Search Results

Search found 19856 results on 795 pages for 'inversion of control'.

Page 665/795 | < Previous Page | 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672  | Next Page >

• code review: Is it subjective or objective(quantifiable) ?

  - by Ram

  I am putting together some guidelines for code reviews. We do not have one formal process yet, and trying to formalize it. And our team is geographically distributed We are using TFS for source control (used it for tasks/bug tracking/project management as well, but migrated that to JIRA) with VS2008 for development. What are the things you look for when doing a code review ? These are the things I came up with Enforce FXCop rules (we are a Microsoft shop) Check for performance (any tools ?) and security (thinking about using OWASP- code crawler) and thread safety Adhere to naming conventions The code should cover edge cases and boundaries conditions Should handle exceptions correctly (do not swallow exceptions) Check if the functionality is duplicated elsewhere method body should be small(20-30 lines) , and methods should do one thing and one thing only (no side effects/ avoid temporal coupling -) Do not pass/return nulls in methods Avoid dead code Document public and protected methods/properties/variables What other things do you generally look for ? I am trying to see if we can quantify the review process (it would produce identical output when reviewed by different persons) Example: Saying "the method body should be no longer than 20-30 lines of code" as opposed to saying "the method body should be small" Or is code review very subjective ( and would differ from one reviewer to another ) ? The objective is to have a marking system (say -1 point for each FXCop rule violation,-2 points for not following naming conventions,2 point for refactoring etc) so that developers would be more careful when they check in their code.This way, we can identify developers who are consistently writing good/bad code.The goal is to have the reviewer spend about 30 minutes max, to do a review (I know this is subjective, considering the fact that the changeset/revision might include multiple files/huge changes to the existing architecture etc , but you get the general idea, the reviewer should not spend days reviewing someone's code) What other objective/quantifiable system do you follow to identify good/bad code written by developers? Book reference: Clean Code: A handbook of agile software craftmanship by Robert Martin

  Read the article

• Get close window message in Hidden C# Console Application

  - by LexRema

  Hello everyone. I have a Windows Form that starts some console application in background(CreateNoWindow = rue,WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden). Windows form gives me opportunity to stop the console application at any time. But I'd like to handle somehow the close message inside the console application. I tried to use hooking like: [DllImport("Kernel32")] public static extern bool SetConsoleCtrlHandler(HandlerRoutine handler, bool add); // A delegate type to be used as the handler routine // for SetConsoleCtrlHandler. public delegate bool HandlerRoutine(CtrlTypes ctrlType); // An enumerated type for the control messages // sent to the handler routine. public enum CtrlTypes { CTRL_C_EVENT = 0, CTRL_BREAK_EVENT, CTRL_CLOSE_EVENT, CTRL_LOGOFF_EVENT = 5, CTRL_SHUTDOWN_EVENT } private static bool ConsoleCtrlCheck(CtrlTypes ctrlType) { StaticLogger.Instance.DebugFormat("Main: ConsoleCtrlCheck: Got event {0}.", ctrlType); if (ctrlType == CtrlTypes.CTRL_CLOSE_EVENT) { // Handle close stuff } return true; } static int Main(string[] args) { // Subscribing HandlerRoutine hr = new HandlerRoutine(ConsoleCtrlCheck); SetConsoleCtrlHandler(hr, true); // Doing stuff } but I get the message inside ConsoleCtrlCheck only if the console window is created. But if window is hidden - I don't get any message. In my windows Form to close console application process I use proc.CloseMainWindow(); to send message to the console window. P.S. AppDomain.CurrentDomain.ProcessExit += CurrentDomain_ProcessExit; - also does not help Do you now other way to handle this situation? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Calling up DockPanel-Suite's "AutoHidden" DockContent programmatically

