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  • jqtransform form selector (onchange) problem !!!!

    - by Newbie
    I'm styling a form with Jqtransform script. The form includes a selector which enlist some cities, when i click a one, it should update the selector below it with some locations within that city. here is the code of the selector <select name="city" id="city" class="wide" onchange="populateDestrict(this)"> It was working fine with default style , but after applying JQ, it lost it's functionality I asked a question before here LINK and i did as Dormilich did by writing: $(function() { $("form.jqtransform").jqTransform(); $("#city").change(populateDestrict(this)); }); But it didn't work ! here is also the code of the function if it helps <script language="javascript"> function populateDestrict(obj){ var city=obj.value; if(city!=""){ $.post('city_state.php',{ city: city},function(xml){ $("#state").removeOption(/./); $("district",xml).each(function() { $("#state").addOption($("key",this).text(), $("value",this).text()); }); }); } } </script> Any help people ???????? Thanks

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  • Re-Convert timestamp DATE back to original format (when editing) PHP MySQL

    - by Jess
    Ok so I have managed to get the format of the date presented in HTML (upon display) to how I want (dd/mm/yyy)...However, the user also can change the date via a form. So this is how it's setup as present. Firstly, the conversion from YYYY-MM-DD to DD/MM/YYYY and then display in HTML: $timestamp = strtotime($duedate); echo date('d/m/Y', $timestamp); Now when the user selects to update the due date, the value already stored value is drawn up and presented in my text field (using exactly the same code as above).. All good so far. But when my user runs the update script (clicks submit), the new due date is not being stored, and in my DB its seen as '0000-00-00'. I know I need to convert it back to the correct format that MySQL wants to have it in, in order for it to be saved, but I'm not sure on how to do this. This is what I have so far in my update script (for the due date): $duedate = $_POST['duedate']; $timestamp = strtotime($duedate); date('Y/m/d', $timestamp); $query = "UPDATE films SET filmname= '".$filmname."', duedate= '".$duedate; Can somebody please point me in the right direction to have the new date, when processed, converted back to the accepted format by MySQL. I appreciate any help given! Thanks.

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  • Direct invocation vs indirect invocation in C

    - by Mohit Deshpande
    I am new to C and I was reading about how pointers "point" to the address of another variable. So I have tried indirect invocation and direct invocation and received the same results (as any C/C++ developer could have predicted). This is what I did: int cost; int *cost_ptr; int main() { cost_ptr = &cost; //assign pointer to cost cost = 100; //intialize cost with a value printf("\nDirect Access: %d", cost); cost = 0; //reset the value *cost_ptr = 100; printf("\nIndirect Access: %d", *cost_ptr); //some code here return 0; //1 } So I am wondering if indirect invocation with pointers has any advantages over direct invocation or vice-versa. Some advantages/disadvantages could include speed, amount of memory consumed performing the operation (most likely the same but I just wanted to put that out there), safeness (like dangling pointers) , good programming practice, etc. 1Funny thing, I am using the GNU C Compiler (gcc) and it still compiles without the return statement and everything is as expected. Maybe because the C++ compiler will automatically insert the return statement if you forget.

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  • DBD::SQLite::st execute failed: datatype mismatch

    - by Barton Chittenden
    Here's a snippit of perl code: sub insert_timesheet { my $dbh = shift; my $entryref = shift; my $insertme = join(',', @_); my $values_template = '?, ' x scalar(@_); chop $values_template; chop $values_template; #remove trailing comma my $insert = "INSERT INTO timesheet( $insertme ) VALUES ( $values_template );"; my $sth = $dbh->prepare($insert); debug("$insert"); my @values; foreach my $entry (@_){ push @values, $$entryref{$entry} } debug("@values"); my $rv = $sth->execute( @values ) or die $dbh->errstr; debug("sql return value: $rv"); $dbh->disconnect; } The value of $insert: [INSERT INTO timesheet( idx,Start_Time,End_Time,Project,Ticket_Number,Site,Duration,Notes ) VALUES ( ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ? );] Here are @values: [null '1270950742' '1270951642' 'asdf' 'asdf' 'adsf' 15 ''] Here's the schema of 'timesheet' timesheet( idx INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, Start_Time VARCHAR, End_Time VARCHAR, Duration INTEGER, Project VARCHAR, Ticket_Number VARCHAR, Site VARCHAR, Notes VARCHAR) Here's how things line up: ---- Insert Statement Schema @values ---- idx idx INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT null: # this is not a mismatch, passing null will allow auto-increment. Start_Time Start_Time VARCHAR '1270950742' End_Time End_Time VARCHAR '1270951642' Project Project VARCHAR 'asdf' Ticket_Number Ticket_Number VARCHAR 'asdf' Site Site VARCHAR 'adsf' Duration Duration INTEGER 15 Notes Notes VARCHAR '' ... I can't see the data-type mis-match.

