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• Sending information between JavaScript and Web Services using AJAX

  - by COB-CSU-AM

  Alright so I'm using Microsoft's Web Services and AJAX to get information from a SQL database for use with java script on the client side. And I'm wondering what the best method is. Before I started working on the project, the web services were setup to return a C# List filled with some objects. Those objects variables (ints, strings, etc.) contain the data I want to use. Of course, java script can't do much with this, to the best of my knowledge. I then modified the web service to return a 2D Array, but java script got confused, and to the best of my knowledge can't handle 2D array's returned from C#. I then tried to use a regular array, but then a found the length property of an array in JS doesn't carry over, so I couldn't preform a for loop through all the items, because there wasn't anyway of knowing how many elements there were. The only other thing I can thing of is returning a string with special char's to separate the data, but this seems way too convoluted. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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• Setting up padding for websites in mobile devices

  - by ambrelasweb

  I had finished this website a while ago but something happened to it and I've now spent all day fixing it and getting it back from scratch as my backup wasn't correctly done. I don't quite understand what it's doing as I've done this technique on many other websites with no troubles, maybe I've looked at this website too long? Here is the website. I'm wanting to put some space on the left and right hand side, however I dont just have one container as I was needing the dark grey bar at 100% of the screen and always under the banner no matter where it was. So there are 4 "containing" divs that I want to have the space. I've placed soem CSS3 media queries in but now I'm getting a gap to the right. I was thinking it was because my background mages are going all the way across but they set at 100% so I'm just not understanding whats going on. It's somethign simple, I'm not seeing it right now.. This is what I have for the media queries /* Smartphones (portrait and landscape) ----------- */ @media only screen and (min-device-width : 320px) and (max-device-width : 480px) { #header, #banner, #main, #footer-widget-area { padding: 0 2em 0 2em; } } This is what t looks like on my iPhone Any advice is helpful and appreciated.

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• jQuery AJAX tabs + PHP

  - by ufw

  Hi, seems like I'm stuck with jQuery tabs. I'm trying to pass selected tab name to some php script but is seems like it doesn't get any data. This is how tabs normally work without any response from server side: http://pastebin.com/KBxj7p5k And this is how I try to pass the the current tab name to the server: $(document).ready(function() { $('ul.tabs li').css('cursor', 'pointer'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').click(function(){ var thisClass = this.className.slice(0,2); $('div.t1').hide(); $('div.t2').hide(); $('div.t3').hide(); $('div.t4').hide(); $('div.' + thisClass).show('fast'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').removeClass('tab-current'); $(this).addClass('tab-current'); var name = thisClass; var data = 'name='+name; $.ajax ({ type:"GET", url:"handler.php", data:data, success:function(html) { thisClass.html(html); } }); }); Thanks.

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• How to convert "0" and "1" to false and true

  - by Chris

  I have a method which is connecting to a database via Odbc. The stored procedure which I'm calling has a return value which from the database side is a 'Char'. Right now I'm grabbing that return value as a string and using it in a simple if statement. I really don't like the idea of comparing a string like this when only two values can come back from the database, 0 and 1. OdbcCommand fetchCommand = new OdbcCommand(storedProc, conn); fetchCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; fetchCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@column ", myCustomParameter); fetchCommand.Parameters.Add("@myReturnValue", OdbcType.Char, 1). Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; fetchCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); string returnValue = fetchCommand.Parameters["@myReturnValue"].Value.ToString(); if (returnValue == "1") { return true; } What would be the proper way to handle this situation. I've tried 'Convert.ToBoolean()' which seemed like the obvious answer but I ran into the 'String was not recognized as a valid Boolean. ' exception being thrown. Am I missing something here, or is there another way to make '1' and '0' act like true and false? Thanks!

