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  • How to synchronize Silverlight clients with WCF?

    - by user564226
    Hi, this is probably only some conceptual problem, but I cannot seem to find the ideal solution. I'd like to create a Silverlight client application that uses WCF to control a third party application via some self written webservice. If there is more than one Silverlight client, all clients should be synchronized, i.e. parameter changes from one client should be propagated to all clients. I set up a very simple Silverlight GUI that manipulates parameters which are passed to the server (class inherits INotifyPropertyChanged): public double Height { get { return frameworkElement.Height; } set { if (frameworkElement.Height != value) { frameworkElement.Height = value; OnPropertyChanged("Height", value); } } } OnPropertyChanged is responsible for transferring data. The WCF service (duplex net.tcp) maintains a list of all clients and as soon as it receives a data packet (XElement with parameter change description) it forwards this very packet to all clients but the one the packet was received from. The client receives the package, but now I'm not sure, what's the best way to set the property internally. If I use "Height" (see above) a new change message would be generated and sent to all other clients a.s.o. Maybe I could use the data field (frameworkElement.Height) itself or a function - but I'm not sure whether there would arise problems with data binding later on. Also I don't want to simply copy parts of the code properties, to prevent bugs with redundant code. So what would you recommend? Thanks!

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  • JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

    - by Heavy Bytes
    I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

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  • check properties of two objects for changes

    - by k-hoffmann
    Hi, i have to develop a mechanism to check two object properties for changes. All properties which are needed to check are marked with an attribute. Atm i - read all properties from acutal object via linq - read the corresponding property from old object - fill an own object with the two properties (old and new value) In Code the call to the workerclass looks like this public void CreateHistoryMap(BaseEntity actual, BaseEntity old) { CreateHistoryMap(actualEntity, oldEntity) .ForEach(mapEntry => CreateHistoryEntry(mapEntry), mapEntry => IfChangesDetected(mapEntry)); } CreateHistoryMap builds up the HistoryMapEntry which contains the two properties. CreateHistoryEntry build up the object which is saved to database, the IfChangesDetected check the object for changes. I have to handle own special application types to generate history values to database (like concatinating list values and so on). My problem is now, that i have to read the values of the properties twice - for change detection - and for the concreate CreateHistoryEntry How can i eliminate this problem or how can i implement the change tracking scenario with the nice c# 3.5 features? Thanks a lot.

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  • How to disable MSBuild's <RegisterOutput> target on a per-user basis?

    - by Roger Lipscombe
    I like to do my development as a normal (non-Admin) user. Our VS2010 project build fails with "Failed to register output. Please try enabling Per-user Redirection or register the component from a command prompt with elevated permissions." Since I'm not at liberty to change the project file, is there any way that I can add user-specific MSBuild targets or properties that disable this step on a specific machine, or for a specific user? I'd prefer not to hack on the core MSBuild files. I don't want to change the project file because I might then accidentally check it back in. Nor do I want to hack on the MSBuild core files, because they might get overwritten by a service pack. Given that the Visual C++ project files (and associated .targets and .props files) have about a million places to alter the build order and to import arbitrary files, I was hoping for something along those lines. MSBuild imports/evaluates the project file as follows (I've only looked down the branches that interest me): Foo.vcxproj Microsoft.Cpp.Default.props Microsoft.Cpp.props $(UserRootDir)\Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).user.props Microsoft.Cpp.targets Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).targets ImportBefore\* Microsoft.CppCommon.targets The "RegisterOutput" target is defined in Microsoft.CppCommon.targets. I was hoping to replace this by putting a do-nothing "RegisterOutput" target in $(UserRootDir)\Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).user.props, which is %LOCALAPPDATA%\MSBuild\v4.0\Microsoft.Cpp.Win32.user.props (UserRootDir is set in Microsoft.Cpp.Default.props if it's not already set). Unfortunately, MSBuild uses the last-defined target, which means that mine gets overridden by the built-in one. Alternatively, I could attempt to set the %(Link.RegisterOutput) metadata, but I'd have to do that on all Link items. Any idea how to do that, or even if it'll work?

