Search Results

Search found 41848 results on 1674 pages for 'type signature'.

Page 665/1674 | < Previous Page | 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672  | Next Page >

  • Chrome is leaking memory, when jQuery is used on events?

    - by user269386
    Hi, I'm experiencing an increase of memory usage, when I use the jQuery-eventhandling in Chrome. I've tested it with IE and FF as well, but there I couldn't see a suspicious rise of memory-usage, compared to Chrome. I'm using Chrome version 4.0.223.16 (unfortunately I'm forced to use this version, here) Simple example here. Just scroll with the mousewheel in the red box and open the Chrome-taskmanager and you will see an increase of memory which won't be released anymore: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/libs/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(function () { jQuery("#div1").bind("mousewheel", function (event) { event.preventDefault(); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="div1" style="width: 100px; height: 100px; background-color: red;"></div> </body> </html> Does anyone have experienced the same problem (or is it maybe solvend with a different version of chrome)? And does anyone have a fix for it? thanks

    Read the article

  • Javascript function to add class to a list element based on # in url.

    - by Jason
    I am trying to create a javascript function to add and remove a class to a list element based on the #tag at the end of the url on a page. The page has several different states, each with a different # in the url. I am currently using this script to change the style of a given element based on the # in the url when the user first loads the page, however if the user navigates to a different section of the page the style added on the page load stays, I would like it to change. <script type="text/javascript"> var hash=location.hash.substring(1); if (hash == 'strategy'){ document.getElementById('strategy_link').style.backgroundPosition ="-50px"; } if (hash == 'branding'){ document.getElementById('branding_link').style.backgroundPosition ="-50px"; } if (hash == 'marketing'){ document.getElementById('marketing_link').style.backgroundPosition ="-50px"; } if (hash == 'media'){ document.getElementById('media_link').style.backgroundPosition ="-50px"; } if (hash == 'management'){ document.getElementById('mangement_link').style.backgroundPosition ="-50px"; } if (hash == ''){ document.getElementById('shop1').style.display ="block"; } </script> Additionally, I am using a function to change the class of the element onClick, but when a user comes to a specific # on the page directly from another page and then clicks to a different location, two elements appear active. <script type="text/javascript"> function selectInList(obj) { $("#circularMenu").children("li").removeClass("highlight"); $(obj).addClass("highlight"); } </script> You can see this here: http://www.perksconsulting.com/dev/capabilities.php#branding Thanks.

    Read the article

  • RoR - howto convert some HTML-elements with css to Rails

    - by NicoJuicy
    I have old HTML code with html and css.. <form action="login" method="post"> <div class="field"> <label for="username">Username</label> <input type="text" class="text" id="username" name="username" value="just click login !"/> </div> <span class="fright"> <button class="button" type="submit"><strong>Log In</strong></button> </span> </div> How can i convert this code to decent rails code? I came up with this, but it ain't right :-( : <% form_for :user, @user, :url => { :action => "login" } do |f| %> <% div_for f, :class => "field text" do %> <%= f.text_field :username %> <%= f.password_field :password, :class => "field text" %> <% end %> <span class="fright"> <%= submit_tag '<strong>Inloggen</strong>', :class => "button",:disable_with => 'verwerken...' %></span> <% end %> I'm having problems with the <strong>Inloggen</strong> And with the <% div_for f, :class => "field text" do %>

    Read the article

  • What version of .NET containing RuntimeMethodHandle.EmptyHandle?

    - by user299990
    No one answers my question in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1295344/difference-between-activator-createinstance-and-typeoft-invokemember-with-b/2500960#2500960. I guess that the issue is closed and I am asking here again. Ben M have a nice function which I need for a project. The function is - public static T CreateInstance() { bool bNeedSecurityCheck = true; bool canBeCached = false; RuntimeMethodHandle emptyHandle = RuntimeMethodHandle.EmptyHandle; return (T) RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(typeof(T) as RuntimeType, true, true, ref canBeCached, ref emptyHandle, ref bNeedSecurityCheck); } I am using .NET 3.5 and Visual studio 2008. It gives the error "EmptyHandle type name does not exist in the type System.RuntimeMethodHandle". Then I used "RuntimeMethodHandle emptyHandle = new RuntimeMethodHandle();". Another error presents. RuntimeTypeHandle does not have a CreateInstance method either. Activator has. But it does not take any ref parameter. Thanks for clarification in advance!