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• Android Unit Testing - Resolution & Verification Problems

  - by Bill

  I just switched the way my Android project is being built and non of my unit tests work any more...I get errors like WARN/dalvikvm(575): VFY: unable to resolve static field X in ..... WARN/dalvikvm(575): VFY: unable to find class referenced in signature These errors only come from my Unit Tests, where classes defined in it can't even see other classes defined in the unit test. Before each project had its own directory with copies of the 3rd party jar files. I've read around that Dex does weird things with references but haven't been able to figure out how to fix this problem. Is there a better way to do this? I would love to see an example of a large Android workspace where there are multiple projects, jar references, etc... Is it possible to fix this with an Order/Export tweak ? The project is structured like this: Eclipse Workspace (PROJECT_HOME classpath variable) lib 3rd-party jars android.jar Java Project A Looks in PROJECT_HOME Java Project B Looks in PROJECT_HOME Depends on project A Android Project Depends on A & B Looks in PROJECT_HOME Android Test Project Depends on A , B, Android Project Looks in PROJECT_HOME

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• .Net in HTML tp return true if reader object not null, otherwise return false

  - by Phill Healey

  I'm using a DataList to show some data from the database and populating the fields on the html side. I now have a requirement to change the visibility of a panel based on whether or not a db field has data or not. I need to be able to show the panel if the relevant data field has content, and hide it if it doesn't. Eg: <asp:Panel ID="pnlNew" runat="server" Style="margin:0; padding:0; width:42px; height:18px; bottom:5px; right:10px; float:right; position:relative; background:url(../_imgVideoBadge.png) no-repeat;" Visible='<%# Eval("cheese") != null %>' ToolTip="available"></asp:Panel> Obviously this doesn't work in terms of the visible property. But hopefully it gives an idea of what I'm trying to achieve. Any help would be greatly appreciated. I've seen examples previously of doing something along the lines of: a ?? b:c How could this be applied to the above requirement?? Thanks in advance.

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• jQuery ajax only works first time

  - by Michael Itzoe

  I have a table of data that on a button click certain values are saved to the database, while other values are retrieved. I need the process to be continuous, but I can only get it to work the first time. At first I was using .ajax() and .replaceWith() to rewrite the entire table, but because this overwrites the DOM it was losing events associated with the table. I cannot use .live() because I'm using stopPropagation() and .live() doesn't support it due to event bubbling. I was able to essentially re-bind the click event onto the table within the .ajax() callback, but a second call to the button click event did nothing. I changed the code to use .get() for the ajax and .html() to put the results in the table (the server-side code now returns the complete table sans the <table> tags). I no longer have to rebind the click event to the table, but subsequent clicks to the button still do nothing. Finally, I changed it to .load(), but with the same (non-) results. By "do nothing" I mean while the ajax call is returning the new HTML as expected, it's not being applied to the table. I'm sure it has something to do with altering the DOM, but I thought since I'm only overwriting the table contents and not the table object itself, it should work. Obviously I'm missing something; what is it? Edit: HTML: <table id="table1" class="mytable"> <tr> <td><span id="item1" class="myitem"></span> <td><span id="item2" class="myitem"></span> </tr> </table> <input id="Button1" type="button" value="Submit" /> jQuery: $( "Button1" ).click( function() { $( "table1" ).load( "data.aspx", function( data ) { //... } ); } );

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• "date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC')" not the same time as "now() at time zone 'UTC'" in po

  - by sirlark

  I'm writing a web based front end to a database (PHP/Postgresql) in which I need to store various dates/times. The times are meant to be always be entered on the client side in the local time, and displayed in the local time too. For storage purposes, I store all dates/times as integers (UNIX timestamps) and normalised to UTC. One particular field has a restriction that the timestamp filled in is not allowed to be in the future, so I tried this with a database constraint... CONSTRAINT not_future CHECK (timestamp-300 <= date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC')) The -300 is to give 5 minutes leeway in case of slightly desynchronised times between browser and server. The problem is, this constraint always fails when submitting the current time. I've done testing, and found the following. In PostgreSQL client: SELECT now() -- returns correct local time SELECT date_part('epoch', now()) -- returns a unix timestamp at UTC (tested by feeding the value into the date function in PHP correcting for its compensation to my time zone) SELECT date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC') -- returns a unix timestamp at two time zone offsets west, e.g. I am at GMT+2, I get a GMT-2 timestamp. I've figured out obviously that dropping the "at time zone 'UTC'" will solve my problem, but my question is if 'epoch' is meant to return a unix timestamp which AFAIK is always meant to be in UTC, why would the 'epoch' of a time already in UTC be corrected? Is this a bug, or I am I missing something about the defined/normal behaviour here.