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  • I have created a PHP script and I am lacking to extract the primary key, I have given flow below, pl

    - by Parth
    I am using MySQL DB, working for Joomla, My requirement is tracking the activity like insert/update/delete on any table and store it in another audit table using triggers, i.e. I am doing Auditing. DB's table structure: Few tables dont have any PK nor auto increment key Flow of my script is : I fetch out all table from DB. I check whether the table have any trigger or not. If yes then it moves to check nfor next table and so on. If it does'nt find any trigger then it creates the triggers for the table, such that, -it first checks if the table has any primary key or not(for inserting in Tracking audit table for every change made) if it has the primary key then it uses it further in creation of trigger. if it doesnt find any PK then it proceeds further in creating the trigger without inserting any id in audit table Now here, My problem is I need the PK every time so that I can record the id of any particular table in which the insert/update/delete is performed, so that further i can use this audit track table to replicate in production DB.. Now as I haave mentioned earlier that I am not available with PK/auto-incremented in some table, then what should I do get the particular id in which change is done? please guide me...GEEKS!!!

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  • Lock-Free Data Structures in C++ Compare and Swap Routine

    - by slf
    In this paper: Lock-Free Data Structures (pdf) the following "Compare and Swap" fundamental is shown: template <class T> bool CAS(T* addr, T exp, T val) { if (*addr == exp) { *addr = val; return true; } return false; } And then says The entire procedure is atomic But how is that so? Is it not possible that some other actor could change the value of addr between the if and the assignment? In which case, assuming all code is using this CAS fundamental, it would be found the next time something "expected" it to be a certain way, and it wasn't. However, that doesn't change the fact that it could happen, in which case, is it still atomic? What about the other actor returning true, even when it's changes were overwritten by this actor? If that can't possibly happen, then why? I want to believe the author, so what am I missing here? I am thinking it must be obvious. My apologies in advance if this seems trivial.

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  • If I use Unicode on a ISO-8859-1 site, how will that be interpreted by a browser?

    - by grg-n-sox
    So I got a site that uses ISO-8859-1 encoding and I can't change that. I want to be sure that the content I enter into the web app on the site gets parsed correctly. The parser works on a character by character basis. I also cannot change the parser, I am just writing files for it to handle. The content in my file I am telling the app to display after parsing contains Unicode characters (or at least I assume so, even if they were produced by Windows Alt Codes mapped to CP437). Using entities is not an option due to the character by character operation of the parser. The only characters that the parser escapes upon output are markup sensitive ones like ampersand, less than, and greater than symbols. I would just go ahead and put this through to see what it looks like, but output can only be seen on a publishing, which has to spend a couple days getting approved and such, and that would be asking too much for just a test case. So, long story short, if I told a site to output ?ÇÑ¥?? on a site with a meta tag stating it is supposed to use ISO-8859-1, will a browser auto-detect the Unicode and display it or will it literally translate it as ISO-8859-1 and get a different set of characters?

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  • Is there an x86 or x64 emulator that passes system calls back to the Windows API?

    - by Chris Lomont
    I want to emulate windows programs (not VM, true emulation) under windows. This would require the emulator to make calls back to the system APIs, but the program itself would be emulated. The reason is I want to change the opcode formats for research purposes. The process should be: Take existing program. Disassemble and then reassemble with my new opcode formats. Put the new format into the PE with a stub calling the emulator and passing the new code. The emulator would have to pass system calls from the emulated side back to windows API calls. I can do all these steps, except I need an open source emulator with the ability to pass the API calls out. I could try Bochs or QEMU, but I think I'd have to add in the system calls, which I could do if needed. I wonder if there is already something closer to what I need. I know I would have to change the instruction decoding in the emulator to match my new formats, but that is a given. Thanks.

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  • Building "isolated" and "automatically updated" caches (java.util.List) in Java.

