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  • problems with scrolling a java TextArea

    - by Jonathan
    All, I am running into an issue using JTextArea and JScrollPane. For some reason the scroll pane appears to not recognize the last line in the document, and will only scroll down to the line before it. The scroll bar does not even change to a state where I can slide it until the lines in the document are two greater than the number of lines the textArea shows (it should happen as soon as it is one greater). Has anyone run into this before? What would be a good solution (I want to avoid having to add an extra 'blank' line to the end of the document, which I would have to remove every time I add a new line)? Here is how I instantiate the TextArea and ScrollPane: JFrame frame = new JFrame("Java Chat Program"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); Container pane = frame.getContentPane(); if (!(pane.getLayout() instanceof BorderLayout)) { System.err.println("Error: UI Container does not implement BorderLayout."); System.exit(-1); } textArea = new JTextArea(); textArea.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(500, 100)); textArea.setEditable(false); textArea.setLineWrap(true); textArea.setWrapStyleWord(true); JScrollPane scroller = new JScrollPane(textArea); scroller.setVerticalScrollBarPolicy(ScrollPaneConstants.VERTICAL_SCROLLBAR_ALWAYS); pane.add(scroller, BorderLayout.CENTER); Here is the method I use to add a new line to textArea: public void println(String a) { textArea.append(" "+a+"\n"); textArea.setCaretPosition(textArea.getDocument().getLength()); } Thanks for your help, Jonathan EDIT: Also, as a side note, with the current code I have to manually scroll down. I assumed that setCaretPosition(doc.getLength()) in the println(line) method would automatically set the page to the bottom after a line is entered... Should that be the case, or do I need to do something differently?

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  • What are the reasons to use dos batch programs in Windows?

    - by DVK
    Question What would be a good (ideally, technical) reason to ever program some non-trivial task in dos batch language on a modern Windows system as opposed to downloading either PowerShell, or ActiveState Perl? To be more specific, I make the following two assumptions for the duration of this question: anyone technical enough to be able to write a medium-complexity batch script is technical enough to install either of the scripting interpreters. Neither of those two present enough of a learning curve for basic batch replacement tasks that said curve would outweigh the pain of doing any remotely-non-trivial task in batch. Notes "You need a batch program for autoexec.bat" is not a valid reason. Your autoexec.bat may consist of simply calling non-batch script. If you disagree with either of my 2 assumptions above, that's fine, and I may be wrong. But my question is specifically "assuming those 2 assumptions are correct, what would be the reason to still stick with batch?" If it makes it easier to suspend disbelief (in case you disagree with me), add in a 3rd assumption that the question is limited to people who already posess at least some modicum of PowerShell or Perl experience. To re-iterate - this is not meant to be a subjective question about how easy it is to learn PSh or ASPerl compared to doing advanced batch coding. That is a separate question that is too subjective to be bothered with in this post. Background: I used to do some fairly complicated batch programming back in the elder days, and remember batch as one of the worst possble programming languages I had encountered. The idea for this question came after seeing a bunch of batch questions on SO, and trying to grok the answer of one of them out of sheer curiosity and giving up in pain after a minute, exclaiming mentally "why would anyone go through this pain instead of doing that in 1 line of Perl?" :) My own plausible answer I assume there may be an an likely DOS-compatible system, which has DOS interpreter but has no compatible PowerShell or Perl... I'm not aware of one but not completely impossible.

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  • Database Change Management - Setup for Initial Create Scripts, Subsequent Migration Scripts

    - by Martin Aatmaa
    I've got a database change management workflow in place. It's based on SQL scripts (so, it's not a managed code-based solution). The basic setup looks like this: Initial/ Generate Initial Schema.sql Generate Initial Required Data.sql Generate Initial Test Data.sql Migration 0001_MigrationScriptForChangeOne.sql 0002_MigrationScriptForChangeTwo.sql ... The process to spin up a database is to then run all the Initlal scripts, and then run the sequential Migration scripts. A tool takes case of the versioning requirements, etc. My question is, in this kind of setup, is it useful to also maintain this: Current/ Stored Procedures/ dbo.MyStoredProcedureCreateScript.sql ... Tables/ dbo.MyTableCreateScript.sql ... ... By "this" I mean a directory of scripts (separated by object type) that represents the create scripts for spinning up the current/latest version of the database. For some reason, I really like the idea, but I can't concretely justify it's need. Am I missing something? The advantages would be: For dev and source control, we would have the same object-per-file setup that we're used to For deployment, we can spin up a new DB instance to the latest version either by running the Initial+Migrate, or by running the scripts from Current/ For dev, we do not need a DB instance running in order to do development. We can do "offline" development on the Current/ folder. The disadvantages would be: For each change, we need to update the scripts in the Current/ folder, as well as create a Migration script (in the Migration/ folder) Thanks in advance for any input!