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• Statically checking a Java app for link errors

  - by monorailkitty

  I have a scenario where I have code written against version 1 of a library but I want to ship version 2 of the library instead. The code has shipped and is therefore not changeable. I'm concerned that it might try to access classes or members of the library that existed in v1 but have been removed in v2. I figured it would be possible to write a tool to do a simple check to see if the code will link against the newer version of the library. I appreciate that the code may still be very broken even if the code links. I am thinking about this from the other side - if the code won't link then I can be sure there is a problem. As far as I can see, I need to run through the bytecode checking for references, method calls and field accesses to library classes then use reflection to check whether the class/member exists. I have three-fold question: (1) Does such a tool exist already? (2) I have a niggling feeling it is much more complicated that I imagine and that I have missed something major - is that the case? (3) Do you know of a handy library that would allow me to inspect the bytecode such that I can find the method calls, references etc.? Thanks!

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• Black Magic in Grails Data Binding!?

  - by Tiago Alves

  As described in http://n4.nabble.com/Grails-Data-Binding-for-One-To-Many-Relationships-with-REST-tp1754571p1754571.html i'm trying to automatically bind my REST data. I understand now that for one-to-many associations the map that is required for the data binding must have a list of ids of the many side such as: [propName: propValue, manyAssoc: [1, 2]] However, I'm getting this exception Executing action [save] of controller [com.example.DomainName] caused exception: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateSystemException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id; nested exception is org.hibernate.PropertyAccessException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id However, even weirder is the update action that is generated for the controller. There we have the databinding like this: domainObjectInstance.properties = params['domainObject'] But, and this is the really weird thing, params['domainObject'] is null! It is null because all the domainObject fields are passed directly in the params map itself. If I change the above line to domainObjectInstance.properties = null the domainObject is still updated! Why is this happening and more important, how can I bind my incoming XML automatically if it comes in this format (the problem is the one-to-many associations): <product> <name>Table</name> <brand id="1" /> <categories> <category id="1" /> <category id="2" /> </categories> </product>

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• Avoid slowdowns while using off-site database

  - by Anders Holmström

  The basic layout of my problem is this: Website (ASP.NET/C#) hosted at a dedicated hosting company (location 1) Company database (SQL Server) with records of relevant data (location 2). Location 1 & 2 connected through VPN. Customer visiting the website and wanting to pull data from the company database. No possibility of changing the server locations or layout (i.e. moving the website to an in-office server isn't possible). What I want to do is figure out the best way to handle the data acces in this case, minimizing the need for time-expensive database calls over the VPN. The first idea I'm getting is this: When a user enters the section of the website needing the DB data, you pull all the needed tables from the database into a in-memory dataset. All subsequent views/updates to the data is done on this dataset. When the user leaves (logout, session timeout, browser closed etc) the dataset gets sent to the SQL server. I'm not sure if this is a realistic solution, and it obviously has some problems. If two web visitors are performing updates on the same data, the one finishing up last will have their changes overwriting the first ones. There's also no way of knowing you have the latest data (i.e. if a customer pulls som info on their projects and we update this info while they are viewing them, they won't see these changes PLUS the above overwriting issue will arise). The other solution would be to somehow aggregate database calls and make sure they only happen when you need them, e.g. during data updates but not during data views. But then again the longer a pause between these refreshing DB calls, the bigger a chance that the data view is out of date as per the problem described above. Any input on the above or some fresh ideas would be most welcome.

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• ReflectionTypeLoadException when I try to run Enable-Migrations with Entity Framework 5.0

  - by Eric Anastas

  I'm trying to use Entity Framework for the first time on one of my projects. I'm using the code first workflow to automatically create my database. Intitaly setting up the database worked fine. Now I'm trying to migrate changes in my classes into the database. The tutorial I'm reading says I need to run "Enable-Migrations" in the package manager console. Yet when I do this I get the following error PM> Enable-Migrations System.Reflection.ReflectionTypeLoadException: Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes(RuntimeModule module) at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes() at System.Reflection.Assembly.GetTypes() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.FindType[TBase](String typeName, Func`2 filter, Func`2 noType, Func`3 multipleTypes, Func`3 noTypeWithName, Func`3 multipleTypesWithName) at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.GetContextTypeRunner.RunCore() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.Run() Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. What am I doing wrong? How do I retrieve the loader exceptions property? Also NuGet says I have EF 5.0, but Version property of the EntityFramework item in my project references says 4.4.0.0. I'm not sure if this is related.