  - by Lockszmith

  I am having trouble causing an 'autohide' dock to appear programmatically. Couldn't find any answer around the net, though the following SO Question suggested that .Show() should have done the trick I've tried this on the latest NuGet version of the code. My test code is below. Anyone know how to do it? or what I'm doing wrong? My test Code Create a simple Visual Studio Windows Form application, and replace the main form's source file content with this code: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; using dps = WeifenLuo.WinFormsUI.Docking; namespace testDockPanel { public partial class Form1 : Form { private dps.DockPanel dockPanel; private dps.DockContent dc; private Control innerCtrl; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); dockPanel = new dps.DockPanel(); dockPanel.Dock = DockStyle.Fill; dockPanel.DocumentStyle = dps.DocumentStyle.DockingWindow; toolStripContainer1.ContentPanel.Controls.Add(dockPanel); dc = new dps.DockContent(); dc.DockPanel = dockPanel; dc.DockState = dps.DockState.DockRightAutoHide; innerCtrl = new WebBrowser() { Dock = DockStyle.Fill }; dc.Controls.Add( innerCtrl ); // This SHOULD show the autohide-dock, but NOTHING happens. dc.Show(); } } }

  Read the article

• Static IP for dynamic IP

  - by scape279

  I have a dynamic IP address. I would like to have a static IP, but Virgin Media don't allow static IPs for residential broadband services, even if you ask them really nicely and offer to pay for it without switching to a business tariff. I am already registered with a dynamic DNS service which is updated by my router eg me.example.com will always resolve to my dynamic IP. This is fine for some circumstances, but not if you can only enter an IP address into configuration files/hardware etc like firewalls, subversion services etc etc. Is there a way I can have a static IP address 'forwarding' to my dynamic IP? Would a possible solution involve tunnelling? Setting up a private proxy? Please note the following: I am able to buy an IP address from my web host. I have access to a webserver and I am able to create custom DNS zones. I'm happy to have a webserver running at home if necessary also. I do not wish to change broadband providers. I have zero control over the services that require the IP address entering so I cannot tackle the problem that way round (services I need to access are at work). PS I've tried googling this issue, but it is very difficult to search for as most results are related to dynamic dns (which I already have set up and isnt quite what I'm after)

  Read the article

• Redirect from URL with QueryString to the same URL without QueryString

  - by Slauma

  I have a page request with a QueryString, say http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx?OrderID=1. The page is displayed in a browser. Now there is an asp:LinkButton on the page which should enable the user to open the page without the QueryString (as if he had entered http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx directly in the browser's address bar). I had two ideas: 1) Use the PostBackUrl attribute of the LinkButton: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" PostBackUrl="~/Orders.aspx" /> 2) Use "RedirectUrl" in an event handler: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" /> ...and... protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("~/Orders.aspx"); } In both cases the browser's address bar shows http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx without the QueryString, as I like to have it. But in the first case the page does not change at all. But it should, because I'm evaluating the QueryString in code-behind and control the appearance of the page depending on whether a QueryString exists or not. The second option works as intended. If I am not wrong the second option requires an additional roundtrip: Browser sends request to server Event handler on server side sends Redirect URL to browser Browser sends again request to the server, but with the new URL Server sends new requested page to browser Is this correct at all? Whereas the first option omits the first two steps in the list above, thus saving the additional roundtrip and resulting in: Browser sends request to the server, but with the new URL (the PostbackURL specified in the LinkButton) Server sends new requested page to browser But, as said, the result isn't the same. I'm sure my try to explain the differences between the two options is wrong somewhere. But I don't know where exactly. Can someone explain what's really the difference? Do I really need this second roundtrip of option (2) to achieve what I want? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• WPF binding to ComboBox SelectedItem when reference not in ItemsSource.

  - by juharr

  I'm binding the PageMediaSize collection of a PrintQueue to the ItemSource of a ComboBox (This works fine). Then I'm binding the SelectedItem of the ComboBox to the DefaultPrintTicket.PageMediaSize of the PrintQueue. While this will set the selected value to the DefaultPrintTicket.PageMediaSize just fine it does not set the initially selected value of the ComboBox to the initial value of DefaultPrintTicket.PageMediaSize This is because the DefaultPrintTicket.PageMediaSize reference does not match any of the references in the collection. However I don't want it to compare the objects by reference, but instead by value, but PageMediaSize does not override Equals (and I have no control over it). What I'd really like to do is setup a IComparable for the ComboBox to use, but I don't see any way to do that. I've tried to use a Converter, but I would need more than the value and I couldn't figured out how to pass the collection to the ConverterProperty. Any ideas on how to handle this problem. Here's my xaml <ComboBox x:Name="PaperSizeComboBox" ItemsSource="{Binding ElementName=PrintersComboBox, Path=SelectedItem, Converter={StaticResource printQueueToPageSizesConverter}}" SelectedItem="{Binding ElementName=PrintersComboBox, Path=SelectedItem.DefaultPrintTicket.PageMediaSize}" DisplayMemberPath="PageMediaSizeName" Height="22" Margin="120,76,15,0" VerticalAlignment="Top"/> And the code for the converter that gets the PageMediaSize collection public class PrintQueueToPageSizesConverter : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { return value == null ? null : ((PrintQueue)value).GetPrintCapabilities().PageMediaSizeCapability; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } }