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  • Notifying view controller when subview touch events occur.

    - by Nebs
    I have a UIViewController whose view has a custom subview. This custom subview needs to track touch events and report swipe gestures. Currently I put touchesBegan, touchesMoved, touchesEnded and touchesCancelled in the subview class. With some extra logic I am able to get swipe gestures and call my handleRightSwipe and handleLeftSwipe methods. So now when I swipe within the subview it calls its local swipe handling methods. This all works fine. But what I really need is for the handleRightSwipe and handleLeftSwipe methods to be in the view controller. I could leave them in the subview class but then I'd have to bring in all the logic and data as well and that kind of breaks the MVC idea. So my question is is there a clean way to handle this? Essentially I want to keep my touch event methods in the subview so that they only trigger for that specific view. But I also want the view controller to be informed when these touch events (or in this case swipe gestures) occur. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Redirect from URL with QueryString to the same URL without QueryString

    - by Slauma
    I have a page request with a QueryString, say http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx?OrderID=1. The page is displayed in a browser. Now there is an asp:LinkButton on the page which should enable the user to open the page without the QueryString (as if he had entered http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx directly in the browser's address bar). I had two ideas: 1) Use the PostBackUrl attribute of the LinkButton: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" PostBackUrl="~/Orders.aspx" /> 2) Use "RedirectUrl" in an event handler: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" /> ...and... protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("~/Orders.aspx"); } In both cases the browser's address bar shows http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx without the QueryString, as I like to have it. But in the first case the page does not change at all. But it should, because I'm evaluating the QueryString in code-behind and control the appearance of the page depending on whether a QueryString exists or not. The second option works as intended. If I am not wrong the second option requires an additional roundtrip: Browser sends request to server Event handler on server side sends Redirect URL to browser Browser sends again request to the server, but with the new URL Server sends new requested page to browser Is this correct at all? Whereas the first option omits the first two steps in the list above, thus saving the additional roundtrip and resulting in: Browser sends request to the server, but with the new URL (the PostbackURL specified in the LinkButton) Server sends new requested page to browser But, as said, the result isn't the same. I'm sure my try to explain the differences between the two options is wrong somewhere. But I don't know where exactly. Can someone explain what's really the difference? Do I really need this second roundtrip of option (2) to achieve what I want? Thanks in advance!

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  • Encrypting using RSA via COM Interop = "The requested operation requires delegation to be enabled on

    - by Mr AH
    Hi Guys, So i've got this little static method in a .Net class which takes a string, uses some stored public key and returns the encrypted version of that key. This is basically so some user entered data can be saved an encrypted, then retrieved and decrypted at a later date. Pretty basic stuff and the unit test works fine. However, part of the application is in classic ASP. This then uses some COM visible version of the class to go off and invoke the method on the real class and return the same string to the COM client (classic ASP). I use this kind of stuff all the time, but in this case we have a major problem. As the method is doing something with RSA keys and has to access certain machine information to do so, we get the error: "The requested operation requires delegation to be enabled on the machine. I've searched around a lot, but can't really understand what this means. I assume I am getting this error on the COM but not the UT because the UT runs as me (Administrator) and classic ASP as IWAM. Anyone know what I need to do to enable IWAM to do this? Or indeed if this is the real problem here?