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• What is the appropriate granularity in building a ViewModel?

  - by JasCav

  I am working on a new project, and, after seeing some of the difficulties of previous projects that didn't provide enough separation of view from their models (specifically using MVC - the models and views began to bleed into each other a bit), I wanted to use MVVM. I understand the basic concept, and I'm excited to start using it. However, one thing that escapes me a bit - what data should be contained in the ViewModel? For example, if I am creating a ViewModel that will encompass two pieces of data so they can be edited in a form, do I capture it like this: public PersonAddressViewModel { public Person Person { get; set; } public Address Address { get; set; } } or like this: public PersonAddressViewModel { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public string StreetName { get; set; } // ...etc } To me, the first feels more correct for what we're attempting to do. If we were doing more fine grain forms (maybe all we were capturing was FirstName, LastName, and StreetAddress) then it might make more sense to go down to that level. But, I feel like the first is correct since we're capturing ALL Person data in the form and ALL Address data. It seems like it doesn't make sense (and a lot of extra work) to split things apart like that. Appreciate any insight.

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• Xcode 4: nib files not loading when run, can't find UI elements

  - by Jordan

  So, I just downloaded Xcode 4 and installed it. I was actually quite looking forward to the single window and integrated IB... - However, when I open and run one of my projects, the nib files that the project uses don't seem to load. Instead I'm left looking at a blank white screen (iPhone). This project ran well and fine on Xcode 3.2. So I thought... this can't be that hard to fix. So I opened up a nib file, thinking that maybe editing or creating a new one from scratch could point me in the right direction. But I can't find the old resources panel from interface builder anywhere. How am I meant to create a new view or add buttons? I know I'm probably just missing something obvious :s Did anyone else have the same nib file problems - is there a fix (or something stupidly simple that I'm forgetting about)? - EDIT: Ok. If I background and un-background the app, the view loads fine. But this happens every time I build, on both iPhone and iOS simulator, i.e. the app doesn't work properly until it's been backgrounded. All the code for loading the view follows from - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application. Now I am really confused. - Thanks :)

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• How to build a dynamic resize-able Flash player

  - by Leon

  Morning stackers! So my question today isn't dealing with any code, but how to go about this the correct way from the start. I have a video player built to a static size (max: 800x600) which I'll have to re-code every time I need it to be a different size. What I need it to do in the near future is dynamically resize itself and all the elements inside of it based on 1 width variable that it will received either from HTML or XML. Now to me there are 2 ways to go about this: Start with the smallest size possible and resize upwards, but I'm unsure of how the Flash movie will actually expand upwards as of right now. Or 2, start with the largest size possible (in this case 800x600) and size everything down. Step 1, I think seems to be the better way to go about this (ala YouTube style), but Step 2 also seems like it could be the easier way? A friend of mine mentioned that I should go with the larger size and have elements resize in each class, then fix to the upper left hand corner. However for the player to fit inside of certain div columns on sites, blogs whatever he said that there will have to be an HTML/CSS side of this... meaning that the div containing the resized flash player will have to cover up the areas of the Flash movie that are not to be shown? Is that possible to put a 800x600 flash movie into a div that smaller then 800 pixels wide? And cover it up with another div? Anyways, my mission is to be able to have a dynamically sized player like this: Thoughts? Recommendations? Best practices for this before I start?

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• Cocos2d on iPhone: Using Sprites Defined in Separate Class Files.