    Read the article

  • How can I map stored procedure result into a custom class with linq-to-sql?

    - by Remnant
    I have a stored procedure that returns a result set (4 columns x n Rows). The data is based on multiple tables within my database and provides a summary for each department within a corporate. Here is sample: usp_GetDepartmentSummary DeptName EmployeeCount Male Female HR 12 5 7 etc... I am using linq-to-sql to retrieve data from my database (nb - have to use sproc as it is something I have inherited). I would like to call the above sproc and map into a department class: public class Department { public string DeptName {get; set;} public int EmployeeCount {get; set;} public int MaleCount {get; set;} public int FemaleCount {get; set;} } In VS2008, I can drag and drop my sproc onto the methods pane of the linq-to-sql designer. When I examine the designer.cs the return type for this sproc is defined as: ISingleResult<usp_GetDepartmentSummaryResult> What I would like to do is amend this somehow so that it returns a Department type so that I can pass the results of the sproc as a strongly typed view: <% foreach (var dept in Model) { %> <ul> <li class="deptname"><%= dept.DeptName %></li> <li class="deptname"><%= dept.EmployeeCount %></li> etc... Any ideas how to achieve this? NB - I have tried amending the designer.cs and dbml xml file directly but with limited success. I admit to being a little out of my depth when it comes to updating those files directly and I am not sure it is best practice? Would be good to get some diretion. Thanks much

    Read the article

  • Returning the element number of the longest string in an array

    - by JohnRoberts
    I'm trying to get the longestS method to take the user-inputted array of strings, then return the element number of the longest string in that array. I got it to the point where I was able to return the number of chars in the longest string, but I don't believe that will work for what I need. My problem is that I keep getting incompatible type errors when trying to figure this out. I don't understand the whole data type thing with strings yet. It's confusing me how I go about return a number of the array yet the array is of strings. The main method is fine, I got stuck on the ???? part. { public static void main(String [] args) { Scanner inp = new Scanner( System.in ); String [] responseArr= new String[4]; for (int i=0; i<4; i++) { System.out.println("Enter string "+(i+1)); responseArr[i] = inp.nextLine(); } int highest=longestS(responseArr); } public static int longestS(String[] values) { int largest=0 for( int i = 1; i < values.length; i++ ) { if ( ????? ) } return largest; } }

    Read the article

  • PHP image watermark only displaying image on page

    - by Satch3000
    I am testing a script where I watermark an image in my webpage. The script works fine and the image is watermark but my problem is that only the image is displayed on the page. As soon as I add the script to my page it's like the web page is converted to the image that I'm watermarking. I think it's because of header("content-type: image/jpeg"); from the code. I need to watermark the image on my webpage but I also need the rest of my webpage to be displayed too. How is this done? I'm quite confused on how this works. The script I'm using is from here Here's the code I'm using: <?php $main_img = "Porsche_911_996_Carrera_4S.jpg"; // main big photo / picture $watermark_img = "watermark.gif"; // use GIF or PNG, JPEG has no tranparency support $padding = 3; // distance to border in pixels for watermark image $opacity = 100; // image opacity for transparent watermark $watermark = imagecreatefromgif($watermark_img); // create watermark $image = imagecreatefromjpeg($main_img); // create main graphic if(!$image || !$watermark) die("Error: main image or watermark could not be loaded!"); $watermark_size = getimagesize($watermark_img); $watermark_width = $watermark_size[0]; $watermark_height = $watermark_size[1]; $image_size = getimagesize($main_img); $dest_x = $image_size[0] - $watermark_width - $padding; $dest_y = $image_size[1] - $watermark_height - $padding; // copy watermark on main image imagecopymerge($image, $watermark, $dest_x, $dest_y, 0, 0, $watermark_width, $watermark_height, $opacity); // print image to screen header("content-type: image/jpeg"); imagejpeg($image); imagedestroy($image); imagedestroy($watermark); ?> NOTE: I'm getting the image path from the database so I cannot hardcode the image filename as it's dynamic.