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  • Core Data - Entity Relationships Not Working as expected

    - by slimms
    I have set up my data model in xcode like so EntityA AttA1 AttA2 EntityB AttB1 AttB2 AttB3 I then set up the relationships EntityA Name: rlpToEntityB Destination: EntityB Inverse: rlpToEntityA To Many: Checked EntityB Name: rlpToEntityA Destination: EntityA Inverse: rlpToEntityB To Many: UnChecked i.e. relationship between the two where Each one of EntityA can have many EntityB's It is my understanding that if i fetch a subset of EntityB's I can then retrieve the values for the related EntityA's. I have this working so that i can retrieve the EntityB values using NSManagedObject *objMO = [fetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; strValueFromEntityB = [objMO valueForKey:@"AttB1"]; However, if I try to retrieve a related value from EntityA by doing the following strValueFromEntityA = [objMO valueForKey:@"AttA1"]; I get the error "The entity EntityB is not Key value coding-compliant for the key Atta1" Not surprisingly i suppose if i switch things around to fetch from EntityA i cannot access attributes of EntityB So it appears the defined relationshipare being ignored. Can anyone spot what i am doing wrong? I confess im very new to iPhone programming and especially to Core Data so please go easy on me and provide verbose explanations or point me in the direction a specific resource. I have downloaded the apple sample apps (Core Data Books, Top Songs and recipes) but I still can't work this out. Thanks in advance, Nev.

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  • Logging exceptions during bean injection

    - by Marc W
    I think this is a pretty basic question, but after Googling around I can't seem to find the answer. What I need is a way to log some custom output with log4j during Spring bean construction. I have a factory class called ResponderFactory (being used as an instance factory in Spring) with a factory method that can throw 2 different types of exception. public CollectorResponder collectorResponder(String inputQueueName) throws ConfigurationException, BrokerConnectionException {} Now, normally I could wrap a call to this method in a try-catch block with 2 catch clauses to handle the logging situations for each of the exceptions. However, if I'm using Spring to inject this CollectorResponder, created with the factory, into another class I don't see how this is possible. <bean id="responderFactory" class="com.package.ResponderFactory"> <constructor-arg index="0" ref="basicDispatcher" /> <constructor-arg index="1" value="http://localhost:9000" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorResponder" class="com.package.CollectorResponder" factory-bean="responderFactory" factory-method="collectorResponder"> <constructor-arg value="collector.in" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorConsumer" class="com.package.CollectorConsumer"> <constructor-arg ref="collectorResponder" /> </bean> Again, I want to catch these exceptions when the collectorResponder bean is instantiated. Right now I'm dealing with this is CollectorConsumer when I instantiate using new CollectorResponder(...). Is there any way I can do this?

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  • Best approach to storing image pixels in bottom-up order in Java

    - by finnw
    I have an array of bytes representing an image in Windows BMP format and I would like my library to present it to the Java application as a BufferedImage, without copying the pixel data. The main problem is that all implementations of Raster in the JDK store image pixels in top-down, left-to-right order whereas BMP pixel data is stored bottom-up, left-to-right. If this is not compensated for, the resulting image will be flipped vertically. The most obvious "solution" is to set the SampleModel's scanlineStride property to a negative value and change the band offsets (or the DataBuffer's array offset) to point to the top-left pixel, i.e. the first pixel of the last line in the array. Unfortunately this does not work because all of the SampleModel constructors throw an exception if given a negative scanlineStride argument. I am currently working around it by forcing the scanlineStride field to a negative value using reflection, but I would like to do it in a cleaner and more portable way if possible. e.g. is there another way to fool the Raster or SampleModel into arranging the pixels in bottom-up order but without breaking encapsulation? Or is there a library somewhere that will wrap the Raster and SampleModel, presenting the pixel rows in reverse order? I would prefer to avoid the following approaches: Copying the whole image (for performance reasons. The code must process hundreds of large (= 1Mpixels) images per second and although the whole image must be available to the application, it will normally access only a tiny (but hard-to-predict) portion of the image.) Modifying the DataBuffer to perform coordinate transformation (this actually works but is another "dirty" solution because the buffer should not need to know about the scanline/pixel layout.) Re-implementing the Raster and/or SampleModel interfaces from scratch (but I have a hunch that I will be unable to avoid this.)