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  • Complex Types, ModelBinders and Interfaces

    - by Kieron
    Hi, I've a scenario where I need to bind to an interface - in order to create the correct type, I've got a custom model binder that knows how to create the correct concrete type (which can differ). However, the type created never has the fields correctly filled in. I know I'm missing something blindingly simple here, but can anyone tell me why or at least what I need to do for the model binder to carry on it's work and bind the properties? public class ProductModelBinder : DefaultModelBinder { override public object BindModel (ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { if (bindingContext.ModelType == typeof (IProduct)) { var content = GetProduct (bindingContext); return content; } var result = base.BindModel (controllerContext, bindingContext); return result; } IProduct GetProduct (ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { var idProvider = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue ("Id"); var id = (Guid)idProvider.ConvertTo (typeof (Guid)); var repository = RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<IProductRepository> (); var product = repository.Get (id); return product; } } The Model in my case is a complex type that has an IProduct property, and it's those values I need filled in. Model: [ProductBinder] public class Edit : IProductModel { public Guid Id { get; set; } public byte[] Version { get; set; } public IProduct Product { get; set; } }

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  • Aspnet_merge error has no detail

    - by dang57
    I have been attempting to add a Deployment Project to my web app. When I build it, I get a message "An error occurred when merging assemblies: Exception from HRESULT: 0x806D0004". There is no other detail, like ILMerge error, or Duplicate Name. I have "verbosity" set to "Diagnostic", and this is the output: Command: C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\WebDeployment\v8.0\aspnet_merge.exe "\...XXX...\My Documents\Visual Studio 2005\Projects\XXX_deploy\Debug" -o XXX_deploy -debug -copyattrs The "AspNetMerge" task is using "aspnet_merge.exe" from "C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\WebDeployment\v8.0\aspnet_merge.exe". Utility to merge precompiled ASP.NET assemblies. An error occurred when merging assemblies: Exception from HRESULT: 0x806D0004 C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\WebDeployment\v8.0\Microsoft.WebDeployment.targets(474,9): error MSB6006: "aspnet_merge.exe" exited with code 1. Done executing task "AspNetMerge" -- FAILED. Done building target "AspNetMerge" in project "XXX_deploy.wdproj" -- FAILED. Done building project "XXX_deploy.wdproj" -- FAILED. Build FAILED. I have tried running the command via the Command prompt, but it does not give any additional information. I have also removed EVERYTHING from the project, including references, style sheets, forms, tableadapters. I still have a web.config, but deleted all app-specific lines. I added a single new form named Default. I have even tried renaming that form to DefaultX, just in case there was another Default out there. I still get the error. What else can I look for? I'm running VS 2005 v8.05. Thanks Dan

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  • WCF: Per-Call and Per-Session services...need convincing that Per-Call is worthwhile

    - by mrlane
    Hello all. We are currently doing a review of our WCF service design and one thing that is bothering me is the decision between Per-Call and Per-Session services. I believe I understand the concept behind both, but I am not really seeing the advantage of Per-Call services. I understand that the motivation for using Per-Call services is that a WCF services only holds a servier object for the life of a call thereby restricting the time that an expensive resource is held by the service instance, but to me its much simpler to use the more OO like Per-Session model where your proxy object instance always corrisponds to the same server object instance and just handle any expensive resources manually. For example, say I have a CRUD Service with Add, Update, Delete, Select methods on it. This could be done as a Per-Call service with database connection (the "expensive resource") instanciated in the server object constructor. Alternately it could be a Per-Session service with a database connection instanciated and closed within each CRUD method exposed. To me it is no different resource wise and it makes the programming model simpler as the client can be assured that they always have the same server object for their proxies: any in-expensive state that there may be between calls is maintained and no extra parameters are needed on methods to identify what state data must be retrieved by the service when it is instanciating a new server object again (as in the case of Per-Call). Its just like using classes and objects, where the same resource management issues apply, but we dont create new object instances for each method call we have on an object! So what am I missing with the Per-Call model? Thanks

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  • Sync Vs. Async Sockets Performance in C#

    - by Michael Covelli
    Everything that I read about sockets in .NET says that the asynchronous pattern gives better performance (especially with the new SocketAsyncEventArgs which saves on the allocation). I think this makes sense if we're talking about a server with many client connections where its not possible to allocate one thread per connection. Then I can see the advantage of using the ThreadPool threads and getting async callbacks on them. But in my app, I'm the client and I just need to listen to one server sending market tick data over one tcp connection. Right now, I create a single thread, set the priority to Highest, and call Socket.Receive() with it. My thread blocks on this call and wakes up once new data arrives. If I were to switch this to an async pattern so that I get a callback when there's new data, I see two issues The threadpool threads will have default priority so it seems they will be strictly worse than my own thread which has Highest priority. I'll still have to send everything through a single thread at some point. Say that I get N callbacks at almost the same time on N different threadpool threads notifying me that there's new data. The N byte arrays that they deliver can't be processed on the threadpool threads because there's no guarantee that they represent N unique market data messages because TCP is stream based. I'll have to lock and put the bytes into an array anyway and signal some other thread that can process what's in the array. So I'm not sure what having N threadpool threads is buying me. Am I thinking about this wrong? Is there a reason to use the Async patter in my specific case of one client connected to one server?

