Search Results

Search found 88156 results on 3527 pages for 'code contracts'.

Page 666/3527 | < Previous Page | 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673  | Next Page >

  • Activator.CreateInstance fails in Windows Service

    - by kbe
    I have an issue with a Windows Service which throws a NullReference exception whenever I try to use var myType = Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(MyType)) There is no problem whenever I run the exact same code in a console window - and after debugging the obvious "which user is running this code" I doubt that it is a mere fact of changing the user running the service as I've tried to run the service using the computer's Administrator account as well as LocalSystem. I'm suspecting a Windows Update fiddling with default user rights but that's a bit of a desperate guess I feel. Remember: The type and assembly exist and works fine - otherwise I wouldn't be able to run the code in a console window. It is only when running in the context of a Windows Service I get an error. The question is: Can I in any way impersonate i.e. LocalSystem in a unittest by creating a GenericPrincipal (how would that GenericPrincipal look)?

    Read the article

  • SQLite.Net Issue With BeginTransaction

    - by cam
    I'm trying to use System.Data.Sqlite library, and I'm following the documentation about optimizing inserts so I copied this code directly out of the documentation: using (SQLiteTransaction mytransaction = myconnection.BeginTransaction()) { using (SQLiteCommand mycommand = new SQLiteCommand(myconnection)) { SQLiteParameter myparam = new SQLiteParameter(); int n; mycommand.CommandText = "INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyId]) VALUES(?)"; mycommand.Parameters.Add(myparam); for (n = 0; n < 100000; n ++) { myparam.Value = n + 1; mycommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } mytransaction.Commit(); } Now, I initialize I connection right before that by using SqlConnection myconnection = new SqlConnection("Data Source=blah"); I have a Database named blah, with the correct tables and values. The problem is when I run this code, it says "Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object" I've tried changing the code around several times, and it still points to BeginTransaction. What gives?

    Read the article

  • where should we place HIDDEN variable in JSP

    - by micheal
    I need to use Hidden variables in my JSP for session tracking. this is the code: <input type="hidden" name="REQ_TOKEN" value="<%=session.getAttribute("SESN_TOKEN").toString()%>" /> i am using this to compare the request token with session token, so only when both are equal i will evaluate that request otherwise i will throw an error. Now the problem is, when i place this code inside <form></form> tags, it is working fine. Unfortunately there are some JSPs in my application where we dont have tag(I know that sounds weird!). where can i place my code so that it will work? Cant i use Hidden variables without FORM tag???

    Read the article

  • Cannot Debug Unmanaged Dll from C#

    - by JustSmith
    I have a DLL that was written in C++ and called from a C# application. The DLL is unmanaged code. If I copy the DLL and its .pdb files with a post build event to the C# app's debug execution dir I still can't hit any break points I put into the DLL code. The break point has a message attached to it saying that "no symbols have been loaded for this document". What else do I have to do to get the debugging in the dll source? I have "Tools-Options-Debugging-General-Enable only my code" Disabled. The DLL is being compiled with "Runtime tracking and disable optimizations (/ASSEMBLYDEBUG)" and Generate Debug Info to "Yes (/DEBUG)"

    Read the article

  • What's the fastest way to check the availability of a SQL Server server?

    - by mwolfe02
    I have an MS Access program in use in multiple locations. It connects to MS SQL Server tables, but the server name is different in each location. I am looking for the fastest way to test for the existence of a server. The code I am currently using looks like this: ShellWait "sc \\" & ServerName & " qdescription MSSQLSERVER > " & Qt(fn) FNum = FreeFile() Open fn For Input As #FNum Line Input #FNum, Result Close #FNum Kill fn If InStr(Result, "SUCCESS") Then ... ShellWait: executes a shell command and waits for it to finish Qt: wraps a string in double quotes fn: temporary filename variable I run the above code against a list of server names (of which only one is normally available). The code takes about one second if the server is available and takes about 8 seconds for each server that is unavailable. I'd like to get both of these lower, if possible, but especially the fail case as this one happens most often.