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  • C# WPF DataBind boolean

    - by jtdangelo
    I have been using this website to learn a lot about C# for a while, but this is my first time posting a question. I look forward to hearing back from some of the seasoned C# veterans! I have been working on a C# 4.0 WPF project and need to figure out how to databind a boolean value. I have a reference to my Application.Current object in a window. My "App" object contains a boolean field called "Downloaded" that is true if the user has downloaded information from a web service. I need to databind a textbox's IsEnabled field to this Downloaded value. Any tips? Here is what I have come up with so far. (Any useful links to better learn WPF XAML are greatly appreciated!) C# Code: class MainWindow : Window { ... private App MyApp = App.Current as App; ... } XAML: <TextBox ... IsEnabled="{Binding Source=MyApp, Path=Downloaded}" /> James

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  • SQL INSTR() using CSV. Need exact match rather than part

    - by Alastair Pitts
    This is a follow up issue relating to the answer for http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2445029/sql-placeholder-in-where-in-issue-inserted-strings-fail Quick background: We have a SQL query that uses a placeholder value to accept a string, which represents a unique tag/id. Usually, this is only a single tag, but we needed the ability to use a csv string for multiple tags, returning a combined result. In the answer we received from the vendor, they suggested the use of the INSTR function, ala: select * from pitotal where tag IN (SELECT tag from pipoint WHERE INSTR(?, tag) <> 0) and time between 'y' and 't' This works perfectly well 99% of the time, the issue is when the tag is also a subset of 2 parts of the CSV string. Eg the placeholder value is: 'northdom,southdom,eastdom,westdom' and possible tags include: north or northdom What happens, as north is a subset of northdom, is that the two tags are return instead of just northdom, which is actually what we want. I'm not strong on SQL so I couldn't work out how to set it as exact, or split the csv string, so help would be appreciated. Is there a way to split the csv string or make it look for an exact match?

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  • Font not showing bullet points

    - by Hanpan
    I have embedded my font using the embed meta tag, along which the entire range of Unicode characters... here is my CustomTextField class: [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial.ttf',fontName='CustomFont',fontWeight='regular', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Bold.ttf',fontName='CustomFont',fontWeight='bold', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_BOLD:Class; public static const DEFAULT_FONT:String = "CustomFont"; public static const DEFAULT_TEXT_COLOUR:int = 0x000000; public static const DEFAULT_TEXT_SIZE:int = 14; private var _tf:TextFormat = new TextFormat(DEFAULT_FONT, DEFAULT_TEXT_SIZE, DEFAULT_TEXT_COLOUR); public function CustomTextField():void { Font.registerFont(CustomTextField.MY_FONT); Font.registerFont(CustomTextField.MY_FONT_BOLD); _tf.size = 16; antiAliasType = AntiAliasType.ADVANCED; sharpness = 0; defaultTextFormat = _tf; autoSize = TextFieldAutoSize.LEFT; embedFonts = true; } public override function set htmlText(value:String):void { super.htmlText = value; setTextFormat(_tf); } For some reason, using tags intends the text perfectly, but I am not seeing any bullet points. The font is just standard Arial, so it isn't a case of the font missing the bullet character. Does anyone have any idea as to why Flex is not showing the bullet point characters?

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  • Javascript working in chrome but not in explorer

    - by Greg
    Hello, I am writing this code in html: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function setVisibility(id, visibility) { document.getElementById(id).style.display = visibility; } </script> <title>Welcome to the memory game</title> </head> <body> <h1>Welcome to the memory game!</h1> <input type="button" name="type" value='Show Layer' onclick="setVisibility('sub3', 'inline');"/> <input type="button" name="type" value='Hide Layer' onclick="setVisibility('sub3', 'none');"/> <div id="sub3">Message Box</div> </body> </html> It suppose to make the "div" disappear and reapper, but it works in chrome and not in explorer. Anyone has any idea how can I make it work in explorer (I tried allowing blocked content when that message about activeX appears in explorer)? Thanks, Greg

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  • Empty data problem - data layer or DAL?