  - by srikanth rongali

  I'm trying to draw two sprites on the same screen. I have defined the two sprite objects in two separate class files. If I comment out two lines (see "item 1" comment below) then I get a display as [a backgroundimage[background2.jpg] with a sprite[grossini.png] on the left side. If I uncomment the two lines I do not get the background image and sprite of (gameScreen.m). I get only the sprite [grossinis_sister1.png] defined in (enemy.m). But what I need is a [backgroundimage[background2.jpg]], sprite[grossini.png] and sprite [grossinis_sister1.png] in one screen. This is implementation file of my first class: #import "gameScreen.h" #import "enemy.h" @implementation gameScreen -(id)init { if((self = [super init])) { CCSprite *backGroundImage = [CCSprite spriteWithFile:@"background2.jpg"]; backGroundImage.anchorPoint = ccp(0,0); CCParallaxNode *voidNode = [CCParallaxNode node]; [voidNode addChild:backGroundImage z:-1 parallaxRatio:ccp(0.0f,0.0f) positionOffset:CGPointZero]; [self addChild:voidNode]; CGSize windowSize = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] winSize]; CCSprite *player = [CCSprite spriteWithFile:@"grossini.png"]; player.position = ccp(player.contentSize.width/2, windowSize.height/2); [self addChild:player z:0]; //eSprite = [[enemy alloc]init]; //<-- see item 1 //[self addChild:eSprite]; } return self; } This is my implementation file of my second class: #import "enemy.h" #import "gameScreen.h" @implementation enemy -(id)init { if ((self = [super init])) { CGSize windowSize = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] winSize]; CCSprite *enemySprite = [CCSprite spriteWithFile:@"grossinis_sister1.png" ]; enemySprite.position = ccp(windowSize.width/2, windowSize.height/2); [self addChild:enemySprite]; } return self; } @end

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• Best practice- How to team-split a django project while still allowing code reusal

  - by Infinity

  I know this sounds kind of vague, but please let me explain- I'm starting work on a brand new project, it will have two main components: "ACME PRODUCT" (think Gmail, Meebo, etc), and "THE SITE" (help, information, marketing stuff, promotional landing pages, etc lots of marketing-induced cruft). So basically the url /acme/* will load stuff in the uber cool ajaxy application, and every other URI will load stuff in the other site. Problem: "THE SITE" component is out of my hands, and will be handled by a consultants team that will work closely with marketing, And I and my team will work solely on the ACME PRODUCT. Question: How to set up the django project in such a way that we can have: Seperate releases. (They can push new marketing pages and functionality without having to worry about the state of our code. Maybe even separate Subversion "projects") Minimize impact (on our product) of whatever flying-unicorns-hocus-pocus the other team codes into the site. Still allow some code reusal. My main concern is that the ACME product needs to be rock solid, and therefore needs to be somewhat isolated of whatever mistakes/code bloopers the consultants make in their marketing side of the site. How have you handled this? Any ideas? Thanks!

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• How can I write to a single xml file from two programs at the same time?

  - by Tom Bushell

  We recently started working with XML files, after many years of experience with the old INI files. My coworker found some CodeProject sample code that uses System.Xml.XmlDocument.Save. We are getting exceptions when two programs try to write to the same file at the same time. System.IO.IOException: The process cannot access the file 'C:\Test.xml' because it is being used by another process. This seems obvious in hindsight, but we had not anticipated it because accessing INI files via the Win32 API does not have this limitation. I assume there's some arbitration done by the Win32 calls that work at a higher level than the the XmlDocument.Save method. I'm hoping there are higher level XML routines somewhere in the .Net library that work similarily to the Win32 functions, but don't know where to start looking. Or maybe we can set up our file access permissions to allow multiple programs to write to the same file? Time is short (like almost all SW projects), and if we can't find a solution quickly, we'll have to hold our noses and go back to INI files.

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• vaadin custom layout setting a text area in a table with the location attribute

  - by user3717298

  I need to set a text area in the html template and use it as a custom component in vaadin the html snippet is as below <table> <tr> <td> JUNK SENTENCE </td> <td> <div location="HEADIN"></div> <div location="Details"></div> <div location="Attachment"></div> </td> <td> <p>School of more than 50 students univer versities.</p> </td> </tr> </table> All the place holders are working and displays data but the "details" holder should be a text area. as the text is a lot over there so I tried the below way but it just turned the place holder to text vaadin could not manipulate / identify the "Details" place holder. I tried the below way i set - in side the text area tag. <textarea rows="4" cols="50"> </textarea> and again i tried this way too which also did not work. <textarea rows="4" cols="50" location="Details"> </textarea> Any guidance would be appreciated to solve this I am setting the needed values from a formfeildfactory and these values are set by implementing the Vaadin Custom field class(in case it helps some more to identify)