    Read the article

  • Jquery problem - cant expand the row above in a table

    - by apg1985
    Hi People, What I cant figure out is how I would toggle a row in a table using the one below it. So say I have a table with 2 rows the first contains content and the one below contains a button, when the page loads the content row is hidden and when you click the button it toggles the content row on and off. In the example the first table works but the second does not, I need the second one to work. <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Testing Horizontal Accordion</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".sectionhead").toggle( function() { $(this).next("tr").hide(); }, function() { $(this).next("tr").show(); } ) }); </script> </head> <body> <table> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> </table> <br> <table> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • LinqToSql Select to a class then do more queries

    - by fyjham
    I have a LINQ query running with multiple joins and I want to pass it around as an IQueryable<T> and apply additional filters in other methods. The problem is that I can't work out how to pass around a var data type and keep it strongly typed, and if I try to put it in my own class (EG: .Select((a,b) => new MyClass(a,b))) I get errors when I try to add later Where clauses because my class has no translations into SQL. Is there any way I can do one of the following: Make my class map to SQL? Make the var data-type implement an interface (So I can pass it round as though it's that)? Something I haven't though of that'll solve my issue? Example: public void Main() { using (DBDataContext context = new DBDataContext()) { var result = context.TableAs.Join( context.TableBs, a => a.BID, b => b.ID, (a,b) => new {A = a, B = b} ); result = addNeedValue(result, 4); } } private ???? addNeedValue(???? result, int value) { return result.Where(r => r.A.Value == value); } PS: I know in my example I can flatten out the function easily, but in the real thing it'd be an absolute mess if I tried.

    Read the article

  • How would you mask data returned in a Dynamic Data for Entities website?

    - by David Stratton
    I'm doing this in Visual Studio 2008, not 2010, in case there is a relevant difference between the two versions of the Dynamic Data websites. How would I mask data in the automatically generated tables in a Dynamic Data for Entities website? The scenario is we have one table where we want to allow users to ENTER sensitive data, but not VIEW sensitive data, so... (In the list below, I'm using "template" to mean "The web page generated automatically based on the schema and action. I'm sure that's the wrong terminology, but the meaning should be clear.) The "Insert" template should have the field's textbox available for the user to type a value in. The "Edit" template should have the field's textbox blanked out (empty string) regardless of what was in the field in the database in the first place, but the user should be able to type in new data and have it save The "View" template should either have the data for this field masked, or non-visible. The auto-generated table showing the list of records should also have this field masked or non-visible. I can do this easily with standard Web Forms, but I'm having a hard time figuring this out in the Dynamic Data site I'm working on. Masking data is such a common task, I have to believe Microsoft thought of this and provided a way to do it...

    Read the article

  • how can i change selected value of drop list dynamically

    - by Deepak Gupta
    i want to pick the value from text box and then change the value of dropdown list according to that value <html> <head> <script> function change() { var value = document.getElementById('text').value; document.getElementById("Model").selectedvalue = value } </script> </head> <body> <asp:DropDownList ID="Model" AutoPostBack="false" runat="server" CssClass="styled"> <asp:ListItem Value="None">None</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="Enum">Enum</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="Sum">Sum</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="Multi">Multi</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="Xaxis">Xaxis</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <input id="text" type="text"/> <input type="button" onclick="change();"/> </body> <html>

    Read the article

  • How do I set a flash object to open a url in a new window?

    - by Keith Donegan
    Hi Guys, I have this code: <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,28,0" width="300" height="250"> <param name="movie" value="Spotify_premium_300x250.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <embed src="Spotify_premium_300x250.swf" quality="high" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/shockwave/download/download.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" width="300" height="250"></embed> </object> EDIT: Code from Tom <object onclick="javascript: window.open('http://www.stackoverflow.com', _blank, 'width=1024, height=600, menubar=no, resizable=yes');" classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,28,0" width="300" height="250"> <param name="movie" value="Spotify_premium_300x250.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <embed src="Spotify_premium_300x250.swf" quality="high" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/shockwave/download/download.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" width="300" height="250"></embed> </object> I would like it as when a user clicks the flash object, it's opens a URL in a new window. How would I go about doing this? Cheers, Keith