    - by luckyluke
    I designing the new App now and giving the following question a lot of thought. I consume a lot of data from the warehouse, and the entities have a lot of dictionary based values (currency, country, tax-whatever data) - dimensions. I cannot be assured though that there won't be nulls. So I am thinking: create an empty value in each of teh dictionaries with special keyID - ie. -1 do the ETL (ssis) do the correct stuff and insert -1 where it needs to let the DAL know that -1 is special (Static const whatever thing) don't care in the code to check for nullness of dictionary entries because THEY will always have a value But maybe I should be thinking: import data AS IS let the DAL do the thinking using empty record Pattern still don't care in the code because business layer will have what it needs from DAL. I think is more of a approach thing but maybe i am missing something important here... What do You think? Am i clear? Please don't confuse it with empty record problem. I do use emptyCustomer think all the time and other defaults too.

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  • jEditable - how do I get the edited textfield variable?

    - by Forkrul Assail
    I have a table that I use jEditable with. Saving to the server works, but the callback for refreshing my table element (that I just edited and saved to the server) does not work. /* Apply the jEditable handlers to the table */ $('#example tbody td').editable( '<%= url_for :controller => 'impact_matrix', :action => 'post', :scenario => params[:id] %>', { "callback": function( sValue, y ) { ^ goes missing var aPos = oTable.fnGetPosition( this ); oTable.fnUpdate( sValue, aPos[0], aPos[1] ); }, "submitdata": function ( value, settings ) { temp = value return { "row_id": this.parentNode.getAttribute('id') }; }, sValue (that I point to in the code) - seems to be blank. I do get values for aPos[0] and aPos[1], but not sValue. Could someone please explain to me 'what triggers the callback function?' Or, if I could just see where to get the 'newly edited text' and then just run fnUpdate() on that, I'd be fine. Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Properly changing Ajax MultiHandle Slider parameters on postbacks

    - by Matthew PK
    Hi all, In VS2010 I have VB.NET codebehind aspx pages and I'm using Ajax multihandleslider extensions to filter search results on numerical values. Fistly, the multihandle sliders don't display in the designer... I have to remove the slider targets tag: In order to make it display in the designer... this isn't so much a big issue but an annoyance. I am displaying items in a given category. So I get the max and min prices for all items in that category and assign the sliderextension max/min values appropriately. This works fine until... I change the item category and go get a new max/min value for the slider control. I set the max/min values, then I set the target textbox values each to the corresponding max/min values. The slider handles don't repaint (or init?) properly Like say for example my initial min/max is 1/100 if I do a full postback and change the max value to 1000 then the slider bar (correctly) stays the same size but the handle appears WAYYYY to the right off the page and I have to scroll to it. When I click it, it shoots back onto the slider bar. I'm pulling my hair out... why do the slider handles only appear properly when I first set the min/max values?

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  • NetBeans Tips and Tricks

    - by cdmckay
    I just saw an Eclipse tips & tricks post and was wondering if anyone had any tips & tricks for my IDE of choice: NetBeans. Here's a few I know and find to be useful: Removing a package: After you remove a package in NetBeans, it sticks around as a grayed-out package in your Project view. To get rid of that, switch to Files view and delete the directory. Alt-Insert (in Windows) opens up a Generate submenu at your cursor. A nice shortcut for quickly generating getters/setters (among other things). Selecting a chunk of code, right-clicking and then clicking "Refactor Introduce Method" will have NetBeans introduce a method, complete with arguments and return value. Of course you have to make sure the chunk of code only has one return value. Sometimes when you run a build and it crashes, the Java window sticks around at the bottom. I used to just click X until Windows let me End Task, but there's a nicer way to get rid of them. Click "Run Stop Build/Run" and NetBeans will close the window for you. It'll even let you close multiple applications at once. These may seem obvious to grizzled NetBeans developers, but I thought they might be useful for NetBeans newbs like me. Anyone else have any tips/tricks to share? Here are some from the comments: NetBeans allows for code templates. You can even add yours on the Code Templates tab under the Editor settings on the Options window. Some examples: Type sout and hit the tab key as a shorcut for System.out.println("") Type psvm and hit the tab key as a shorcut for public static void main(String args[]) {} Ctrl Shift C: Comments out the selected block of code. Alt Shift F: Formats the selected block of code. Ctrl E: Deletes current line. Ctrl Shift I: Fixes your imports, handy if you've just written a piece of code that needs a lot of packages imported.