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• TreeView Control Problem

  - by ProgNet

  Hi all, I have a public folder on the server that contains recursively nested sub folders. In the various Leaf folders contains Images. I wanted to create a server side file browser that will display the Images to the user. I am using the ASP.NET TreeView Control. I create the tree nodes using PopulateOnDemand. If the user click on a leaf directory I want the images in that folder to be displayed in a DataList Control. The problem is that when I click on a sub tree node (after I expanded it parent node) All the expanded sub tree disappears and only the parent node is showed with no + sign next to it !! ( I have set the TreeView's PopulateNodesFromClient property to true ) Can someone tell me what is the problem ?? Thanks Here is the code : <asp:TreeView ID="TreeView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateDataBindings="False" onselectednodechanged="TreeView1_SelectedNodeChanged" ontreenodepopulate="TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate"> </asp:TreeView> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { string path = Server.MapPath("."); PopulateTopNodes(path); } } private void PopulateTopNodes(string pathToRootFolder) { DirectoryInfo dirInfo = new DirectoryInfo(pathToRootFolder); DirectoryInfo[] dirs = dirInfo.GetDirectories(); foreach (DirectoryInfo dir in dirs) { TreeNode folderNode = new TreeNode(dir.Name,dir.FullName); if (dir.GetDirectories().Length > 0) { folderNode.PopulateOnDemand = true; folderNode.Collapse(); } TreeView1.Nodes.Add(folderNode); } } protected void TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate(object sender, TreeNodeEventArgs e) { if (IsCallback == true) { if (e.Node.ChildNodes.Count == 0) { LoadChildNode(e.Node); } } } private void LoadChildNode(TreeNode treeNode) { DirectoryInfo dirInfo = new DirectoryInfo(treeNode.Value); DirectoryInfo[] dirs = dirInfo.GetDirectories(); foreach (DirectoryInfo dir in dirs) { TreeNode folderNode = new TreeNode(dir.Name, dir.FullName); if(dir.GetDirectories().Length>0){ folderNode.PopulateOnDemand = true; folderNode.Collapse(); } treeNode.ChildNodes.Add(folderNode); } } protected void TreeView1_SelectedNodeChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Retrieve the images here }

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• Converting to MVC3 - some views still want 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0,

  - by justSteve

  I've used the directions from the release notes and have been able to navigate most pages - my unit tests are not comprehensive but most all pass. However...when I attempt to edit an existing or create a new user I'm getting the error pasted below - notice that it's references version=1... - this project started life as a v1 and was converted to mvc2 at the RTM. I'm still working with V2 projects but no longer any v1. Am i due for a GAC cleansing? Server Error in '/' Application. Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = STUDIO11\mUser LOG: DisplayName = System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/Users/C:\Users\[path to project]/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = C:\Users\[path to project]\bin Calling assembly : App_Web_qcjylaoc, Version=0.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null. === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: Using application configuration file: C:\Users\[path to project]\web.config LOG: Using host configuration file: LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 LOG: The same bind was seen before, and was failed with hr = 0x80070002.

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• Using git svn with some awkward permissions

  - by Migs

  Due to some funky permissions on our client's side that we can't change, we have a project whose hierarchy looks something like: projectname/trunk: foo/, bar/, baz/ projectname/branches: branch1/, branch2/ (where branch1 and branch2 each contain foo, bar, and baz.) The thing is, I have no permission to access trunk, so I can't just do a clone of project/trunk. I do have permission to access branches. What I am currently doing is checking out each subdirectory individually via git svn clone, so that each one has their own git repo. I use a script to update/commit them all, but what I would prefer to do is to check them all out under a single repo, and be able to commit changes with a single call to git svn dcommit. Is this possible? I mentioned the branches hierarchy because if possible, I'd also like to be able to track the branches the way I could if the permissions were more sane. I've tried permuting a lot of options that sounded useful, but I haven't found one that gives me exactly what I want. I sense that the solution may have something to do with --no-minimize-url, but I'm not even sure about that, as it didn't help me when I tried it.