    Read the article

  • iPhone OSStatus -25308 or errSecInteractionNotAllowed SFHFKeychainUtils

    - by George Octavio
    Hi again guys. I'm trying to access my iPhone's device keychain. I want to access in order to create a simple user-password value intended for a log in function. This is the code I'm using from SFHFKeychainUtils NSArray *keys = [[[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: (NSString *) kSecClass, kSecAttrService, kSecAttrLabel, kSecAttrAccount, kSecValueData, nil] autorelease]; NSArray *objects = [[[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: (NSString *) kSecClassGenericPassword, serviceName, serviceName, @"TestUser", @"TestPass", nil] autorelease]; NSDictionary *query = [[[NSDictionary alloc] initWithObjects: objects forKeys: keys] autorelease]; OSStatus status = SecItemAdd((CFDictionaryRef) query, NULL); } else if (status != noErr) { //Output to screen with error code goes here return NO; } return YES; } The error code I'm getting is OSStatus-25308 or errSecInteractionNotAllowed. I'm guessing this means I don't actually have access to my iPhone's keychain? Is there a way to allow access? Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • javascript to launch only ONE window for a Java applet with a given URL

    - by Jonathan Dugan
    I need a javascript solution to launch only one window, with a Java Applet in it, for a given URL. I found a solution posted here on Stack Overflow - here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/528671/javascript-window-open-only-if-the-window-does-not-already-exist But it doesn't seem to work .. I get Error: launchApplication.winrefs is undefined Line: 29 I can't seem to post the code in this little box and make it look right below, so the code (my working code, plus the solution from above) is here: http://pastie.org/833879 Where is the error? As I understand it, the hash or array or whatever I use to store the called references to the windows opened this way will be lost if the calling window is closed. Is there a way to make this work even if the calling window is closed and reopened? To basically ask the browser: "Do you have a window open with the following URL?" and if so, "What is the reference to that window?" (so I can raise it).

    Read the article

  • Explanation for expires header

    - by sushil bharwani
    I have a joomla application working on Apache.To improve site performace we have written a .htaccess file to root of the application with setting a far future expires header to all the static content. As desired first time the files load in fresh with 200 status code. when again click on the same link many of the files are served directly from cache. I need explanation for two things When i press f5 then a number of files load with 304 status code however i expected them to be coming directly from cache without hitting the server for a status header? When i close the browser and come back to the same page again i see the same thing happening a number of files load with 304 status code although i thought they will load directly from the browser cache? I understand that 304 also servs file from browser cache but i want to avoid the header communication between servers as my static files wont ever change. Also i want to add that my requests are over a https connection does that create any issue.

    Read the article

  • Have you been in cases where TDD increased development time?

    - by BillyONeal
    Hello everyone :) I was reading http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2512504/tdd-how-to-start-really-thinking-tdd and I noticed many of the answers indicate that tests + application should take less time than just writing the application. In my experience, this is not true. My problem though is that some 90% of the code I write has a TON of operating system calls. The time spent to actually mock these up takes much longer than just writing the code in the first place. Sometimes 4 or 5 times as long to write the test as to write the actual code. I'm curious if there are other developers in this kind of a scenario.

    Read the article

  • PHP Regular Expression

    - by saturngod
    I want to change &lt;lang class='brush:xhtml'&gt;test&lt;/lang&gt; to <pre class='brush:xhtml'>test</pre> my code like that. <?php $content="&lt;lang class='brush:xhtml'&gt;test&lt;/lang&gt;"; $pattern=array(); $replace=array(); $pattern[0]="/&lt;lang class=([A-Za-z='\":])* &lt;/"; $replace[0]="<pre $1>"; $pattern[1]="/&lt;lang&gt;/"; $replace[1]="</pre>"; echo preg_replace($pattern, $replace,$content); ?> but it's not working. How to change my code or something wrong in my code ?

    Read the article

  • IIS7 Modules - managed or native?

    - by Simon Linder
    Hi all, as the old ISAPI filters are going to die sooner or later, I want to rewrite an old ISAPI filter that was used in IIS 6 into a module for use in IIS 7. The module will be used globally, meaning it will be used within each site, on a Windows Server 2008 R2 with IIS 7.5 installed, that will host several thousand web sites and managing about 50 application pools. My question now is if I should write that module in managed or unmanaged code? One of my concerns regarding managed code is the massive memory consumption due to the .NET framework overhead. I don't know how this would effect the server's performance. I already wrote modules in managed as well as in unmanaged code. So this is not the bothering my decision. But I would prefer to write the module in C# if there are no huge drawbacks. Any suggestions about that issue?