  Read the article

• How Do I Use jQuery/JavaScript To Open A Popup Window/Tab (ASPX Login Page) & Then Pass Values To Op

  - by Terry Robinson

  Hi All, We currently have two asp.net 2.x web applications and we need to perform the following functionality: From one application, we want to auto-login to the other web application automatically in a new tab; using the same browser instance/window. So the process is: Open New Window/Tab With Second System URL/Login Page Wait For Popup Window/Tab Page To Load (DOM Ready?) OnPopupDomReady { Get Usename, Password, PIN Controls (jQuery Selectors) and Populate In Code Then Click Login Button (All Programatically). } I am currently using JavaScript to Open the window as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href')); return false; }); }); </script> I would like to use jQuery chaining functionality if possible to extent the method above so that I can attach a DOM Ready event to the popped up page and then use that event to call a method on the code behind of the popped up page to automatically login. Something similar to this (Note: The Following Code Sample Does Not Work, It Is Here To Try And Help Illustrate What We Are Trying To Achieve)... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href').ready(function () { // Use JavaScript (Pref. jQuery Partial Control Name Selectors) To Populate Username/Password TextBoxes & Click Login Button. }) }); }); </script> Our Architecture Is As Follows: We have the source for both products (ASP.NET WebSite[s]) and they are run under different app. pools in IIS. I hope this all makes sense, and if my plan is not going to work, please provide hints ;) Thanks All/Kind Regards, Terry Robinson.

  Read the article

• [WPF] How to register to/listen to richtextbox command's?

  - by Liewe

  I'm creating a simple editor within our application using the WPF RichTextBox. Above it I've added the reguslar buttons like Bold, Italic, etc. These buttons use the RichTextBox's commands to set these properties, but next to these buttons, the commands also get send with CTRL+B, CTRL+I, etc. I want these buttons to represent the current state of the RichTextBox at the cursor. I already found out how to get this state and it works when I update this state on the SelectionChanged event. This event ofcourse isn't fired when Bold is toggled so there is no direct feedback. I would like to know if there is a way to listen to the commands being called, without affecting its original behaviour or some other ideas to solve my problems. I tried listening to the command the following way: CommandBinding boldBinding = new CommandBinding(EditingCommands.ToggleBold, CommandExecuted); _richTextBox.CommandBindings.Add(boldBinding); and private void CommandExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { UpdateProperties(); e.Handled = false; } This did update the properties, but the RichTextBox didn't seem to receive the command anymore. I also tried to make my own commands on the control containing the RichTextBox, but when CTRL+B is pressed when the RichTextBox has focus, the original RichTextBox commands are called instead of the new one. Many thanks in advance! Liewe

  Read the article

• [WPF] How to register to/listen to richtextbox commando's?

  - by Liewe

  I'm creating a simple editor within our application using the WPF RichTextBox. Above it I've added the reguslar buttons like Bold, Italic, etc. These buttons use the RichTextBox's commands to set these properties, but next to these buttons, the commands also get send with CTRL+B, CTRL+I, etc. I want these buttons to represent the current state of the RichTextBox at the cursor. I already found out how to get this state and it works when I update this state on the SelectionChanged event. This event ofcourse isn't fired when Bold is toggled so there is no direct feedback. I would like to know if there is a way to listen to the commands being called, without affecting its original behaviour or some other ideas to solve my problems. I tried listening to the command the following way: CommandBinding boldBinding = new CommandBinding(EditingCommands.ToggleBold, CommandExecuted); _richTextBox.CommandBindings.Add(boldBinding); and private void CommandExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { UpdateProperties(); e.Handled = false; } This did update the properties, but the RichTextBox didn't seem to receive the command anymore. I also tried to make my own commands on the control containing the RichTextBox, but when CTRL+B is pressed when the RichTextBox has focus, the original RichTextBox commands are called instead of the new one. Many thanks in advance! Liewe