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  • WPF - Dynamic tooltip

    - by Al Mackenzie
    I have a class ToolTipProvider which has a method string GetToolTip(UIElement element) which will return a specific tooltip for the UIElement specified, based on various factors including properties of the UIElement itself and also looking up into documentation which can be changed dynamically. It will also probably run in a thread so when the form first fires up the tooltips will be something like the visual studio 'Document cache is still being constructed', then populated in the background. I want to allow this to be used in any wpf form with the minimum effort for the developer. Essentially I want to insert an ObjectDataProvider resource into the Window.Resources to wrap my ToolTipProvider object, then I think I need to create a tooltip (called e.g. MyToolTipProvider) in the resources which references that ObjectDataProvider, then on any element which requires this tooltip functionality it would just be a case of ToolTip="{StaticResource MyToolTipProvider}" however I can't work out a) how to bind the actual elemnt itself to the MethodParameters of the objectdataprovider, or b) how to force it to call the method each time the tooltip is opened. Any ideas/pointers on the general pattern I need? Not looking for complete solution, just any ideas from those more experienced

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  • Cannot see named Silverlight control in code

    - by Alexandra
    In my first few hours with Silverlight 3, as an avid WPF user, I am greatly disappointed at the many things it doesn't support. This seems like an odd issue to me and it's so generic that I cannot find anything online about it. I have the following XAML: <controls:TabControl x:Name="workspacesTabControl" Grid.Row="1" Background="AntiqueWhite" ItemsSource="{Binding Workspaces, ElementName=_root}"/> However, I cannot see the workspacesTabControl in code-behind. I thought maybe IntelliSense is just being mean and tried to go ahead and compile it anyway, but got an error: Error 1 The name 'workspacesTabControl' does not exist in the current context How do I access controls in code-behind? EDIT: I realized I've pasted the wrong error - I have two controls inside the UserControl called workspacesTabControl and menuStrip. I cannot get to either one of them by their name in the code-behind. Just in case, here is the XAML for the menuStrip: <controls:TreeView Grid.ColumnSpan="2" Height="100" x:Name="menuStrip" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource MenuStripStyle}" ItemsSource="{Binding Menu, ElementName=_root}"/> EDIT AGAIN: I'm not sure if this is helpful, but I've taken a look at the InitializeComponent() code and here's what I saw: [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] public void InitializeComponent() { if (_contentLoaded) { return; } _contentLoaded = true; System.Windows.Application.LoadComponent(this, new System.Uri("/SapphireApplication;component/SapphireMain.xaml", System.UriKind.Relative)); } It seems that it simply loads the XAML when it runs (not before or during compilation) so the menuStrip and workspacesTabControl names don't actually get registered anywhere (as they usually are in WPF/win Forms). Could that attribute be a problem? And where do I get rid of this requirement for all the future UserControls I make?

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  • Can I convert an ASCII MD5 hashed password into a Unicode MD5 hashed password?

    - by Jimmy Moo Moo
    Hello, I'm looking for help to convert an ASCII MD5 hashed password into a Unicode MD5 hashed password? For example, I'll use the string "password" . When it's converted to an ascii byte array, I get a base64 encoded hash of X03MO1qnZdYdgyfeuILPmQ== When it's converted into a unicode byte array, I get a base64 encoded hash of sIHb6F4ew//D1OfQInQAzQ== All my passwords are stored in an md5 hash that was applied to an ascii byte array, but I'm trying to migrate my application's user data to a system that stores password in an md5 hash that is applied a unicode byte array. In case it's not clear, with the following C#code: var passwordBytes = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes("password"); var hashAlgorithm = HashAlgorithm.Create("MD5"); var hashBytes = hashAlgorithm.ComputeHash(passwordBytes); My current system uses this, but the system I'm moving to has a diff first time. It usese Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes. Does anybody know how I can convert my passwords? From X03MO1qnZdYdgyfeuILPmQ== into sIHb6F4ew//D1OfQInQAzQ== I'm guessing the answer is that I can't.. the encoding is being done before the hashing, but I thought I'd inquire the bright minds of stackoverflow and see if anybody has a way.