    Read the article

  • How to convert raw_input() into a directory?

    - by Azeworai
    Hi everyone, I just picked up IronPython and I've been trying to get this IronPython script going but I'm stuck at trying to get a Path input from raw_input to be a directory path. The first block of code is the broken one that I'm working on. import System from System import * from System.IO import * from System.Diagnostics import * inputDirectory = raw_input("Enter Input Directory's full path [eg. c:\\vid\\]: ") print ("In: "+inputDirectory) outputDirectory = inputDirectory +"ipod\\" print ("Out: "+outputDirectory) #create the default output directory for s in DirectoryInfo(inputDirectory).GetFiles("*.avi"): print s.FullName arg = String.Format('-i "{0}" -t 1 -c 1 -o "{1}" --preset="iPod"' , s.FullName, outputDirectory + s.Name.Replace(".avi", ".mp4")) print arg proc = Process.Start("C:\\Program Files\\Handbrake\\HandBrakeCLI.exe", arg) #path to handbrake goes here proc.WaitForExit() The following code block is what I have working at the moment. import System from System import * from System.IO import * from System.Diagnostics import * for s in DirectoryInfo("F:\\Tomorrow\\").GetFiles("*.avi"): arg = String.Format('-i "{0}" -t 1 -c 1 -o "{1}" --preset="iPod"' , s.FullName, "F:\\Tomorrow\\ipod\\" + s.Name.Replace(".avi", ".mp4")) print arg proc = Process.Start("C:\\Program Files\\Handbrake\\HandBrakeCLI.exe", arg) #path to handbrake goes here proc.WaitForExit() PS: Credit for the above working code goes to Joseph at jcooney.net

    Read the article

  • How do I get meaningful error messages in IIS7?

    - by Petras
    I have a classic ASP website that is crashing in IIS7. It is crashing because IIS doesn't allow file uploads greater than a certain size. I know this because files below about 200k work fine. I removed the Status Code 500 error in IIS but I still don't get a file name and the line where my code failed as I do when running locally. Instead I get: "The page cannot be displayed because an internal server error has occurred. If you are the system administrator please click here to find out more about this error." How do I get a file name and the line where my code failed? Here are my IIS settings:

    Read the article

  • Anyone get mach_inject working on snow leopard?

    - by overboming
    Project is now on github and here is the link to my issue I successfully compiled the whole thing and able to run rejector and rejectee separately. But the injector will crash the injectee when injecting code to the target process. mach_inject_test_injectee.app 's standard output: mach error on bundle load (os/kern) successful mach error on bundle load (os/kern) successful mach error on bundle load (os/kern) successful mach error on bundle load (os/kern) successful mach error on bundle load (os/kern) successful FS rep /Users/Malic/Documents/Code/c/mach_star/mach_inject_test/build/Development/mach_inject_test_injector.app/Contents/Resources/mach_inject_test_injected.bundle/Contents/MacOS/mach_inject_test_injected LOADDDDDDDDDD! Assertion failed: (0), function +[injected_PrincipalClass load], file /Users/Malic/Documents/Code/c/mach_star/mach_inject_test/injected-PrincipalClass.m, line 25. Abort trap mach_inject_test_injector 's standard output injecting into pid 3680 injecting pid mach_inject failing.. (os/kern) successful mach inject done? 0 hi It seems from the output the injector is not notified from the injectee, any ideas? thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why do my MIPS crosscompiler works like this for NOT operation?

    - by Mazicky
    Hello, I setup my crosscompiler for making MIPS instructions. And it compiles C code well. but I found a weird thing for NOT operations. if i make code like int a; func(!a); and i studied MIPS instructions with text book that says "MIPS converts NOT operation to 'nor with zero'" So i thought it would converted like nor a a $zero but my compiler converts xori a a 0x0 sltu a 1 /////////////////////////////////////// i compiled the code with 'myaccount mipsel-unknown-linux-gnu-gcc -S myfilename.c' and it makes myfilename.s file.. what am i missing??