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  • nHibernate Self Join Mapping

    - by kmoo01
    Hi Guys, This is probably incredibly simple, but I just cant see the wood for the trees at the moment. For brevity, I would like to model a word object, that has related words to it (synonyms), In doing so I could have the following mappings: <class name="Word" table="bs_word"> <id name="Id" column="WordId" type="Int32" unsaved-value="-1"> <generator class="native"> <param name="sequence"></param> </generator> </id> <property name="Key" column="word" type="String" length="50" /> <many-to-one name="SynonymGroup" class="BS.Core.Domain.Synonym, BS.Core" column="SynonymId" lazy="false"/> <class name="Synonym" table="bs_Synonym"> <id name="Id" column="SynonymId" type="Int32" unsaved-value="-1"> <generator class="native"> <param name="sequence"></param> </generator> </id> <property name="Alias" column="Alias" type="String" length="50" /> <bag name="Words" cascade="none" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="SynonymId" /> <one-to-many class="Word" /> </bag> Mapping it like this would mean for a given word, I can access related words (synonyms) like this: word.SynonymGroup.Words However I would like to know if it is possible to map a bag of objects on an instance of a word object...if that makes sense, so I can access the related words like this: word.Words I've tried playing around with the map element, and composite elements, all to no avail - so I was wondering if some kind person could point me in the right direction? ta, kmoo01

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  • WPF - Setting ComboBox.SelectedItem in XAML based on matching object

    - by Andy T
    Hi, so, I have templated combobox that is basically acting as a simple colour palette. It is populated with a list of SolidColorBrush objects. Fine. Now, I have some data that holds the hex value of the current colour. I have a converter that converts the hex into a SolidColorBrush. Also fine. Now, I want to set the SelectedItem property of the combobox based on the colour from my datasource. Since my combo is populated with objects of type SolidColourBrush, and my binding converter is returning a SolidColorBrush, I assumed it would be as simple as saying: SelectedItem="{Binding Color, Converter={StaticResource StringToBrush}}" However... it doesn't work :( I've tested that the binding is working behind the scenes by using the exact same value for the Background property of the combobox. It works fine. So, clearly I can't just say SelectedItem = [something] where that [something] is basically an object equal to the item I want to be selected. What is the right way to do this? Surely it's possible in a XAML-only styley using binding, and I don't have to do some nasty C# iterating through all items in the combobox trying to find a match (that seems awfully old-school)...? Any help appreciated. Many thanks! AT

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  • Auto-converting numbers to comma-fied versions

    - by Jeff Atwood
    Given the following text /feeds/tag/remote-desktop 1320 17007 22449240 /feeds/tag/terminal-server 1328 15805 20989040 /foo/23211/test 1490 11341 16898090 Let's say we want to convert those numbers to their comma-fied forms, like so /feeds/tag/remote-desktop 1,320 17,007 22,449,240 /feeds/tag/terminal-server 1,328 15,805 20,989,040 /foo/23211/test 1,490 11,341 16,898,090 (don't worry about fixing the fixed-width ASCII spacing, that's a problem for another day) This is the best regex I could come up with; it's based on this JavaScript regex solution from Regex Ninja Steven Levithan: return Regex.Replace(s, @"\b(?<!\/)\d{4,}\b(?<!\/)", delegate(Match match) { string output = ""; string m = match.Value; int len = match.Length; for (int i = len - 1; i >= 0 ; i--) { output = m[i] + output; if ((len - i) % 3 == 0) output = "," + output; } if (output.StartsWith(",")) output = output.Substring(1, output.Length-1); return output; }); In a related question, there is a very clever number comma insertion regex proposed: text = Regex.Replace(text, @"(?<=\d)(?=(\d{3})+$)", ",") However this requires an end anchor $ which, as you can see, I don't have in the above text -- the numbers are "floating" in the rest of the text. I suspect there is a cleaner way to do this than my solution? After writing this, I just realized I could combine them, and put one Regex inside the other, like so: return Regex.Replace(s, @"\b(?<!\/)\d{4,}\b(?<!\/)", delegate(Match match) { return Regex.Replace(match.Value, @"(?<=\d)(?=(\d{3})+$)", ","); });

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  • Using of Templated Helpers in MVC 2.0 : How can use the name of the property that I'm rendering insi