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• Cocoa Drag and Drop, reading back the data. [Newbie]

  - by kodai

  Ok, I have a NSOutlineView set up, and I want it to capture PDF's if a pdf is dragged into the NSOutlineView. My first question, I have the following code: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; In all the apple Docs and examples I've seen I've also seen something like MySupportedType being an object registered for dragging. What does this mean? Do I change the code to be: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"pdf", NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; Currently I have it set up to recognize drag and drop, and I can even make it spit out the URL of the dragged file once the drag is accepted, however, this leads me to my second question. I want to keep a copy of those PDF's app side. I suppose, and correct me if I'm wrong, that the best way to do this is to grab the data off the clipboard, save it in some persistant store, and that's that. (as apposed to using some sort of copy command and literally copying the file to the app director.) That being said, I'm not sure how to do that. I've the code: - (BOOL)outlineView:(NSOutlineView *)ov acceptDrop:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)info item:(id)item childIndex:(NSInteger)childIndex { NSPasteboard *pboard = [info draggingPasteboard]; NSURL *fileURL; if ( [[pboard types] containsObject:NSURLPboardType] ) { fileURL = [NSURL URLFromPasteboard:pboard]; // Perform operation using the file’s URL } NSData *data = [pboard dataForType:@"NSPasteboardTypePDF"]; But this never actually gets any data. Like I said before, it does get the URL, just not the data. Does anyone have any advise on how to get this going? Thanks so much!

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• Organising files and classes in XCode (iPhone application)

  - by pulegium

  It's a generic question and really a newbie one too, so bear with me... I'm playing with some iPhone development, and trying to create a simple "flip type" application. Nothing sophisticated, let's say on the flip side is a short application summary, bit like 'help' and on the main screen is a simple board game, let's say tic-tac-toe or similar. Now, XCode has generated me 'Main View', 'Flipside View' and 'Application Delegate' folders, with default template files in them. Now the question is where do I create appropriate 'MVC' classes? Let's say (V)iew classes are going to be the ones that have been automatically created. So the Flipside view class is responsible for generating text/images etc on the 'help' view. 'Main View' class is what draws the items on the table and updates the counters, etc. Where should I place the 'controller' class? And also, should it only be dealing with proxying only to the model? According to this the controller method is called from the view and manipulates the method classes. Similarly, the results from model are passed back to the view class by the controller issuing the calls to appropriate view methods. Similarly, where does the model class go? or should I just create a new folder for each, controller and model class files? What I'm after is the best practices, or just a short description how people normally structure their applications. I know it's very specific and also undefined... I came from Django background, so the way stuff is organised there is slightly different. Hope this makes sense, sorry if it's all bit vague, but I have to start somewhere :) And yes I've read quite few docs on the apple developer site, but trouble is that the documents are either going into too much detail about the language/framework/etc and the examples are way too simplistic. Actually, this leads me to the final question, has anyone know any good example of relatively complete application tutorial which I could use as a reference in organising my files?...

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• 3 questions about JSON-P format.

  - by Tristan

  Hi, I have to write a script which will be hosted on differents domains. This script has to get information from my server. So, stackoverflow's user told me that i have to use JSON-P format, which, after research, is what i'm going to do. (the data provided in JSON-P is for displaying some information hosted on my server on other website) How do I output JSON-P from my server ? Is it the same as the json_encode function from PHP How do i design the tree pattern for the output JSON-P (you know, like : ({"name" : "foo", "id" : "xxxxx", "blog" : "http://xxxxxx.com"}); can I steal this from my XML output ? (http://bit.ly/9kzBDP) Each time a visitor browse a website on which my widget is it'll make a request on my server, requesting the JSON-P data to display on the client side. It'll increase dramatically the CPU load (1 visitor on the website who will have the script = 1 SQL request on my server to output data), so is there any way to 'caching' the JSON-P information output to refresh it only one or twice a day and stores it into a 'file' (in which extension?). BUT on the other hand i would say that requesting the JSON-P data directly (without caching it) is a plus, because, websites which will integrates the script only want to display THEIR information and not the whole data. So, making a script with something like that: jQuery.getJSON("http://www.something.com/json-p/outpout?filter=5&callback=?", function(data) { ................); }); Where filter= the information the website wants to display What do you think ? Thank you very much ;)

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