  Read the article

• Database Change Management - Setup for Initial Create Scripts, Subsequent Migration Scripts

  - by Martin Aatmaa

  I've got a database change management workflow in place. It's based on SQL scripts (so, it's not a managed code-based solution). The basic setup looks like this: Initial/ Generate Initial Schema.sql Generate Initial Required Data.sql Generate Initial Test Data.sql Migration 0001_MigrationScriptForChangeOne.sql 0002_MigrationScriptForChangeTwo.sql ... The process to spin up a database is to then run all the Initlal scripts, and then run the sequential Migration scripts. A tool takes case of the versioning requirements, etc. My question is, in this kind of setup, is it useful to also maintain this: Current/ Stored Procedures/ dbo.MyStoredProcedureCreateScript.sql ... Tables/ dbo.MyTableCreateScript.sql ... ... By "this" I mean a directory of scripts (separated by object type) that represents the create scripts for spinning up the current/latest version of the database. For some reason, I really like the idea, but I can't concretely justify it's need. Am I missing something? The advantages would be: For dev and source control, we would have the same object-per-file setup that we're used to For deployment, we can spin up a new DB instance to the latest version either by running the Initial+Migrate, or by running the scripts from Current/ For dev, we do not need a DB instance running in order to do development. We can do "offline" development on the Current/ folder. The disadvantages would be: For each change, we need to update the scripts in the Current/ folder, as well as create a Migration script (in the Migration/ folder) Thanks in advance for any input!

  Read the article

• MVVM Madness: Commands

  - by JP

  I like MVVM. I don't love it, but like it. Most of it makes sense. But, I keep reading articles that encourage you to write a lot of code so that you can write XAML and don't have to write any code in the code-behind. Let me give you an example. Recently I wanted to hookup a command in my ViewModel to a ListView MouseDoubleClickEvent. I wasn't quite sure how to do this. Fortunately, Google has answers for everything. I found the following articles: http://blog.functionalfun.net/2008/09/hooking-up-commands-to-events-in-wpf.html http://joyfulwpf.blogspot.com/2009/05/mvvm-invoking-command-on-attached-event.html http://sachabarber.net/?p=514 http://geekswithblogs.net/HouseOfBilz/archive/2009/08/27/adventures-in-mvvm-ndash-binding-commands-to-any-event.aspx http://marlongrech.wordpress.com/2008/12/13/attachedcommandbehavior-v2-aka-acb/ While the solutions were helpful in my understanding of commands, there were problems. Some of the aforementioned solutions rendered the WPF designer unusable because of a common hack of appending "Internal" after a dependency property; the WPF designer can't find it, but the CLR can. Some of the solutions didn't allow multiple commands to the same control. Some of the solutions didn't allow parameters. After experimenting for a few hours I just decided to do this: private void ListView_MouseDoubleClick(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { ListView lv = sender as ListView; MyViewModel vm = this.DataContext as MyViewModel; vm.DoSomethingCommand.Execute(lv.SelectedItem); } So, MVVM purists, please tell me what's wrong with this? I can still Unit test my command. This seems very practical, but seems to violate the guideline of "ZOMG... you have code in your code-behind!!!!" Please share your thoughts. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• UIView rotation, modal view lanscape and portrait, parent fails to render