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  • Traversing/Manipulating new window from parent window with jquery

    - by Anthony
    I found a question already with a possible solution, but I had already tried the method suggested before reading it, and it even says it's inconsistent. So I guess I'm wondering why this doesn't work: $("img").click(function() { var imgwindow = window.open('imgwin.html','','width=460,height=345'); alert(imgwindow.find("img").attr("src")); }); The goal is to set the new window's img to the same src as the image that the user clicked to open the new window. But in the above scenario, I'm just trying to tap into the new window to get what it's already-set src. I have imgwin.html already written with a default src for the image, so it should alert that url. Instead I just get undefined. I also tried the following (which should be identical on the back end), but with the same results: $("img").click(function() { var imgwindow = window.open('imgwin.html','','width=460,height=345'); alert($("img",imgwindow).attr("src")); }); I even tried variations of wrapping the imgwindow variable in $() in case somehow jquery wasn't picking up on the variable as a DOM element. The only thing I can guess is that since window.open() is a method, jquery doesn't treat it like a DOM element, even though all documentation from basic javascript tutorials treat the variable as both a method to open the window and the pointer to the window's inner DOM.

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  • Selenium - Could not start Selenium session: Failed to start new browser session: Error while launching browser

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am new to Selenium. I generated my first java selenium test case and it has compiled successfully. But when I run that test I got the following RuntimeException java.lang.RuntimeException: Could not start Selenium session: Failed to start new browser session: Error while launching browser at com.thoughtworks.selenium.DefaultSelenium.start <DefaultSelenium.java:88> Kindly tell me how can I fix this error. This is the java file I want to run. import com.thoughtworks.selenium.*; import java.util.regex.Pattern; import junit.framework.*; public class orkut extends SeleneseTestCase { public void setUp() throws Exception { setUp("https://www.google.com/", "*chrome"); } public void testOrkut() throws Exception { selenium.setTimeout("10000"); selenium.open("/accounts/ServiceLogin?service=orkut&hl=en-US&rm=false&continue=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.orkut.com%2FRedirLogin%3Fmsg%3D0&cd=IN&skipvpage=true&sendvemail=false"); selenium.type("Email", "username"); selenium.type("Passwd", "password"); selenium.click("signIn"); selenium.selectFrame("orkutFrame"); selenium.click("link=Communities"); selenium.waitForPageToLoad("10000"); } public static Test suite() { return new TestSuite(orkut.class); } public void tearDown(){ selenium.stop(); } public static void main(String args[]) { junit.textui.TestRunner.run(suite()); } } I first started the selenium server through the command prompt and then execute the above java file through another command prompt. Second Question: Can I do right click on a specified place on a webpage with selenium.

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  • JQTOUCH, Binding to links pulled in via AJAX, to make another AJAX call? Possible?

    - by nobosh
    Hello. I'm using JQTOUCH using the AJAX example provided in the demo: $('#customers').bind('pageAnimationEnd', function(e, info){ if (!$(this).data('loaded')) { // Make sure the data hasn't already been loaded (we'll set 'loaded' to true a couple lines further down) $('.loadingscreen').css({'display':'block'}); $(this).append($('<div> </div>'). // Append a placeholder in case the remote HTML takes its sweet time making it back load('/mobile/ajax/customers/ .info', function() { // Overwrite the "Loading" placeholder text with the remote HTML $(this).parent().data('loaded', true); // Set the 'loaded' var to true so we know not to re-load the HTML next time the #callback div animation ends $('.loadingscreen').css({'display':'none'}); })); } }); This then returns a nice UL which outputs just fine.. <ul class="edgetoedge"> <li class="viewaction" id="715"> <span class="Title"><a href="/c-view/715/">Lorem Ipsum is simply dummy text of the...</a></span> <div class="meta"> <span class="dateAdded"> 1d ago </span> </div> </li> </ul> This is where I get stuck. How can I then make it so when you click on the link above, it loads the URL wrapped near the class="Title" ? I'd like it to load JQTouch like the first code example. I tried the following two things without success: $('.viewaction').bind('click', function() { alert('wow'); }); $('.viewaction').live('pageAnimationEnd', function(e, info){ }); Thank you!

