the results the first loop gives an put put < loop count 0 Diff = 32 for GC.GetTotalMemory(true); and < loop count 0 Diff = 0 for GC.GetTotalMemory(false); but shouldnt it be the otherway ? Smilarly rest of the loops prints some numbers ,which are different for both case. what does this number indicate .why is it changing as the loop increase. struct Address { public string Streat; } class Details { public string Name ; public Address address = new Address(); } class emp :IDisposable { public Details objb = new Details(); bool disposed = false; #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Disposing(true); } void Disposing(bool disposing) { if (!disposed) disposed = disposing; objb = null; GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } #endregion } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { long size1 = GC.GetTotalMemory(false); emp empobj = null; for (int i = 0; i < 200;i++ ) { // using (empobj = new emp()) //------- (1) { empobj = new emp(); //------- (2) empobj.objb.Name = "ssssssssssssssssss"; empobj.objb.address.Streat = "asdfasdfasdfasdf"; } long size2 = GC.GetTotalMemory(false); Console.WriteLine( "loop count " +i + " Diff = " +(size2-size1)); } } } }

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• How do I build a JSON object to send to an AJAX WebService?

  - by Ben McCormack

  After trying to format my JSON data by hand in javascript and failing miserably, I realized there's probably a better way. Here's what the code for the web service method and relevant classes looks like in C#: [WebMethod] public Response ValidateAddress(Request request) { return new test_AddressValidation().GenerateResponse( test_AddressValidation.ResponseType.Ambiguous); } ... public class Request { public Address Address; } public class Address { public string Address1; public string Address2; public string City; public string State; public string Zip; public AddressClassification AddressClassification; } public class AddressClassification { public int Code; public string Description; } The web service works great with using SOAP/XML, but I can't seem to get a valid response using javascript and jQuery because the message I get back from the server has a problem with my hand-coded JSON. I can't use the jQuery getJSON function because the request requires HTTP POST, so I'm using the lower-level ajax function instead: $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "http://bmccorm-xp/HBUpsAddressValidation/AddressValidation.asmx/ValidateAddress", data: "{\"Address\":{\"Address1\":\"123 Main Street\",\"Address2\":null,\"City\":\"New York\",\"State\":\"NY\",\"Zip\":\"10000\",\"AddressClassification\":null}}", dataType: "json", success: function(response){ alert(response); } }) The ajax function is submitting everything specified in data:, which is where my problem is. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object in javascript so I can plug it in to my ajax call like so: data: theRequest I'll eventually be pulling data out of text inputs in forms, but for now hard-coded test data is fine. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object to send to the web service?

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• Symfony dynamic forms

  - by Asier

  Hi there, I started with a form, which is made by hand because of it's complexity (it's a javascript modified form, with sortable parts, etc). The problem is that now I need to do the validation, and it's a total mess to do it from scratch in the action using the sfValidator* classes. So, I am thinking to do it using sfForm so that my form validation and error handling can be done more easier and so I can reuse this form for the Edit and Create pages. The form is something like this: <form> <input name="form[year]"/> <textarea name="form[description]"></textarea> <div class="sortable"> <div class="item"> <input name="form[items][0][name]"/> <input name="form[items][0][age]"/> </div> <div class="item"> <input name="form[items][1][name]"/> <input name="form[items][1][age]"/> </div> </div> </form> The thing is that the sortable part of the form can be expanded from 2 to N elements on the client side. So that it has variable items quantity which can be reordered. How can I approach this problem? Any ideas are welcome, thank you. :)

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• Core Data, Bindings, value transformers : crash when saving

  - by Gael

  Hi, I am trying to store a PNG image in a core data store backed by an sqlite database. Since I intend to use this database on an iPhone I can't store NSImage objects directly. I wanted to use bindings and an NSValueTransformer subclass to handle the transcoding from the NSImage (obtained by an Image well on my GUI) to an NSData containing the PNG binary representation of the image. I wrote the following code for the ValueTransformer : + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSImage class]; } + (BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return YES; } - (id)transformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; return [[[NSImage alloc] initWithData:value] autorelease]; } - (id)reverseTransformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; if(![value isKindOfClass:[NSImage class]]) { NSLog(@"Type mismatch. Expecting NSImage"); } NSBitmapImageRep *bits = [[value representations] objectAtIndex: 0]; NSData *data = [bits representationUsingType:NSPNGFileType properties:nil]; return data; } The model has a transformable property configured with this NSValueTransformer. In Interface Builder a table column and an image well are both bound to this property and both have the proper value transformer name (an image dropped in the image well shows up in the table column). The transformer is registered and called every time an image is added or a row is reloaded (checked with NSLog() calls). The problem arises when I am trying to save the managed objects. The console output shows the error message : [NSImage length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1004933a0 It seems like core data is using the value transformer to obtain the NSImage back from the NSData and then tries to save the NSImage instead of the NSData. There are probably workarounds such as the one presented in this post but I would really like to understand why my approach is flawn. Thanks in advance for your ideas and explanations.