    - by Aidos
    Hi Guys, I am trying to write a framework which contains a lot of short-lived caches created from a long-living cache. These short-lived caches need to be able to return their entier contents, which is a clone from the original long-living cache. Effectively what I am trying to build is a level of transaction isolation for the short-lived caches. The user should be able to modify the contents of the short-lived cache, but changes to the long-living cache should not be propogated through (there is also a case where the changes should be pushed through, depending on the Cache type). I will do my best to try and explain: master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] temporary-cache created with state [A,B,C,D,E,F] 1) temporary-cache adds item G: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 2) temporary-cache removes item B: [A,C,D,E,F] master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 3) master-cache adds items [X,Y,Z]: [A,B,C,D,E,F,X,Y,Z] temporary-cache contains: [A,C,D,E,F] Things get even harder when the values in the items can change and shouldn't always be updated (so I can't even share the underlying object instances, I need to use clones). I have implemented the simple approach of just creating a new instance of the List using the standard Collection constructor on ArrayList, however when you get out to about 200,000 items the system just runs out of memory. I know the value of 200,000 is excessive to iterate, but I am trying to stress my code a bit. I had thought that it might be able to somehow "proxy" the list, so the temporary-cache uses the master-cache, and stores all of it's changes (effectively a Memento for the change), however that quickly becomes a nightmare when you want to iterate the temporary-cache, or retrieve an item at a specific index. Also given that I want some modifications to the contents of the list to come through (depending on the type of the temporary-cache, whether it is "auto-update" or not) and I get completly out of my depth. Any pointers to techniques or data-structures or just general concepts to try and research will be greatly appreciated. Cheers, Aidos

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  • Eclipse sync workspaces/perspectives/preferences across computers

    - by Naren
    I have a project I need to be working on from two different computers, at work and at home. I need to be able to work on the code from both computers, so the issue is two fold; Sharing the code Sharing the workspace. 1 is simple enough with svn; but I feel icky committing broken code to svn just so I can access that again from home. I can live with this but is there a better option? To elaborate more on 2. I have a highly customized eclipse setup on one of the computers where I spent hours adding plugins and tweaking every tiny config options I could access to get it to the point where it is just right. It'll be a pain redoing every single change on the other computer, is there some way to automatically sync that? I know I can export preferences from Eclipse and import them, but I don't want to have to manually do that each time I change something. [Also, I don't think exporting preferences also exports perspectives?] Both computers run windows.

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  • Editting CSS in iframe that sets Select tag's text color to black?

    - by Corey Ogburn
    This is a very specific question for a Google Chrome extension. http://www.meebo.com/mobile/ This page is where you're kicked to when you go to Meebo.com on an iPhone or Droid phone. But if you notice, the Status box where you can set yourself away or what you want your status to be has white text on a white background. In order to get a website to appear in a Google Chrome extension's popup window (the one that drops down when you click the icon next to the address bar) that isn't an included html file in the extension, I need to use an iFrame. I know that there's security measures about Cross-Site stuff like javascript and I'm not surprised I'm having trouble accessing the CSS. But there's a class, status, and it's color is white and I need to change that to black. I've tested it with Chrome's Inspect Element window and if I change that, I'll be fine. I've tried changing the manifest.json file to inject a CSS file using Content-Scripts, but nothing... I'm new to Chrome Extensions but I have experience doing web development.

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  • Manhattan Heuristic function for A-star (A*)