    Read the article

  • Trouble with object injection in Spring.Net

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I have a issue with my Spring.Net configuration where its not injecting an object. I have a CommService to which an object named GeneralEmail is injected to. Here is the configuration: <!-- GeneralMail Object --> <object id="GeneralMailObject" type="CommUtil.Email.GeneralEmail, CommUtil"> <constructor-arg name="host" value="xxxxx.com"/> <constructor-arg name="port" value="25"/> <constructor-arg name="user" value="[email protected]"/> <constructor-arg name="password" value="xxxxx"/> <constructor-arg name="template" value="xxxxx"/> </object> <!-- Communication Service --> <object id="CommServiceObject" type="TApp.Code.Services.CommService, TApp"> <property name="emailService" ref="GeneralMailObject" /> </object> The communication service object is again injected to many other aspx pages & service. In one scenario, I need to call the commnucation service from an static WebMethod. I try doing: CommService cso = new CommService(); But when i try to get the emailService object, its null! why didn't the spring inject the GeneralMail object into my cso object? What am I doing wrong and how do I access the object from spring container. Thanks in advance for the suggestions and solutions. Reagrds, Abdel Olakara

    Read the article

  • Section or group name 'cachingConfiguration' is already defined - but where?

    - by Richard Ev
    On Windows XP I am working on a .NET 3.5 web app that's a combination of WebForms and MVC2 (The WebForms parts are legacy, and being migrated to MVC). When I run this from VS2008 using the ASP.NET web server everything works as expected. However, when I host the app in IIS and try to use it, I see the following error Section or group name 'cachingConfiguration' is already defined. Updates to this may only occur at the configuration level where it is defined. Source Error: Line 24: </sectionGroup> Line 25: <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net"/> Line 26: <section name="cachingConfiguration" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Caching.Configuration.CacheManagerSettings,Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Caching, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" /> Line 27: </configSections> Line 28: Sure enough, if I remove the offending line (line 26 in the error message) from my web.config then the app runs correctly. However, I really need to find out where the duplicate definition of this is. It's nowhere in my solution. Where else could it be?

    Read the article

  • change prototype script to jquery one

    - by steve
    I have this form submit code: Event.observe(window, 'load', init, false); function init() { Event.observe('addressForm', 'submit', storeAddress); } function storeAddress(e) { $('response').innerHTML = 'Adding email address...'; var pars = 'address=' + escape($F('address')); var myAjax = new Ajax.Updater('response', 'ajaxServer.php', {method: 'get', parameters: pars}); Event.stop(e); } How can I change it to work with jQuery? Here is the html form: <form id="addressForm" action="index.php" method="get"> <b>Email:</b> <input type="text" name="address" id="address" size="25"><br> <input name="Submit" value="Submit" type="submit" /> <p id="response"><?php echo(storeAddress()); ?></p> </form> and this is php code at start of document: <?php require_once("inc/storeAddress.php"); ?>

    Read the article

  • JSP: How can I still get the code on my error page to run, even if I can't display it?

    - by Josh Hinman
    I've defined an error-page in my web.xml: <error-page> <exception-type>java.lang.Exception</exception-type> <location>/error.jsp</location> </error-page> In that error page, I have a custom tag that I created. The tag handler for this tag e-mails me the stacktrace of whatever error occurred. For the most part this works great. Where it doesn't work great is if the output has already begun being sent to the client at the time the error occurs. In that case, we get this: SEVERE: Exception Processing ErrorPage[exceptionType=java.lang.Exception, location=/error.jsp] java.lang.IllegalStateException I believe this error happens because we can't redirect a request to the error page after output has already started. The work-around I've used is to increase the buffer size on particularly large JSP pages. But I'm trying to write a generic error handler that I can apply to existing applications, and I'm not sure it's feasible to go through hundreds of JSP pages making sure their buffers are big enough. Is there a way to still allow my stack trace e-mail code to execute in this case, even if I can't actually display the error page to the client?