    Read the article

  • DynamicMethod NullReferenceException

    - by Jeff
    Can anyone tell me what's wrong with my IL code here? IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldarg.1 IL_0002: isinst MyXmlWriter IL_0007: stloc.0 IL_0008: ldloc.0 IL_0009: ldarg.2 IL_000a: ldind.ref IL_000b: unbox.any TestEnum IL_0010: ldfld Int64 value__/FastSerializer.TestEnum IL_0015: callvirt Void WriteValue(Int64)/System.Xml.XmlWriter IL_001a: nop IL_001b: ret I'm going crazy here, since I've written a test app which does the same thing as above, but in C#, and in reflector the IL code from that looks just like my DynamicMethod's IL code above (except my test C# app uses a TestStruct with a public field instead of the private value field on the enum above, but I have skipVisibility set to true)... I get a NullReferenceException. My DynamicMethod's signature is: public delegate void DynamicWrite(IMyXmlWriter writer, ref object value, MyContract contract); And I'm definitely not passing in anything null. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Using an IBAction method when it is not called from an action?

    - by cannyboy
    Are there any issues when using IBAction when it is not actually called from a user's action? If you have an action like -(IBAction)sayHello:(id)sender; You can call it from within your class like: [self sayHello:@"x"] The @"x" doesn't do anything, it just fills in for the sender. You can actually create an IBAction method without (id)sender -(IBAction)sayHello; and call it from both user's actions and from within the code, but then you won't get any useful sender info from the interface. What's the 'correct' way of filling in for the sender, when calling from the code? And can you create sender info to send when it's called from within the code? Just trying to figure it out.

    Read the article

  • Cygwin bash syntax error - but script run perfectly well in Ubuntu

    - by Michael Mao
    #!/bin/bash if test "$#" == "4"; then echo "$*"; else echo "args-error" >&2; fi; This little code snippet troubles me a lot when I tried to run it on both Ubuntu and Cygwin. Ubuntu runs bash version 4.0+ whereas Cygwin runs 3.2.49; But I reckon version collision shall not be the cause of this, this code runs well under fedora 10 which is also using bash version 3.+ So basically I am wondering if there is a way to code my script once and for all so there are not to have this awful issue later on. Many thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to have a global exception hook?

    - by Heinrich Ulbricht
    Hi, my code is fairly well covered with exception handling (try..except). Some exceptions are not expected to happen and some exceptions happen fairly often, which is expected and ok. Now I want to add some automated tests for this code. It would be good to know how many exceptions happened during execution, so I can later see if the expected number was raised or anything unexpected happened. I don't want to clutter every exception handling block with debug code, so my question is: Is there a way to install some kind of global exception handler which sits right before all other exception handling blocks? I am searching for a central place to log these exceptions. Thanks for any suggestions! (And if this matters: it is Delphi 2009)

    Read the article

  • is there a way to create an item template (t4) installer like the POCO generator?

    - by bryanjonker
    Subject says it all. I want to modify the POCO generation adapter (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/EFPocoAdapter) to generate my own code. I have the .tt adapters done, but I want to be able to distribute this to coworkers, so they right-click on the model, choose "Generate Code", and my t4 templates appear in the options along with the other choices. Is there an easy way to do this? I found some articles at http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/tsyyf0yh(VS.80).aspx but it was focused on generic templates, and I'm looking for specifically model templates.

    Read the article

  • Mass Ball-to-Ball Collision Handling (as in, lots of balls)