    - by Shawn Mclean
    I found this algorithm here. I have a problem, I cant seem to understand how to set up and pass my heuristic function. static public Path<TNode> AStar<TNode>(TNode start, TNode destination, Func<TNode, TNode, double> distance, Func<TNode, double> estimate) where TNode : IHasNeighbours<TNode> { var closed = new HashSet<TNode>(); var queue = new PriorityQueue<double, Path<TNode>>(); queue.Enqueue(0, new Path<TNode>(start)); while (!queue.IsEmpty) { var path = queue.Dequeue(); if (closed.Contains(path.LastStep)) continue; if (path.LastStep.Equals(destination)) return path; closed.Add(path.LastStep); foreach (TNode n in path.LastStep.Neighbours) { double d = distance(path.LastStep, n); var newPath = path.AddStep(n, d); queue.Enqueue(newPath.TotalCost + estimate(n), newPath); } } return null; } As you can see, it accepts 2 functions, a distance and a estimate function. Using the Manhattan Heuristic Distance function, I need to take 2 parameters. Do I need to modify his source and change it to accepting 2 parameters of TNode so I can pass a Manhattan estimate to it? This means the 4th param will look like this: Func<TNode, TNode, double> estimate) where TNode : IHasNeighbours<TNode> and change the estimate function to: queue.Enqueue(newPath.TotalCost + estimate(n, path.LastStep), newPath); My Manhattan function is: private float manhattanHeuristic(Vector3 newNode, Vector3 end) { return (Math.Abs(newNode.X - end.X) + Math.Abs(newNode.Y - end.Y)); }

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  • Continue gif animation after escape is pressed

    - by cottsak
    Firefox (and other browsers i believe) stop gif animation when you click the Stop button or invoke it via the Escape key. I have a text input that on change makes ajax requests to update other elements. As part of this ajaxyness i have an animated gif to show feedback. I also trap the escape key press in this input so as to clear the text field for better UX. My problem is after the escape key is pressed once, none of the ajax gifs animate anymore until the page is refreshed. Does anyone know a workaround? Stuff i've tried: I tried the e.stopPropagation(); and e.cancelBubble = true; in the function handling the e.keyCode == 27 and that didn't seem to work. I suspect that this stops trigging more js events and the browser catches the escape irrespective of js activity. I have the gif showing/hiding via adding/removing a css class so it's difficult to apply the "change gif url to reset" workaround. I dont even know if this works anyway - didn't test it. But it seems difficult. If anyone knows that this works and knows of an easy way to apply the hack with background-image: url(../images/ajax-loader_dotcirclel13x13.gif); css then please let me know.

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  • Javascript: How to test JSONP on localhost

    - by hqt
    Here is the way I test JSONP: I run XAMPP, and in folder htdocs I create a javascript folder . I create json1.json file contain some data to process. After that, I run this html file locally, and it will call a function in "other machine" (in this case is localhost) Here is my code : <head> <script> function updateSales(sales) { alert('test jsonp'); // real code here } </script> </head> <body> <h1>JSONP Example</h1> <script src="http://localhost:85/javascript/json1.json?callback=updateSales"></script> </body> But when I run, nothing happen. But if change to other real json on the internet, it will work. It means change line : <script src="http://localhost:85/javascript/json1.json?callback=updateSales"></script> to line: <script src="http://gumball.wickedlysmart.com/?callback=updateSales"></script> It will work smoothly. So, I don't know how to test JSONP by using localhost, please help me. Thanks :)

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  • How can I replace a UITableViewController with a UIViewController that contains a UITableView?

    - by Dr Dork
    I created a new SplitView iPad project in Xcode and setup the code to populate the TableView (in the RootView on the left) with data. Now I'd like to customize the RootView to contain a DatePicker view along with the TableView, but I'm unsure how to accomplish this. Since the default RootViewController is a subclass of a UITableViewController, I couldn't add a DatePicker view to it in IB (since you can't add a DatePicker to a UITableView). The only way I understand to accomplish my goal of adding a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView is to change the RootViewController from a subclass of a UITableViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController, then I'll be able to add a view to it that contains a DatePicker view and a TableView using IB. Questions... Is this the correct approach to add a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView? If so and I change the RootViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController (instead of a UITableViewController) and add to it a TableView (along with the DatePicker), how will that affect the code I currently have in place for populating my current TableView? Thanks so much for all your help! Below is my current interface code for my RootViewController, if it'll help any. @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet DetailViewController *detailViewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; - (void)insertNewObject:(id)sender; @end

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  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

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  • Conditionaly strip the last line from a text file