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  • How to right-justify icon in a JLabel?

    - by geoffreyzheng
    For a JLabel with icon, if you setHorizontalTextPosition(SwingConstants.LEADING), the icon is painted right after text, no matter how wide the label is. This is particularly bad for a list, as the icons would be all over the place depending on how long the text is for each item. I traced the code and it seems to be that in SwingUtilities#layoutCompoundLabelImpl, text width is simply set to SwingUtilities2.stringWidth(c, fm, text), and icon x is set to follow text without considering label width. Here is the simplest case: import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; public class TestJLabelIcon { public static void main(String args[]) { EventQueue.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { JLabel c = new JLabel("abc"); c.setHorizontalTextPosition(SwingConstants.LEADING); c.setHorizontalAlignment(SwingConstants.LEADING); c.setIcon(UIManager.getIcon("FileChooser.detailsViewIcon")); c.setBorder(BorderFactory.createLineBorder(Color.RED)); JFrame frame = new JFrame(); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation( JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE ); frame.getContentPane().add(c); frame.pack(); frame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); frame.setVisible(true); } }); } } You can see that label always fills the frame but icon stays put. You'll get the mirror problem if you set both arguments to TRAILING. I know I can override the UI, or use a JPanel, etc. I just wonder if I'm missing something simple in JLabel. If not, it seems like a Java bug. FYI this is jdk1.6.0_06 on Windows XP.

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  • Win32: What is the status of chunked encoding support in WinHttpReadData?

    - by Cheeso
    The documentation for WinHttpReadData says, regarding HTTP's chunked transfer coding: Starting in Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008, WinHttp enables applications to perform chunked transfer encoding on data sent to the server. When the Transfer-Encoding header is present on the WinHttp response, WinHttpReadData strips the chunking information before giving the data to the application. Can anyone decipher this? Q1 First, this text is on the page for WinHttpReadData, which is used to ... read data within an HTTP client application, specifically the response data. So what does it mean when it says Starting in Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008, WinHttp enables applications to perform chunked transfer encoding on data sent to the server. The WinHttpReadData function isn't used with data being sent to the server. It is used when reading data from the server. Consulting the doc for the WinHttpWriteData function, which is used to send data to the server as part of an HTTP request, there is no mention of the chunked transfer capability. Q2 Supposing that I figure out just what the newish chunked transfer support amounts to, how do I get that support? It says that it is new on Vista and WS2008. What happens if I write an app that runs on WS2003, and uses WinHttpReadData and it encounters a chunked response, or WinHttpWriteData, and it wants to send a chunked request? Between the lines, is this documentation saying that I need to link against the Vista-era Windows SDK, or later, in order to get the capability to do chunked encoding? Or is it really impossible on WS2003?, in other words it is the case that the app doing chunked transfer using this library must run on the OS specified? This might read like a rant, but it's not. I truly want to know.

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  • How can I access the group of a linq group-by query from a nested repeater control?

    - by Duke
    I'm using a linq group by query (with two grouping parameters) and would like to use the resulting data in a nested repeater. var dateGroups = from row in data.AsEnumerable() group row by new { StartDate = row["StartDate"], EndDate = row["EndDate"] }; "data" is a DataTable from an SqlDataAdapter-filled DataSet. "dateGroups" is used in the parent repeater, and I can access the group keys using Eval("key.StartDate") and Eval("key.EndDate"). Since dateGroups actually contains all the data rows grouped neatly by Start/End date, I'd like to access those rows to display the data in a child repeater. To what would I set the child repeater's DataSource? I have tried every expression in markup I could think of; I think the problem is that I'm trying to access an anonymous member (and I don't know how.) In case it doesn't turn out to be obvious, what would be the expression to access the elements in each iteration of the child repeater? Is there an expression that would let me set the DataSource in the markup, or will it have to be in the codebehind on some event in the parent repeater?