    Read the article

  • Write a program which works out which is the lowest priced computer in an ArrayList of computer obje

    - by Eoin
    Hello everybody! I am trying to study some java and cannot get my head around this question! Any help would be really appreciated and would help me in further studies! Thank you so much in advance! Eoin from Dublin, Ireland. ArrayList of Objects Write a program which works out which is the lowest priced computer in an ArrayList of computer objects. You should have two classes, one called ComputerTest, and the other called Computer. In the ComputerTest class you should: Have a main method which declares an ArrayList of type Computer called computerList, each element of which represents a computer. Initialise the first three entries of the ArrayList Call a static method which prints out the lowest price computer, called lowestPrice The parameter of this method is (i) an ArrayList of type Computer i.e. ArrayList data Sample output: The lowest priced computer is the Cheapo400 at 399 euro. The Computer class should have: Private instance variables: manufacturer, model, price and quality. Quality is a rating from 1 to 10. public get and set methods to retrieve and set/change the value of the four instance variables a default constructor a constructor that takes four parameters

    Read the article

  • Can't wrap my head around appengine data store persistence

    - by aloo
    Hi, I've run into the "can't operate on multiple entity groups in a single transaction." problem when using APPENGINE FOR JAVA w/ JDO with the following code: PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); Query q = pm.newQuery("SELECT this FROM " + TypeA.class.getName() + " WHERE userId == userIdParam "); q.declareParameters("String userIdParam"); List<TypeA> poos = (List<TypeA>) q.execute(userIdParam); for (TypeA a : allTypeAs) { a.setSomeField(someValue); } pm.close(); } The problem it seems is that I can't operate on a multiple entities at the same time b/c they arent in the same entity group while in a transaction. Even though it doesn't seem like I'm in a transaction, appengine generates one because I have the following set in my jdoconfig.xml: <property name="datanucleus.appengine.autoCreateDatastoreTxns" value="true"/> Fine. So far I think I understand. BUT - if I replace TypeA in the above code, with TypeB - I don't get the error. I don't believe there is anything different between type a and type b - they both have the same key structure. They do have different fields but that shouldn't matter, right? My question is - what could possible be different between TypeA and TypeB that they give this different behavior? And consequently what do you I fundamentally misunderstand that this behavior could even exist.... Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do I make a third party .jar available to my .jsp page?

    - by Matthew
    I'm just starting to learn JSP (and I'm pretty new to Java in general), and I'd like to use JSON-lib with it. I want to make a page something like this: <%@ page import="net.sf.json.JSONObject"%> <% String json = new JSONObject().put("hello", "world").toString(); out.println(json); %> I downloaded json-lib-2.3-jdk15.jar and put it in the same directory as the .jsp page. But I get this error org.apache.jasper.JasperException: Unable to compile class for JSP: An error occurred at line: 6 in the generated java file Only a type can be imported. net.sf.json.JSONObject resolves to a package An error occurred at line: 3 in the jsp file: /getCard.jsp JSONObject cannot be resolved to a type 1: <%@ page import="net.sf.json.JSONObject" %> 2: <% 3: String json = new JSONObject().put("hello", "world").toString(); 4: out.println(json); 5: %> 6: How do I make the JSONObject class available to my .jsp page?

    Read the article

  • why DataColumn AllowDbNull is true even if oracle db does not allow null

    - by matti
    Hi. I have column SomeId in table SomeLink. When I look with tOra or Sql Plus Worksheet both state: tOra: Column name Data type Default Null Comment SOMEID INTEGER {null} NOT NULL {null} Sql Plus: SOMEID NOT NULL NUMBER(38) I have authored a method that's intended to give default values to all NOT NULL fields that don't have values: public static void GetDefaultValuesForNonNullColumns(DataRow row) { foreach(DataColumn col in row.Table.Columns) { if (Convert.IsDBNull(row[col]) && !col.AllowDBNull) { if (ColumnIsNumeric(col.DataType)) row[col] = 0; else if (col.DataType == typeof(DateTime)) row[col] = DateTime.Now; else if (col.DataType == typeof(String)) row[col] = string.Empty; else if (col.DataType == typeof(Char)) row[col] = ' '; else throw new Exception(string.Format("Unsupported column type: {0}", col.DataType)); } } } When SOMEID is handled in loop the AllowDBNull = true. I really can't understand. The table is created in DataSet like this: _someLinkAdptr = _dbFactory.CreateDataAdapter(); _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand = _dbFactory.CreateCommand(); _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand.Connection = _cnctn; _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand.CommandText = GetSomeLinkSelectTxtAndParams(_someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand, UndefinedValue.ToString(), UndefinedValue.ToString()); Select command returns no rows. The idea is that I can then use commandbuilder to get InsertCommand without building it myself. The row is added to dataset's table like this: private static void CreateDocLink(int anId, int anotherId) { DataRow row = _someDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].NewRow(); row["AnId"] = anId; row["AnotherId"] = anotherId; Utility.GetDefaultValuesForNonNullColumns(row); _someDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].Rows.Add(row); } When DataAdapter is updated to oracle db I get: ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into (SOMESCHEMA.SOMELINK.SOMEID) Cheers & BR -Matti