  - by Ben

  Hi everyone, I've hit a bit of a roadblock with something that I hope that someone in here can help me out with. I'll describe the 'state of play' first, and then what the issue is, so here goes; I have a series of view controllers that are chained together with a Navigation Controller (this works just fine), All of these view controllers support portrait mode only (by design), In one of the view controllers (the 'end' one actually) the user can click a table cell to pop up a modal view controller (using presentModalViewController(...) of course) This modal view controller supports portrait and landscape modes (and this works), When the user clicks the 'Done' button on this modal view controller we pop and pass control back to the parent view controller, however; If the user is in portrait mode when they click 'Done' then the parent displays itself just fine, If the user is in landscape mode when they click 'Done' then the parent displays a totally white, blank screen (that covers the whole screen). It is as if the controller does not know how to render in landscape and just doesn't bother. I'd like to be able to have this parent view render in portrait no matter what the orientation of the phone is when the user clicks the 'Done' button. Various forum posts suggest using the UIDevice method 'setOrientation' (but this is undocumented and will get our app rejected apparently). Another suggestion was to set the 'statusBarOrientation' to portrait in the 'viewWillAppear' method but that had no effect. So I am a bit stuck! Has any encountered anything like this before? If need be I can provide code, if that will help anyone diagnose the problem for me. Thanks in advance! Cheers, Ben

  Read the article

• Metaprogramming - self explanatory code - tutorials, articles, books

  - by elena

  Hello everybody, I am looking into improving my programming skils (actually I try to do my best to suck less each year, as our Jeff Atwood put it), so I was thinking into reading stuff about metaprogramming and self explanatory code. I am looking for something like an idiot's guide to this (free books for download, online resources). Also I want more than your average wiki page and also something language agnostic or preferably with Java examples. Do you know of such resources that will allow to efficiently put all of it into practice (I know experience has a lot to say in all of this but i kind of want to build experience avoiding the flow bad decisions - experience - good decisions)? EDIT: Something of the likes of this example from the Pragmatic Programmer: ...implement a mini-language to control a simple drawing package... The language consists of single-letter commands. Some commands are followed by a single number. For example, the following input would draw a rectangle: P 2 # select pen 2 D # pen down W 2 # draw west 2cm N 1 # then north 1 E 2 # then east 2 S 1 # then back south U # pen up Thank you!

  Read the article

• How do I make the 32-bit Perl read the 64-bit Windows registry?

  - by Santhosh

  I have a 32-bit perl installer. Using this I need to be able to install and uninstall both 32- and 64-bit applications. Installing 32- and 64-bit is fine. Uninstalling 32-bit is also ok. However, I have a problem while uninstalling 64-bit applications. The application just knows the name of the application as seen in Add Remove programs in control panel. For instance it could be "Winzip 14.0" which is the display name for Winzip. I use the following approach for uninstallation : I traverse to HKLM/Software/Microsoft/Windows/CurrentVersion/Uninstall and parse the keys present there to see if Winzip is matching. If so i get the uninstall string from there. my $register = "SOFTWARE\\Microsoft\\Windows\\CurrentVersion\\Uninstall"; $HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE->Open($register,$hKey)|| die $!; #Then parse all the nodes and fetch the uninstall string If the application is a 64-bit installation, then the uninstallation information will reside in HKLM/Software/Microsoft/Windows/CurrentVersion/Uninstall. However the above given perl installer code is trying to read from HKLM/Software/WOW6432Node/Microsoft/Windows/CurrentVersion/Uninstall and it does not find the installation there. So how do I make the Perl code running in a 32_bit process to read the registry value found in 64-bit hive? I am aware of the RegOpenKey() API that takes KEY_WOW64_64KEY parameter. But since it is a Windows API, I dont know if that will help. Even then, is there any other alternative?

  Read the article

• UISplitView show different views in the detail pane

  - by Mark

  How can I change the view in the Details pane of the UISplitView so that its a completely different view? Im having a fair amount of trouble understanding how its all wired up and where things should go at the moment, could someone please enlighten me? What I would love to be able to do is to show a specific view based on what the user has selected in the UITableView on the left pane (this view could be an image, or a more complex view of a news article, etc... many different options) then when the user turns the iPad into portrait view, that view that was in the details pane changes to be its equivalent portrait view version. Does this make sense? How on earth would I do that? Just to brainstorm, here is what I was thinking: Create a Split View project Create 2 NIBs for each view: (with accompanying view controllers???) * PortraitNewsStory * LandscapeNewsStory * PortraitImageBrowser * LandscapeImageBrowser * etc... Create a UISplitView control using XCode Capture when a user rotates the iPad (should this be done in the RootViewController.m ?) Change the view of the DetailViewController how should I do this? profit??? Thanks Mark

  Read the article

• PrintableArea in C# - Bug?