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• View Models (ViewData), UserControls/Partials and Global variables - best practice?

  - by elado

  Hi I'm trying to figure out a good way to have 'global' members (such as CurrentUser, Theme etc.) in all of my partials as well as in my views. I don't want to have a logic class that can return this data (like BL.CurrentUser) I do think it needs to be a part of the Model in my views So I tried inheriting from BaseViewData with these members. In my controllers, in this way or another (a filter or base method in my BaseController), I create an instance of the inheriting class and pass it as a view data. Everything's perfect till this point, cause then I have my view data available on the main View with the base members. But what about partials? If I have a simple partial that needs to display a blog post then it looks like this: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" Inherits="ViewUserControl<Post>" %> and simple code to render this partial in my view (that its model.Posts is IEnumerable<Post>): <%foreach (Post p in this.Model.Posts) {%> <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",p); %> <%}%> Since the partial's Model isn't BaseViewData, I don't have access to those properties. Hence, I tried to make a class named PostViewData which inherits from BaseViewData, but then my containing views will have a code to actually create the PostViewData in them in order to pass it to the partial: <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",new PostViewData { Post=p,CurrentUser=Model.CurrentUser,... }); %> Or I could use a copy constructor <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",new PostViewData(Model) { Post=p }); %> I just wonder if there's any other way to implement this before I move on. Any suggestions? Thanks!

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• Deleting objects with FK constraints in Spring/Hibernate

  - by maxdj

  This seems like such a simple scenario to me, yet I cannot for the life of my find a solution online or in print. I have several objects like so (trimmed down): @Entity public class Group extends BaseObject implements Identifiable<Long> { private Long id; private String name; private Set<HiringManager> managers = new HashSet<HiringManager>(); private List<JobOpening> jobs; @ManyToMany(fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable( name="group_hiringManager", joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="group_id"), inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="hiringManager_id") ) public Set<HiringManager> getManagers() { return managers; } @OneToMany(mappedBy="group", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public List<JobOpening> getJobs() { return jobs; } } @Entity public class JobOpening extends BaseObject implements Identifiable<Long> { private Long id; private String name; private Group group; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="group_id", updatable=false, nullable=true) public Group getGroup() { return group; } } @Entity public class HiringManager extends User { @ManyToMany(mappedBy="managers", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public Set<Group> getGroups() { return groups; } } Say I want to delete a Group object. Now there are dependencies on it in the JobOpening table and in the group_hiringManager table, which cause the delete function to fail. I don't want to cascade the delete, because the managers have other groups, and the jobopenings can be groupless. I have tried overriding the remove() function of my GroupManager to remove the dependencies, but it seems like no matter what I do they persist, and the delete fails! What is the right way to remove this object?

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• .Net Remoting: Serialize Object and implementation

  - by flogo

  Hi, In my scenario there is a client-side assembly that contains a class (Task). This class implements an interface (ITask) that is known on the server. I'm trying to send a Task object from client to server without copying the assembly of the client manually to the server. If I just serialize the task object, the server obviously complains about the missing assembly. I then tried to serialze typeof(Task).Assembly but could not derserialize it on the server. Next I tried to File.ReadAllBytes(typeof(Task).Assembly.Location) and saved it to a temporary file on the server, which threw an exception on Assembly.LoadFrom(@".\temporary.dll"); Why am I doing this? Java RMI has a neat feature to request the implementation of an object that is received through remoting but is stil "unkown" (this JVM doesn't have the *.class file). This can be used for a compute server that just knows the interface of a "task" containing a run() method and downloads the implementation of this method on demand. This way the server doesn't have to be changed for new tasks. I'm trying to achieve something like this in .Net.