    Read the article

  • insert Query is not executing, help me in tracking the problem

    - by Parth
    I tried the below query but it didnt executed giving error as : 1064 - You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near ')' at line 1 INSERT INTO `jos_menu` SET params = 'orderby= show_noauth= show_title= link_titles= show_intro= show_section= link_section= show_category= link_category= show_author= show_create_date= show_modify_date= show_item_navigation= show_readmore= show_vote= show_icons= show_pdf_icon= show_print_icon= show_email_icon= show_hits= feed_summary= page_title= show_page_title=1 pageclass_sfx= menu_image=-1 secure=0 ', checked_out_time = '0000-00-00 00:00:00', ordering = '13', componentid = '20', published = '1', id = '152', menutype = 'accmenu', name = 'IPL', alias = 'ipl', link = 'index.php?option=com_content&view=archive', type = 'component') then i used mysql_real_escape_string() on the query containing variable which gives me the query as : INSERT INTO `jos_menu` SET params = \'orderby=\nshow_noauth=\nshow_title=\nlink_titles=\nshow_intro=\nshow_section=\nlink_section=\nshow_category=\nlink_category=\nshow_author=\nshow_create_date=\nshow_modify_date=\nshow_item_navigation=\nshow_readmore=\nshow_vote=\nshow_icons=\nshow_pdf_icon=\nshow_print_icon=\nshow_email_icon=\nshow_hits=\nfeed_summary=\npage_title=\nshow_page_title=1\npageclass_sfx=\nmenu_image=-1\nsecure=0\n\n\', checked_out_time = \'0000-00-00 00:00:00\', ordering = \'13\', componentid = \'20\', published = \'1\', id = \'152\', menutype = \'accmenu\', name = \'IPL\', alias = \'ipl\', link = \'index.php?option=com_content&view=archive\', type = \'component\') And on executing the above query I get an error as : 1064 - You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '\'orderby=\nshow_noauth=\nshow_title=\nlink_titles=\nshow_intro=\nshow_section=\' at line 1 Can Someone guide me to track the problem in it? Thanks In Advance....

    Read the article

  • gcc, strict-aliasing, and horror stories

    - by Joseph Quinsey
    In http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2906365/gcc-strict-aliasing-and-casting-through-a-union I asked whether anyone had encountered problems with union punning through pointers. So far, the answer seems to be No. This question is broader: do you have any horror stories about gcc and strict-aliasing? Background: Quoting from AndreyT's answer in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2771023/c99-strict-aliasing-rules-in-c-gcc/2771041#2771041: "Strict aliasing rules are rooted in parts of the standard that were present in C and C++ since the beginning of [standardized] times. The clause that prohibits accessing object of one type through a lvalue of another type is present in C89/90 (6.3) as well as in C++98 (3.10/15). ... It is just that not all compilers wanted (or dared) to enforce it or rely on it." Well, gcc is now daring to do so, with its -fstrict-aliasing switch. And this has caused some problems. See, for example, the excellent article http://davmac.wordpress.com/2009/10/ about a Mysql bug, and the equally excellent discussion in http://cellperformance.beyond3d.com/articles/2006/06/understanding-strict-aliasing.html. Some other less-relevant links: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1225741/performance-impact-of-fno-strict-aliasing http://stackoverflow.com/questions/754929/strict-aliasing http://stackoverflow.com/questions/262379/when-is-char-safe-for-strict-pointer-aliasing http://stackoverflow.com/questions/725138/how-to-detect-strict-aliasing-at-compile-time So to repeat, do you have a horror story of your own? Problems not indicated by -Wstrict-aliasing would, of course, be preferred. And other C compilers are also welcome.