    - by BlueThen
    Update: Found out that I was using the radius as the diameter, which was why the mtd was overcompensating. Hi, StackOverflow. I've written a Processing program awhile back simulating ball physics. Basically, I have a large number of balls (1000), with gravity turned on. Detection works great, but my issue is that they start acting weird when they're bouncing against other balls in all directions. I'm pretty confident this involves the handling. For the most part, I'm using Jay Conrod's code. One part that's different is if (distance > 1.0) return; which I've changed to if (distance < 1.0) return; because the collision wasn't even being performed with the first bit of code, I'm guessing that's a typo. The balls overlap when I use his code, which isn't what I was looking for. My attempt to fix it was to move the balls to the edge of each other: float angle = atan2(y - collider.y, x - collider.x); float distance = dist(x,y, balls[ID2].x,balls[ID2].y); x = collider.x + radius * cos(angle); y = collider.y + radius * sin(angle); This isn't correct, I'm pretty sure of that. I tried the correction algorithm in the previous ball-to-ball topic: // get the mtd Vector2d delta = (position.subtract(ball.position)); float d = delta.getLength(); // minimum translation distance to push balls apart after intersecting Vector2d mtd = delta.multiply(((getRadius() + ball.getRadius())-d)/d); // resolve intersection -- // inverse mass quantities float im1 = 1 / getMass(); float im2 = 1 / ball.getMass(); // push-pull them apart based off their mass position = position.add(mtd.multiply(im1 / (im1 + im2))); ball.position = ball.position.subtract(mtd.multiply(im2 / (im1 + im2))); except my version doesn't use vectors, and every ball's weight is 1. The resulting code I get is this: PVector delta = new PVector(collider.x - x, collider.y - y); float d = delta.mag(); PVector mtd = new PVector(delta.x * ((radius + collider.radius - d) / d), delta.y * ((radius + collider.radius - d) / d)); // push-pull apart based on mass x -= mtd.x * 0.5; y -= mtd.y * 0.5; collider.x += mtd.x * 0.5; collider.y += mtd.y * 0.5; This code seems to over-correct collisions. Which doesn't make sense to me because in no other way do I modify the x and y values of each ball, other than this. Some other part of my code could be wrong, but I don't know. Here's the snippet of the entire ball-to-ball collision handling I'm using: if (alreadyCollided.contains(new Integer(ID2))) // if the ball has already collided with this, then we don't need to reperform the collision algorithm return; Ball collider = (Ball) objects.get(ID2); PVector collision = new PVector(x - collider.x, y - collider.y); float distance = collision.mag(); if (distance == 0) { collision = new PVector(1,0); distance = 1; } if (distance < 1) return; PVector velocity = new PVector(vx,vy); PVector velocity2 = new PVector(collider.vx, collider.vy); collision.div(distance); // normalize the distance float aci = velocity.dot(collision); float bci = velocity2.dot(collision); float acf = bci; float bcf = aci; vx += (acf - aci) * collision.x; vy += (acf - aci) * collision.y; collider.vx += (bcf - bci) * collision.x; collider.vy += (bcf - bci) * collision.y; alreadyCollided.add(new Integer(ID2)); collider.alreadyCollided.add(new Integer(ID)); PVector delta = new PVector(collider.x - x, collider.y - y); float d = delta.mag(); PVector mtd = new PVector(delta.x * ((radius + collider.radius - d) / d), delta.y * ((radius + collider.radius - d) / d)); // push-pull apart based on mass x -= mtd.x * 0.2; y -= mtd.y * 0.2; collider.x += mtd.x * 0.2; collider.y += mtd.y * 0.2; Thanks. (Apologies for lack of sources, stackoverflow thinks I'm a spammer)

    Read the article

  • Designer throwing up an error!

    - by Luke
    I have a dropdown list that I want to show only certain options when a bool is true of false. if (mainForm.boolEdit == true) { this.cmbStatusBox.Items.AddRange(new object[] { "Cooking", "In-transit", "Delivered"}); } else { this.cmbStatusBox.Items.AddRange(new object[] { "Ordered"}); } I put this code into the saveForm.Designer.cs and got the following error: The designer cannot process the code at line 205: if (mainForm.boolEdit == true) { this.cmbStatusBox.Items.AddRange(new object[] { "Cooking", "In-transit", "Delivered"}); } else { this.cmbStatusBox.Items.AddRange(new object[] { "Ordered"}); } The code within the method 'InitializeComponent' is generated by the designer and should not be manually modified. Please remove any changes and try opening the designer again. What are my alternatives?

    Read the article

  • Wanted: Command line HTML5 beautifier

    - by blinry
    Wanted A command line HTML5 beautifier running under Linux. Input Garbled, ugly HTML5 code. Possibly the result of multiple templates. You don't love it, it doesn't love you. Output Pure beauty. The code is nicely indented, has enough line breaks, cares for it's whitespace. Rather than viewing it in a webbrowser, you would like to display the code on your website directly. Suspects tidy does too much (heck, it alters my doctype!), and it doesn't work well with HTML5. Maybe there is a way to make it cooperate and not alter anything? vim does too little. It only indents. I want the program to add and remove line breaks, and to play with the whitespace inside of tags. DEAD OR ALIVE!