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi. I'm reviewing new features of ASP.NET MVC 2.0. During the review i found really interesting using Templated Helpers. As they described it, the primary reason of using them is to provide common way of how some datatypes should be rendered. Now i want to use this way in my project for DateTime datatype My project was written for the MVC 1.0 so generating of editbox is looking like this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", Model.BirthDate, new { maxlength = 10, size = 10, @class = "BirthDate-date" })%> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".BirthDate-date").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=Url.Content("~/images/i_calendar.gif") %>', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> Now i want to use Template Helper, so i want to have above code once i type next sentence: <%=Html.EditorFor(f=>f.BirthDate) %> According to the manual I create DataTime.ascx partial view inside Shared/EditorTemplates folder. I put there above code and stacked with the problem. How can i pass the name of the property that I'm rendering with template helper? As you can see from my example, i really need it, since I'm using the name of the property to specify data value and parameter name that will be send during the POST requsest. Also, I'm using it to generate class name for JS calendar building. I tried to remove my partial class for template helper and made MVC to generate its default behavior. Here what it generated for me: <input type="text" value="04/29/2010" name="LoanApplicationDays" id="LoanApplicationDays" class="text-box single-line"> As you can see, it used the name of the property for "name" and "id" attributes. This example let me to presume that Template Helper knows about the name of the property. So, there should be some way of how to use it in custom implementation. Thanks for your help!

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  • IE: Undocumented "cache" attribute defined for input elements?

    - by aefxx
    Hi everybody. I've stumpled upon a strange behavior in IE(6/7/8) that drives me nuts. Given the following markup: <input type="text" value="foo" class="bar" cache="yes" send="no" /> Please note that the cache attribute is set to yes. However IE somehow manages to change the attributes value to cache="cache" when rendering the DOM. So, I wonder, is there an undocumented feature that I'm not aware of? I've googled about an hour now but couldn't find any info on this (not even on MSDN). NOTE I'm aware that adding custom attributes is non-standard compliant and that boolean attributes should be noted as attribute="attribute. Nevertheless I have to cope with these as they were introduced long before I joined the team. These custom attributes are used in conjunction with javascript to provide a more user friendly approach to form handling (and it works out quite well with Firefox/Safari/Opera/Chrome). I know that I could simply convert these custom attributes to x-data attributes that will be introduced with HTML5 but that would take me several hours of extra work - sigh. Hope, I made myself clear. Thanks in advance.

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  • C# .net Deserialization I get an exception.

    - by starz26
    namespace N1 { public class InputEntry { //FieldName is a class tht is generated from an XSD which has complex type Name and value private FieldName[] name; public FieldName[] Name { get { return this.Name; } set { this.Name = value; } } } public class B { public void Method1() { InputEntry inputEntry = new InputEntry(); inputEntry.Name = "abc"; } private void Method2(InputEntry inputEntry) { System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer serializer = new System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer(typeof(InputEntry)); System.IO.StringWriter inputStr = new System.IO.StringWriter(CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); serializer.Serialize(inputStr, inputEntry); string ipEntry = inputStr.ToString(); Method3(ipEntry); } private void Method3(string ipEntry) { System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer serializer = new System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer(typeof(InputEntry)); System.IO.StringReader inputStr = new System.IO.StringReader(ipEntry); InputEntry inputEntry = (InputEntry)serializer.Deserialize(inputStr); } } } I get an exception when deserialising the follwing data(when a client configues data as <FieldName>PRINTLINE00</FieldName> <FieldValue>DENIAL STATE</FieldValue> ) Exception is: Message: There is an error in XML document (6, 22). String: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <InputEntry xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Fields> <Field> <FieldName>PRINTLINE00</FieldName> <FieldValue>&#x1B;DENIAL STATE 217</FieldValue> </Field> </InputEntry>

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  • PHP APC and Pecl upload progress returning false/null.