  - by Brandi

  I am having an issue with PageSettings.PrintableArea's width and height values. Width, Height, and Size properties claim to "get or set" the values. Also, the inflate() function claims to change the size based on values passed in. However, all of these attempts to change the value have not worked. Inflate() is ignore (no error, just passes as if it worked, but the values remain unchanged. Attempting to set the height, width, or size gives a compiler error: "Cannot modify the return value of 'System.Drawing.Printing.PageSettings.PrintableArea' because it is not a variable". I get the feeling that this means the "or set" part of the description is a lie. Why I want to know this: (Someone always asks...) I have a printing application (C#, WinForm) that for most things is working rather well. I can set the printer settings and page settings objects to control what displays in the print dialog's printer properties. However, with Microsoft Office Document Image Writer, these settings are sometimes ignored, and the paper size returns as 0, 0 even when it displayed something else. All I really want it for it to be WYSIWYG as far as the displayed values go, so I change the paper size back to what it should be, but the printable area, if it is wrong, makes the resulting image wonky. The resulting image is the size of the printable area instead of the value in papersize. Just wondering if there was a reason for this or a way to get it not to do that. Thanks in advance. :)

  Read the article

• System Tray Popup Windows 7 Style

  - by Mason Blier

  Hey All, I want something like this: http://cybernetnews.com/wp-content/uploads/2008/10/windows-7-wireless.jpg This window is not resizable, and aligns itself above the system tray icon which it is related to. I have this: http://i.imgur.com/79FZi.png Which is resizeable, and it goes wherever it feels like. If you click the volume control in Win 7, it always pops up directly above the icon. This is ideal. I've found this reference which I think is trying to solve the same problem (can't tell though as the images are dead), http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2169006/create-a-system-tray-styled-box-in-winforms-c but I'm using WPF and I'm not sure how to get these Form objects they refer to from my Window object. This is the XAML declaration of my window atm, <Window xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" x:Class="WirelessControl.Window1" x:Name="Window" Title="Window1" Width="260" Height="370" mc:Ignorable="d" WindowStyle="None"></Window> I feel like based on how common this is in Windows that there must be a fairly easy way to do this. ResizeMode="NoResize" causes my window border to disappear, so that's no help. Thanks guys, I hope I was comprehensive enough.

  Read the article

• C#: How to force "calling" a method from the main thread by signaling in some way from another thread

  - by Fire-Dragon-DoL

  Sorry for long title, I don't know even the way on how to express the question I'm using a library which run a callback from a different context from the main thread (is a C Library), I created the callback in C# and when gets called I would like to just raise an event. However because I don't know what will be inside the event, I would like to find a way to invoke the method without the problem of locks and so on (otherwise the third party user will have to handle this inside the event, very ugly) Are there any way to do this? I can be totally on the wrong way but I'm thinking about winforms way to handle different threads (the .Invoke thing) Otherwise I can send a message to the message loop of the window, but I don't know a lot about message passing and if I can send "custom" messages like this Example: private uint lgLcdOnConfigureCB(int connection, System.IntPtr pContext) { OnConfigure(EventArgs.Empty); return 0U; } this callback is called from another program which I don't have control over, I would like to run OnConfigure method in the main thread (the one that handles my winform), how to do it? Or in other words, I would like to run OnConfigure without the need of thinking about locks

  Read the article

• Can AutoIt scripts run as a scheduled task while not logged in?

  - by muddywater

  I am using Ruby/WATIR/AutoIt to automate a task via Task Scheduler which runs fine as long as I am logged in, but as soon as my account is locked (mandated 10 minute screen lock) or I logout the script stops functioning. When I log back in, it is sitting at the part where AutoIt is supposed to handle a file download dialogue by clicking save and then entering the filename and clicking to save again. The follwing is the code that works while I am logged in. Is AutoIt supposed to work when I am not logged in, and is there some other way to accomplish this? Thanks!! because search has not turned up anything (terms are too generic) prompt_message = "Do you want to save this file, or find a program online to open it?" window_title = "File Download" save_dialog = WIN32OLE.new("AutoItX3.Control") sleep 1 save_dialog_obtained = save_dialog.WinWaitActive(window_title,prompt_message, 25) save_dialog.ControlFocus(window_title, prompt_message, "&Save") sleep 1 save_dialog.Send("S") save_dialog.ControlClick(window_title, prompt_message, "&Save") save_dialog.WinSetTitle(window_title, prompt_message, "This is ForTesting" ) saveas_dialog_obtained = save_dialog.WinWait("Save As", "Save&in", 5) sleep 1 path = fileName puts " Edit the file path" save_dialog.ControlSend("Save As", "", "Edit1",path) sleep 4 puts " Save the file" save_dialog.ControlClick("Save As", "Save &in", "&Save") save_fileAlreadyExists = save_dialog.Send("Y")