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• django hidden field error

  - by dana

  hi, there, i'm building a message system for a virtual community, but i can't take the userprofile id i have in views.py def save_message(request): if request.method == 'POST': form = MessageForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): new_obj = form.save(commit=False) new_obj.sender = request.user u = UserProfile.objects.get(request.POST['userprofile_id']) new_obj.owner = u new_obj.save() return HttpResponseRedirect('.') else: form = MessageForm() return render_to_response('messages/messages.html', { 'form': form, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) and the template: {% block primary %} <form action="." method="post"> {{ form.as_p }} <p><input type="hidden" value="{{ userprofile.id }}" name = "owner" /></p> <p><input type="submit" value="Send Message!" /></p> </form> {% endblock %} forms.py: class MessageForm(ModelForm): class Meta: model = Messages fields = ['message'] models.py: class Messages(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length = 300) read = models.BooleanField(default=False) owner = models.ForeignKey(UserProfile) sender = models.ForeignKey(User) I don't figure out why i get this error,since i'm just trying to get the profileId of a user, using a hiddeen field. the error is: Key 'UserProfile_id' not found in <QueryDict: {u'owner': [u''], u'message': [u'fdghjkl']}> and i'm getting it after i fill out the message text field. Thanks!

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• A linked list with multiple heads in Java

  - by Emile

  Hi, I have a list in which I'd like to keep several head pointers. I've tried to create multiple ListIterators on the same list but this forbid me to add new elements in my list... (see Concurrent Modification exception). I could create my own class but I'd rather use a built-in implementation ;) To be more specific, here is an inefficient implementation of two basic operations and the one wich doesn't work : class MyList <E { private int[] _heads; private List<E _l; public MyList ( int nbHeads ) { _heads = new int[nbHeads]; _l = new LinkedList<E(); } public void add ( E e ) { _l.add(e); } public E next ( int head ) { return _l.get(_heads[head++]); // ugly } } class MyList <E { private Vector<ListIterator<E _iters; private List<E _l; public MyList ( int nbHeads ) { _iters = new Vector<ListIterator<E(nbHeads); _l = new LinkedList<E(); for( ListIterator<E iter : _iters ) iter = _l.listIterator(); } public void add ( E e ) { _l.add(e); } public E next ( int head ) { // ConcurrentModificationException because of the add() return _iters.get(head).next(); } } Emile

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• what is the point of heterogenous arrays?

  - by aharon

  I know that more-dynamic-than-Java languages, like Python and Ruby, often allow you to place objects of mixed types in arrays, like so: ["hello", 120, ["world"]] What I don't understand is why you would ever use a feature like this. If I want to store heterogenous data in Java, I'll usually create an object for it. For example, say a User has int ID and String name. While I see that in Python/Ruby/PHP you could do something like this: [["John Smith", 000], ["Smith John", 001], ...] this seems a bit less safe/OO than creating a class User with attributes ID and name and then having your array: [<User: name="John Smith", id=000>, <User: name="Smith John", id=001>, ...] where those <User ...> things represent User objects. Is there reason to use the former over the latter in languages that support it? Or is there some bigger reason to use heterogenous arrays? N.B. I am not talking about arrays that include different objects that all implement the same interface or inherit from the same parent, e.g.: class Square extends Shape class Triangle extends Shape [new Square(), new Triangle()] because that is, to the programmer at least, still a homogenous array as you'll be doing the same thing with each shape (e.g., calling the draw() method), only the methods commonly defined between the two.

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• Java assignment issues - Is this atomic?

  - by Bob

  Hi, I've got some questions about Java's assigment. Strings I've got a class: public class Test { private String s; public synchronized void setS(String str){ s = s + " - " + str; } public String getS(){ return s; } } I'm using "synchronized" in my setter, and avoiding it in my getter, because in my app, there are a tons of data gettings, and very few settings. Settings must be synchronized to avoid inconsistency. My question is: is getting and setting a variable atomic? I mean, in a multithreaded environment, Thread1 is about to set variable s, while Thread2 is about to get "s". Is there any way the getter method could get something different than the s's old value or the s's new value (suppose we've got only two threads)? In my app it is not a problem to get the new value, and it is not a problem to get the old one. But could I get something else? What about HashMap's getting and putting? considering this: public class Test { private Map<Integer, String> map = Collections.synchronizedMap(new HashMap<Integer, String>()); public synchronized void setMapElement(Integer key, String value){ map.put(key, value); } public String getValue(Integer key){ return map.get(key); } } Is putting and getting atomic? How does HashMap handle putting an element into it? Does it first remove the old value and put the now one? Could I get other than the old value or the new value? Thanks in advance!