    Read the article

  • Discussion - Allowing / blocking user access to pages (Client Side Only!) - Javascript / Jquery

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR Using plain HTML / Javascript (Client Side) I want to prevent viewing of certain pages. The user will have to type a username and password and depending on that they get access to different pages. Answers can NOT include server side whatsoever It does not matter if they can break it easily. There is no sensitive information etc. Also the target audience will not have access to internet OR probably know what a cookie is... At some point the user will have to type username / password.(I can define the cookie here) Currently I thought of using cookies to set a cookie for each page to say "true" / "false" but that would get messy with so many cookies. Or setting an array within a cookie for each page? I have div field "#Content" which as it looks encompasses all of my content on the page so blocking out content will be as simple as replacing it with ("sorry you don't have access") etc. For Example: $.cookie("Access","page1, page2, page3"{ expires: 1 }); I am looking for anyway to do this does not have to be with cookies. Would be nice to get a discussion of different ways this can be done. So the question is: What do YOU think would be a good way to go about doing this with client side validation?

    Read the article

  • Play youtube video in full screen ?

    - by Madhup
    Hi all, First of all sorry, If somebody finds this question is repeated (haven't found any by myself). I am developing for an iPad application and trying to play youtube videos using this code: NSString *embedHTML = @"\ <html><head>\ <style type=\"text/css\">\ body {\ background-color: transparent;\ color: white;\ }\ </style>\ </head><body style=\"margin:0\">\ <embed id=\"yt\" src=\"%@\" type=\"application/x-shockwave-flash\" \ width=\"%0.0f\" height=\"%0.0f\"></embed>\ </body></html>"; NSString *html = [NSString stringWithFormat:embedHTML, youTubeUrl, 142.0, 129.5]; [wbView loadHTMLString:html baseURL:nil]; The code works fine when used in an iphone application (i.e. you touch on the webview and it starts playing the youtube video in fullscreen.) But when used in the iPad, on clicking the web view it starts playing the video in the web view itself and shows options to go to full screen, while I want to start the playback in the full screen from the beginning, like it does in the iPhone. Anybody having some ideas or people who have done it before please help. Thanks, Madhup

    Read the article

  • DRUPAL, CKEditor: I cannot add a html tag with Javascript

    - by Patrick
    hi, I've implemented a Drupal website. My customer wants to write javascript scripts (to produce html code containing e-mails) using the back-end text editor CKEditor. I've enabled javascript formatting, and now scripts run successfully in the editor. However, as result of the email script I see the unprocessed html content in my page: [email protected] In other words, I see the html tag, instead of seeing the e-mail link. I guess this is due to the parenthesis formatting. If I replace "<" with "<" in Firebug, the html is processed and the links works. However I'm not able to do this from the editor. If I type "<" or "<" the result is the same... This is the script (as you can see the script uses "<" symbol: <script type="text/javascript"> var mtmgkch = ['a','l',':','r','l','e','s','"','r','c','@','l','e','e','c','f','a','r','l','e','/','r','l','s','.','o','h',' ','c','=','r','i','"','l','t','o','r','.','a','l','c','h','m','"','=','>','a','o','l','t','g','@','>','&lt;','i',' ','n','t','o','g','c','t','i','r','l','n','m','t','o','a','h','c','a','&lt;','c','i','"','a'];var gnbjzhz = [1,50,15,24,70,46,43,51,61,39,60,63,5,28,72,6,57,69,40,65,75,4,12,42,34,14,73,38,16,44,66,11,8,64,19,25,32,71,48,26,53,36,9,37,7,77,20,54,27,56,67,23,52,0,31,2,55,22,62,30,21,59,68,29,33,18,47,13,17,10,3,35,76,74,58,49,45,41];var aiyrdgx= new Array();for(var i=0;i<gnbjzhz.length;i++){aiyrdgx[gnbjzhz[i]] = mtmgkch[i]; }for(var i=0;i<aiyrdgx.length;i++){document.write(aiyrdgx[i]);} </script> thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672  | Next Page >