    Read the article

  • Help needed with Javascript Variable Scope / OOP and Call Back Functions

    - by gargantaun
    I think this issue goes beyond typical variable scope and closure stuff, or maybe I'm an idiot. Here goes anyway... I'm creating a bunch of objects on the fly in a jQuery plugin. The object look something like this function WedgePath(canvas){ this.targetCanvas = canvas; this.label; this.logLabel = function(){ console.log(this.label) } } the jQuery plugin looks something like this (function($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function() { return $(this).each(function() { // Create Wedge Objects for(var i = 1; i <= 30; i++){ var newWedge = new WedgePath(canvas); newWedge.label = "my_wedge_"+i; globalFunction(i, newWedge]); } }); } })(jQuery); So... the plugin creates a bunch of wedgeObjects, then calls 'globalFunction' for each one, passing in the latest WedgePath instance. Global function looks like this. function globalFunction(indicator_id, pWedge){ var targetWedge = pWedge; targetWedge.logLabel(); } What happens next is that the console logs each wedges label correctly. However, I need a bit more complexity inside globalFunction. So it actually looks like this... function globalFunction(indicator_id, pWedge){ var targetWedge = pWedge; someSql = "SELECT * FROM myTable WHERE id = ?"; dbInterface.executeSql(someSql, [indicator_id], function(transaction, result){ targetWedge.logLabel(); }) } There's a lot going on here so i'll explain. I'm using client side database storage (WebSQL i call it). 'dbInterface' an instance of a simple javascript object I created which handles the basics of interacting with a client side database [shown at the end of this question]. the executeSql method takes up to 4 arguments The SQL String an optional arguments array an optional onSuccess handler an optional onError handler (not used in this example) What I need to happen is: When the WebSQL query has completed, it takes some of that data and manipulates some attribute of a particular wedge. But, when I call 'logLabel' on an instance of WedgePath inside the onSuccess handler, I get the label of the very last instance of WedgePath that was created way back in the plugin code. Now I suspect that the problem lies in the var newWedge = new WedgePath(canvas); line. So I tried pushing each newWedge into an array, which I thought would prevent that line from replacing or overwriting the WedgePath instance at every iteration... wedgeArray = []; // Inside the plugin... for(var i = 1; i <= 30; i++){ var newWedge = new WedgePath(canvas); newWedge.label = "my_wedge_"+i; wedgeArray.push(newWedge); } for(var i = 0; i < wedgeArray.length; i++){ wedgeArray[i].logLabel() } But again, I get the last instance of WedgePath to be created. This is driving me nuts. I apologise for the length of the question but I wanted to be as clear as possible. END ============================================================== Also, here's the code for dbInterface object should it be relevant. function DatabaseInterface(db){ var DB = db; this.sql = function(sql, arr, pSuccessHandler, pErrorHandler){ successHandler = (pSuccessHandler) ? pSuccessHandler : this.defaultSuccessHandler; errorHandler = (pErrorHandler) ? pErrorHandler : this.defaultErrorHandler; DB.transaction(function(tx){ if(!arr || arr.length == 0){ tx.executeSql(sql, [], successHandler, errorHandler); }else{ tx.executeSql(sql,arr, successHandler, errorHandler) } }); } // ---------------------------------------------------------------- // A Default Error Handler // ---------------------------------------------------------------- this.defaultErrorHandler = function(transaction, error){ // error.message is a human-readable string. // error.code is a numeric error code console.log('WebSQL Error: '+error.message+' (Code '+error.code+')'); // Handle errors here var we_think_this_error_is_fatal = true; if (we_think_this_error_is_fatal) return true; return false; } // ---------------------------------------------------------------- // A Default Success Handler // This doesn't do anything except log a success message // ---------------------------------------------------------------- this.defaultSuccessHandler = function(transaction, results) { console.log("WebSQL Success. Default success handler. No action taken."); } }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Request.ServerVariables["SERVER_PORT_SECURE"] and proxy SSL by load balancer

    - by frankadelic
    We have some legacy ASP.NET code that detects if a request is secure, and redirects to the https version of the page if required. This code uses Request.ServerVariables["SERVER_PORT_SECURE"] to detect if SSL is needed. Our operations team has suggested doing proxy SSL at the load balancer (F5 Big-IP) instead of on the web servers (assume for the purposes of this question that this is a requirement). The consequence would be that all requests appear as HTTP to the web server. My question: how can we let the web servers known that the incoming connection was secure before it hit the load balancer? Can we continue to use Request.ServerVariables["SERVER_PORT_SECURE"]? Do you know of a load balancer config that will send headers so that no application code changes are needed?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673  | Next Page >