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• Simple Prototype.js code to select multiple elements with the same classname

  - by stephemurdoch

  I have one link with an id of "link", and I use the javascript below to open that link up in a modalbox: #In my template I have: <a href="some/path" id="link">link</a> #Then in my application.js file I have: document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { $('login-link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500}); }); }) Since id's must be unique, this javascript only works for one element per page so I use it to observe my login-link and it has served me well. Until now. I want to use the same javascript to observe multiple links which have classnames instead of id's as below: <a href="link/to/some/stuff" class="link">link 1</a> <a href="link/to/some/other/stuff" class="link">link 2</a> When I do this, I can't get any of the links to open in a modalbox. If I change the class to an id for each link, then I can get the first link in the list to open in a modalbox. I've tried to use the '$$' notation to build an array of links in my javascript (shown below) but if I do that, then none of the links open correctly #document.observe method removed for display purposes $$('link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500} ); }); My javascript skills obviously suck. Does anyone know how to fix the problem?

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• Binding type variables that only occur in assertions

  - by Giuseppe Maggiore

  Hi! I find it extremely difficult to describe my problem, so here goes nothing: I have a bunch of assertions on the type of a function. These assertions rely on a type variable that is not used for any parameter of the function, but is only used for internal bindings. Whenever I use this function it does not compile because, of course, the compiler has no information from which to guess what type to bind my type variable. Here is the code: {-# LANGUAGE MultiParamTypeClasses, FunctionalDependencies, FlexibleInstances, UndecidableInstances, FlexibleContexts, EmptyDataDecls, ScopedTypeVariables, TypeOperators, TypeSynonymInstances #-} class C a a' where convert :: a -> a' class F a b where apply :: a -> b class S s a where select :: s -> a data CInt = CInt Int instance S (Int,String) Int where select (i,_) = i instance F Int CInt where apply = CInt f :: forall s a b . (S s a, F a b) => s -> b f s = let v = select s :: a y = apply v :: b in y x :: Int x = f (10,"Pippo") And here is the generated error: FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4: No instances for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) arising from a use of `f' at FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4-17 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) In the expression: f (10, "Pippo") In the definition of `x': x = f (10, "Pippo") Failed, modules loaded: none. Prelude>

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• How to prevent linq-to-sql designer undo my changing

  - by anonim.developer

  Dear All, Thanks for your attention in advance, I’ve met an issue with LINQ-2-SQL designer in VS 2008 SP1 which has made me CRAZY. I use Linq2sql as my DAL. It seems Linq2sql speeds up coding in the first step but lots of issues arise in feature specifically with table or object inheritance. In this case I have a class Entity that all other entity classes generated by Linq2sql designer inherit from. public abstract class Entity { public virtual Guid ID { get; protected set; } } public partial class User : monius.Data.Entity { } And the following generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) [Column(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "UniqueIdentifier NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true, UpdateCheck = UpdateCheck.Never)] [DataMember(Order = 1)] public System.Guid ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } When I compile the code VS warns me that Warning 1 'User.ID' hides inherited member 'Entity.ID'. To make the current member override that mplementation, add the override keyword. Otherwise add the new keyword. That warning is obvious and I have to change the code generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) to […] public override System.Guid ID { … protected set … } And the code compiled with no error or warning and everyone is happy. But that is not the end of story. As soon as I made changes to entities of the diagram (dbml) or even I open dbml file to view it, any change manually I made to designer has been vanished and POOF! Redo AGAIN. That is a painful job. Now I wonder if there is a way to force L2S designer not changing portions of auto-generated code. I’ll be appreciated if someone kindly helps me with this issue.

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• jQuery multiple themes on one page

  - by lloydphillips

  This is driving me NUTS! I've followed the post here which just doesn't seem to be working: http://www.filamentgroup.com/lab/using_multiple_jquery_ui_themes_on_a_single_page/ I have a base theme, for examples sake it's the Smoothness theme from the jQuery UI gallery. Then I have a 'red' theme which basically colours the buttons red. Here is the theme I created. So I go to download my theme. Choose Advanced settings, set the scope to 'red' and my theme folder name to 'red' and download. First of all I'm not entirely 100% sure which folder I'm to copy over to my project is it the 'development-bundle\themes' folder (which contains my red folder) or the '\css\red' folder? I've tried both. The post above seems to suggest if I copy my themes folder and link to my theme in the css it'll work when I add a class of 'red' to a wrapper div or element. So I've linked the themes like so in my file: <link type="text/css" href="themes/base/jquery.ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <link type="text/css" href="themes/red/jquery.ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> The base theme loads and works all honkey doorey but the red theme doesn't. I've got a button styled like so: <input type="submit" id="btn" value="A submit button" class="red" /> I've also tried: <div class="red"> <input type="submit" id="btn" value="A submit button" /> </div> Neither work. When I remove the 'themes/base/jquery.ui.all.css' css file link the button's aren't styled at all. Crazy! I'm pulling my hair out. Where am I going wrong? Surely they should just make it easy enough to download JUST the theme folder and reference the ui.all file.

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