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  • Mapping interface or abstract class component

    - by Yann Trevin
    Please consider the following simple use case: public class Foo { public virtual int Id { get; protected set; } public virtual IBar Bar { get; set; } } public interface IBar { string Text { get; set; } } public class Bar : IBar { public virtual string Text { get; set; } } And the fluent-nhibernate map class: public class FooMap : ClassMap<Foo> { public FooMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Component(x => x.Bar, m => { m.Map(x => x.Text); }); } } While running any query with configuration, I get the following exception: NHibernate.InstantiationException: "Cannot instantiate abstract class or interface: NHMappingTest.IBar" It seems that NHibernate tries to instantiate an IBar object instead of the Bar concrete class. How to let Fluent-NHibernate know which concrete class to instantiate when the property returns an interface or an abstract base class? EDIT: Explicitly specify the type of component by writing Component<Bar> (as suggested by Sly) has no effect and causes the same exception to occur. EDIT2: Thanks to vedklyv and Paul Batum: such a mapping should be soon is now possible.

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  • Unit Testing.... a data provider ?

    - by TomTom
    Given problem: I like unit tests. I develop connectivity software to external systems that pretty much and often use a C++ library The return of this systems is nonndeterministic. Data is received while running, but making sure it is all correctly interpreted is hard. How can I test this properly? I can run a unit test that does a connect. Sadly, it will then process a life data stream. I can say I run the test for 30 or 60 seconds before disconnecting, but getting code ccoverage is impossible - I simply dont even comeclose to get all code paths EVERY ONCE PER DAY (error code paths are rarely run). I also can not really assert every result. Depending on the time of the day we talk of 20.000 data callbacks per second - all of which are not relly determined good enough to validate each of them for consistency. Mocking? Well, that would leave me testing an empty shell of myself because the code handling the events basically is the to be tested case, and in many cases we talk here of a COMPLEX c level structure - hard to have mocking frameworks that integrate from Csharp to C++ Anyone any idea? I am short on giving up using unit tests for this part of the application.

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  • Is NUnit broken with Windows7 for C++/CLI?

    - by Andy Dent
    NUnit is failing in C++/CLI with a System.IO.FileNotFoundException. I have tried my own freshly-created project, the C++/CLI sample included with NUnit and the one from CodeProject How to use NUnit to test native C++ code using Visual Studio 2008sp1 with NUnit 2.5.5 as well as 2.4.8. I installed 2.4.8 just on C:\ in case there was something weird about paths with spaces such as Program Files (x86). I have no problems with a C# sample using NUnit. in NUnit GUI, all of these C++/CLI projects encounter the same problem, on attempting to open the projects. I'd really like to use NUnit but for now have had to go back to standard Microsoft tests System.IO.FileNotFoundException... Server stack trace: at System.Reflection.Assembly._nLoad(AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean throwOnFileNotFound, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad(AssemblyName assemblyRef, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad(String assemblyString, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.Load(String assemblyString) at NUnit.Core.Builders.TestAssemblyBuilder.Load(String path) at NUnit.Core.Builders.TestAssemblyBuilder.Build(String assemblyName, Boolean autoSuites) at NUnit.Core.Builders.TestAssemblyBuilder.Build(String assemblyName, String testName, Boolean autoSuites) at NUnit.Core.TestSuiteBuilder.BuildSingleAssembly(TestPackage package) at NUnit.Core.TestSuiteBuilder.Build(TestPackage package) at NUnit.Core.SimpleTestRunner.Load(TestPackage package) at NUnit.Core.ProxyTestRunner.Load(TestPackage package) at NUnit.Core.ProxyTestRunner.Load(TestPackage package) at NUnit.Core.RemoteTestRunner.Load(TestPackage package) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Messaging.StackBuilderSink._PrivateProcessMessage(IntPtr md, Object[] args, Object server, Int32 methodPtr, Boolean fExecuteInContext, Object[]& outArgs) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Messaging.StackBuilderSink.SyncProcessMessage(IMessage msg, Int32 methodPtr, Boolean fExecuteInContext) Exception rethrown at [0]: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at NUnit.Core.TestRunner.Load(TestPackage package) at NUnit.Util.TestDomain.Load(TestPackage package) at NUnit.Util.TestLoader.LoadTest(String testName)

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  • Links on SharePoint 2010 Master Page not changed based on Alternate Access Mappings