  Read the article

• dotRAS Disconnected State not triggered

  - by JD

  Can someone give me a heads up... I'm trying to use the dotRAS .NET control, and this code to change the value of internetConnected (boolean) using an event handler... But it seems that the state RasConnectionState.Disconnected is not triggered by dotRAS hangup().. Any ideas? Am I doing it totally wrong... or have I managed to find a bug? public class USBModem { // private vars private RasDialer dialer = new RasDialer(); private bool internetConnected = false; /// <summary> /// Default constructor for USBModem /// </summary> public USBModem() { // Add Events for dialer dialer.StateChanged += new EventHandler<StateChangedEventArgs>(dialer_StateChanged); } void dialer_StateChanged(object sender, StateChangedEventArgs e) { // Handle state changes here switch (e.State) { case RasConnectionState.Connected: internetConnected = true; Console.WriteLine(e.State.ToString()); break; case RasConnectionState.Disconnected: internetConnected = false; Console.WriteLine(e.State.ToString()); break; default: Console.WriteLine("INFO -> Unhandled state: " + e.State.ToString()); break; } } public void ConnectInternet(string connectionName) { // Dial dialer.PhoneBookPath = RasPhoneBook.GetPhoneBookPath(RasPhoneBookType.AllUsers); dialer.EntryName = connectionName; dialer.DialAsync(); } public void DisconnectInternet() { foreach (RasConnection connection in dialer.GetActiveConnections()) { connection.HangUp(); } } }

  Read the article

• Display a Photo Gallery using Asp.Net and SQL

  - by sweetcoder

  I have recently added photos to my SQL database and have displayed them on an *.aspx page using Asp:Image. The ImageUrl for this control stored in a separate *.aspx page. It works great for profile pictures. I have a new issue at hand. I need each user to be able to have their own photo gallery page. I want the photos to be stored in the sql database. Storing the photos is not difficult. The issue is displaying the photos. I want the photos to be stored in a thumbnail grid fashion, when the user clicks on the photo, it should bring up the photo on a separate page. What is the best way to do this. Obviously it is not to use Asp:Image. I am curious if I should use a Gridview. If so, how do I do that and should their be a thumbnail size stored in the database for this? Once the picture is click on how does the other page look so that it displays the correct image. I would think it is not correct to send the photoId through the url. Below is code from the page I use to display profile pictures. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string sql = "SELECT [ProfileImage] FROM [UserProfile] WHERE [UserId] = '" + User.Identity.Name.ToString() + "'"; string strCon = System.Web.Configuration.WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SocialSiteConnectionString"].ConnectionString; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(strCon); SqlCommand comm = new SqlCommand(sql, conn); conn.Open(); Response.ContentType = "image/jpeg"; Response.BinaryWrite((byte[])comm.ExecuteScalar()); conn.Close(); }

  Read the article

• Links on SharePoint 2010 Master Page not changed based on Alternate Access Mappings

  - by victor_c

  We are creating a custom branded Master Page in SharePoint 2010. To make the page similar to a legacy page we have implemented an html based custom dropdown navigation menu we had in place directly on the Master Page (consisted of basic HTML elements ULs and LIs with A tags styled with a CSS class). I assumed the links from the basic HTML on the page would be subject to Alternate Access Mappings currently in place, but it seems to not be the case. On a test page opened in 3 different URLs (http://sharepoint2010, http://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com, https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com) the links from a WIKI page are modified as I expected, but the links from the Custom Navigation Menu (plain HTML on the Master Page) are not modified. I can see where that would be useful... But is there a way that I can add links on the MasterPage in a way that SharePoint parses them first, making them subject to Alternate Access Mapping translation? I tried placing a link inside a SPLinkButton control, but it didn't achieve the desired behavior. e.g. <ul id="navmenu"> <li><SharePoint:SPLinkButton runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://sharepoint2010">sharepoint link</SharePoint:SPLinkButton></li> <li><a href="http://sharepoint2010">sharepoint2010</a></li> <li>test</li> </ul> When I access the page via https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com the links above are still http://sharepoint2010 rather than https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com Any thoughts? Thanks, Victor