    - by Keyo
    This is a long shot. I believe this might be suhosin patch issue. Here is my php from codeigniter: public function uploadprogress($id) { if ($id) { header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); header("Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); echo json_encode(apc_fetch('upload_'.$id)); exit(); } } public function uploader() { $this->load->view('myid/' . $this->router->class . '_uploader'); //phpinfo(); } script: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ var progress_key = $('#progress_key').val(); // this sets up the progress bar $('#uploadform').submit(function() { setTimeout(beginUpload,1500); return; }); function beginUpload() { $("#progressbar").progressbar({ value:0}).fadeIn(); var i = setInterval(function() { $.getJSON("/myid/videos/uploadprogress/" + progress_key, function(data) { alert('data'); if (data == null) { clearInterval(i); location.reload(true); return; } var response; eval ("response = " + data); if (!response) return; var percentage = Math.floor(100 * parseInt(response['bytes_uploaded']) / parseInt(response['bytes_total'])); $("#progressbar").progressbar({value:percentage}); }, 1500); }); } }); </script> Has anyone had strange troubles with this before? The upload key is the same on the view and the uploadprogress method. I've Tried apc and pecl upload-progress both return false or null. I wondering if it's just suhosin patch messing up everything?

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  • Python: puzzling behaviour inside httplib

    - by Anna
    I have added one line ( import pdb; pdb.set_trace() ) to httplib's HTTPConnection.putheader, so I can see what's going on inside. httplib.py, line 489: def putheader(self, header, value): """Send a request header line to the server. For example: h.putheader('Accept', 'text/html') """ import pdb; pdb.set_trace() if self.__state != _CS_REQ_STARTED: raise CannotSendHeader() str = '%s: %s' % (header, value) self._output(str) then ran this from the interpreter import urllib2 urllib2.urlopen('http://www.ioerror.us/ip/headers') ... and as expected PDB kicks in: > c:\python26\lib\httplib.py(858)putheader() -> if self.__state != _CS_REQ_STARTED: (Pdb) in PDB I have the luxury of evaluating expressions on the fly, so I have tried to enter self.__state: (Pdb) self.__state *** AttributeError: HTTPConnection instance has no attribute '__state' Alas, there is no __state of this instance. However when I enter step, the debugger gets past the if self.__state != _CS_REQ_STARTED: line without a problem. Why is this happening? If the self.__state doesn't exist python would have to raise an exception as it did when I entered the expression. Python version: 2.6.4 on win32

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  • Maven webapp with Eclipse and WTP plugin deploy files in stranges ways in Tomcat

    - by hokkos
    Hi, I use Eclipse J2EE 3.5 with Maven and tomcat. To deploy my maven webapp with WTP I added a Dynamic Web Module facet and changed the "org.eclipse.wst.common.component" file of the project because the webapp is not in a WebContent directory, here is the content of the file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project-modules id="moduleCoreId" project-version="1.5.0"> <wb-module deploy-name="tkey-ca-web"> <wb-resource deploy-path="/" source-path="/src/main/webapp"/> <wb-resource deploy-path="/WEB-INF/classes" source-path="/src/main/java"/> <wb-resource deploy-path="/WEB-INF/classes" source-path="/src/main/resources"/> <property name="context-root" value="toto"/> <property name="java-output-path" value="/toto/target/classes"/> </wb-module> </project-modules> But it never deploy the content correctly, in "workspace.metadata.plugins\org.eclipse.wst.server.core\tmp1\wtpwebapps\toto\" the directory structure is correct with WEB-INF and META-INF but empty, the jsp, html, css files are in "workspace.metadata.plugins\org.eclipse.wst.server.core\tmp1\wtpwebapps\toto\WEB-INF\classes\" with another WEB-INF and META-INF structure but with the files. I don't understand this at all, thanks.

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  • why cookie.getMaxAge() = -1?

    - by wavelet
    i have a test like this : cookie.jsp: <html> <head> </head> <body> <% String cookieName="SNS"; Cookie cookie=new Cookie(cookieName, "maxAgeTest"); cookie.setMaxAge(60*60); response.addCookie(cookie); %> </body> </html> and read.jsp is : <html> <head> </head> <body> <table border=1> <tr><td>Name</td><td>value</td></tr> <% Cookie cookies[]=request.getCookies(); Cookie sCookie=null; String svalue=null; String sname=null; int sage ; for(int i=0;i<cookies.length;i++) { sCookie=cookies[i]; svalue=sCookie.getValue(); sname=sCookie.getName(); sage=sCookie.getMaxAge(); %> <tr><td><%=sname%></td><td><%=svalue%></td><td><%=sage%></td></tr> <% } %> </table> </body> </html> but the result is : Name value maxAge JSESSIONID DB3561A47B37FCA8CA25EA04B80A26C7 -1 SNS maxAgeTest -1 why the maxAge is -1 ? and t test IE8,Chrome5,Safari ,the result same

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