    - by victor_c
    We are creating a custom branded Master Page in SharePoint 2010. To make the page similar to a legacy page we have implemented an html based custom dropdown navigation menu we had in place directly on the Master Page (consisted of basic HTML elements ULs and LIs with A tags styled with a CSS class). I assumed the links from the basic HTML on the page would be subject to Alternate Access Mappings currently in place, but it seems to not be the case. On a test page opened in 3 different URLs (http://sharepoint2010, http://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com, https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com) the links from a WIKI page are modified as I expected, but the links from the Custom Navigation Menu (plain HTML on the Master Page) are not modified. I can see where that would be useful... But is there a way that I can add links on the MasterPage in a way that SharePoint parses them first, making them subject to Alternate Access Mapping translation? I tried placing a link inside a SPLinkButton control, but it didn't achieve the desired behavior. e.g. <ul id="navmenu"> <li><SharePoint:SPLinkButton runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://sharepoint2010">sharepoint link</SharePoint:SPLinkButton></li> <li><a href="http://sharepoint2010">sharepoint2010</a></li> <li>test</li> </ul> When I access the page via https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com the links above are still http://sharepoint2010 rather than https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com Any thoughts? Thanks, Victor

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  • Bash scripting problem

    - by komidore64
    I'm writing a bash script to sync my iTunes music directory to a directory on a removable hard drive. The script works fine when there is absolutely nothing in the folder on the external hard drive. Once all files have been copied to the external drive, then the script begins to act strange. Even though i just sync'd everything over, it proceeds to recopy certain files again. After the initial sync, it chooses the same files to resync each consecutive time the script is executed without any changes being made to the source directory. #!/bin/bash # shell script to sync music with gigabeat and/or firewire drive musicdir="/Users/komidore64/Music/iTunes/iTunes Media/Music" gigadir="/Volumes/GIGABEAT/music" # fwdir="/Volumes/" remove() { find "$1" \ ! \( -name "*.wav" \ -o -name "*.ogg" \ -o -name "*.flac" \ -o -name "*.aac" \ -o -name "*.mp3" \ -o -name "*.m4a" \ -o -name "*.wma" \ -o -name "*.m4p" \ -o -name "*.ape" \ -o -type d \) \ -exec rm -i {} \; } if [ $# == 0 ]; then echo "no device argument present" echo "specify '-g' for gigabeat" echo "or '-f' for firewire drive" else remove "$musicdir" while [ $1 ]; do case $1 in -g | --gigabeat ) rsync --archive --verbose --delete "$musicdir/" "$gigadir" ;; -f | --firewire ) rsync --archive --verbose --delete "$musicdir/" "$fwdir" esac shift done echo "music synced" fi

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  • How to Global onRouteRequest directly to onBadRequest?

    - by virtualeyes
    EDIT Came up with this to sanitize URI date params prior to passing off to Play router val ymdMatcher = "\\d{8}".r // matcher for yyyyMMdd URI param val ymdFormat = org.joda.time.format.DateTimeFormat.forPattern("yyyyMMdd") def ymd2Date(ymd: String) = ymdFormat.parseDateTime(ymd) override def onRouteRequest(r: RequestHeader): Option[Handler] = { import play.api.i18n.Messages ymdMatcher.findFirstIn(r.uri) map{ ymd=> try { ymd2Date( ymd); super.onRouteRequest(r) } catch { case e:Exception => // kick to "bad" action handler on invalid date Some(controllers.Application.bad(Messages("bad.date.format"))) } } getOrElse(super.onRouteRequest(r)) } ORIGINAL Let's say I want to return a BadRequest result type for all /foo URIs: override def onBadRequest(r: RequestHeader, error: String) = { BadRequest("Bad Request: " + error) } override def onRouteRequest(r: RequestHeader): Option[Handler] = { if(r.uri.startsWith("/foo") onBadRequest("go away") else super.onRouteRequest(r) } Of course does not work, since the expected return type is Option[play.api.mvc.Handler] What's the idiomatic way to deal with this, create a default Application controller method to handle filtered bad requests? Ideally, since I know in onRouteRequest that /foo is in fact a BadRequest, I'd like to call onBadRequest directly. Should note that this is a contrived example, am actually verifying a URI yyyyMMdd date param, and BadRequest-ing if it does not parse to a JodaTime instance -- basically a catch-all filter to sanitize a given date param rather than handling on every single controller method call, not to mention, avoiding cluttering up application log with useless stack traces re: invalid date parse conversions (have several MBs of these junk trace entries accruing daily due to users pointlessly manipulating the uri date in attempts to get at paid subscriber content)

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