  Read the article

• ASPXAUTH cookie is not being saved.

  - by kripto_ash

  Hi, Im working on a web project in ASP .NET MVC 2. In this project we store some info inside an ecripted cookie (the ASPXAUTH cookie) to avoid the need to query the db for every request. The thing is the code for this part has suddenly stopped working. I reviewed the changes made to the code on the source control server for anything that could be causing it, I found nothing. I even reverted to a known working copy (working on some other persons PC, same code, etc) but after debugging, it seems the .ASPXAUTH cookie is not getting saved anymore. Instead the ASP.NET_SessionId cookie is being set... (wich before wasn't) I changed the web.config file to turn off the sessionState. This eliminated the ASP.NET_SessionId cookie from being set, but it is still not saving the auth cookie. Ive recently installed some Microsoft Windows XP Updates, but the other person (whos PC runs the application just fine) also did. After googling, some info i found pointed out to a problem with the expiration date of the cookie. Ether cus the pc didnt have the right time/date (this was not the case) and others cus of the cookie expiration date being wrongly set. (I checked and it is being set correctly)... The problem persists with other browsers besides the one im using (Chrome) i tried it with IE6. Any ideas on why this is happening? Ill continue to post any helpful information i can find. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Enable DOM Access for Silverlight Web Part in Sharepoint 2010

  - by Bhaskar

  I am hosting a silverlight 3.0 control on my Sharepoint 2010 page. I am using the built-in SilverlightWebPart web part, where I have provided the path for .xap file. Its displaying properly, but when I try to access the System.Windows.Browser, its throwing an error. My code is: public static string GetQueryString(string key) { try { var documentQueryString = (Dictionary<string, string>)System.Windows.Browser.HtmlPage.Document.QueryString; if (documentQueryString.ContainsKey(key)) { return documentQueryString[key].ToString(); } } catch (Exception ex) { return ex.Message; } return string.Empty; } The error I am getting is: The DOM/scripting bridge is disabled. How do I enable this? I know if I host this in a ASP.NET page, I can add the param - <param name="enablehtmlaccess" value="true"/>. I have tried putting this webpart in a "content editor web part", and I have embedded the object tag to call the .xap file and its working totally fine. I need to make it work using the built-in Silverlight web part.

  Read the article

• Castle MonoRail ARDataBind trying to bind to non-existent row

  - by dave thieben

  I have a shopping cart application running on MonoRail and using Castle ActiveRecord/NHibernate, and there is a ShoppingCart table and a ShoppingCartItems table, which are mapped to entities. Here's the scenario: a user adds things to the shopping cart, say 5 items, and goes to view the cart. The cart shows all 5 items. the user duplicates the tab/window and gets another tab of the same cart (call it tab B). the user removes an item from the cart, so now there are 4 items in tab B, but in the original tab A, there are still 5 items. the user goes back to tab A, and updates something in the cart and clicks the "update" button which submits the changes. my MonoRail action tries to do an ARDataBind on ShoppingCartItems using the data from the view, which includes all 5 items. when it gets to the item that the user deleted from tab B, it throws a "No row with the given identifier exists" for that item. I can't figure out if there is a way to have it not bind that row, return null, return new instance, etc.? there is an AutoLoadBehavior parameter on the ARDataBind attribute, but that appears to only affect loading of child entities, and not the root entity. regardless of which option I choose, I get the exception before control even enters the action method (except AutoLoadBehavior.Never, but that doesn't really help me). instead, I have code that calls Request.ObtainParamsNode() to pull the form nodes and parse them manually into objects, and ignores the ones that no longer exist. is there a better way? thanks.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672  | Next Page >