    - by fraXis
    Hello, I posted this yesterday on SO, and I received an answer that works great, but I need to change it around and I don't know how. Here is my original message: I need to strip the last line from a text file. I know how to open and save text files in C#, but how would I strip the last line of the text file? The text file will always be different sizes (some have 80 lines, some have 20). Can someone please show me how to do this? Here is the code that someone gave me to do this (which works fine) //Delete the last line from the file. This line could be 8174, 10000, or anything. This is from SO string tempfile = @"C:\junk_temp.txt"; using (StreamReader reader2 = new StreamReader(newfilename)) { using (StreamWriter writer2 = new StreamWriter(tempfile)) { string line = reader2.ReadLine(); while (!reader2.EndOfStream) { writer2.WriteLine(line); line = reader2.ReadLine(); } // by reading ahead, will not write last line to file } } File.Delete(newfilename); File.Move(tempfile, newfilename); File.Delete(tempfile); How would I change this to only delete the last line of the text file if it is a 4 or 5 digit string (such as 8001 or 99999). If it is anything other than that, such as a %, then I don't want to delete the last line. Can someone please modify the above code to do this for me? Thanks so much.

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  • Can someone confirm how Microsoft Excel 2007 internally represents numbers?

    - by Jon
    I know the IEEE 754 floating point standard by heart as I had to learn it for an exam. I know exactly how floating point numbers are used and the problems that they can have. I can manually do any operation on the binary representation of floating point numbers. However, I have not found a single source which unambiguously states that excel uses 64 bit floating point numbers to internally represent every single cell "type" in excel except for text. I have no idea whether some of the types use signed or unsigned integers and some use 64 bit floating point. I have found literally trillions of articles which 1) describe floating point numbers and then 2) talk about being careful with excel because of floating point numbers. I have not found a single statement saying "all types are 64 bit floating point numbers except text". I have not found a single statement which says "changing the type of a cell only changes its visual representation and not its internal representation, unless you change the type from text to some other type which is not text or you change some other type which is not text to text". This is literally all I want to know, and it's so simple and axiomatic that I am amazed that I can find trillions of articles and pages which talk around these statements but do not state them directly.

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  • JavaScript: Very strange behavior with assigning methods in a loop

    - by Andrey
    Consider this code below: <a href="javascript:void(-1)" id="a1">a1</a> <a href="javascript:void(-1)" id="a2">a2</a> <script type="text/javascript"> var buttons = [] buttons.push("a1") buttons.push("a2") var actions = [] for (var i in buttons) { actions[buttons[i]] = function() { alert(i) } } var elements = document.getElementsByTagName("a") for (var k = 0; k < elements.length; k++) { elements[k].onclick = actions[elements[k].id] } </script> Basically, it shows two anchors, a1 and a2, and I expect to see "1" and "2" popping up in an alert when clicking on corresponding anchor. It doesn't happen, I get "2" when clicking on either. After spending an hour meditating on the code, I decided that it probably happens because dynamic onclick methods for both anchors keep the last value of "i". So I change that loop to for (var i in buttons) { var local_i = i.toString() actions[buttons[i]] = function() { alert(local_i) } } hoping that each dynamic function will get its own copy of "i" with immediate value. But after this change I get "1" popping up when I click on either link. What am I doing wrong? It's a huge show stopper for me.

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  • Jtable live updating problem

    - by Fishinastorm
    Hi all, I'm trying to display a jtable in a pop up Jframe and am running into some problems. What i'am trying to do is as follows: catch a button action event in the main frame and display a pop up frame with a jtable populated with some data. The problem i have is that the jtable is populated with metadata i receive from a website and if i'm receiving many records, then the jtable is not displayed until all the records(metadata) is received from the website. I would like to change it such that as soon as the button event is detected in the main frame, I display the pop up frame along with the jtable and insert/update rows "as and when i receive the data from the website". In another words, i want to display the table and have the records appearing one at a time rather than displaying the jtable only after i receive all records.Below is how i'm trying to do it (but in vain :( ): ......... //add the table to the popup frame when application is started, but don't display the frame `until button action is //detected` extraInfoFrame.add(tblMetadata); extraInfoFrame.setVisible(false); //handle code for button press; display the popup private void butMetadataActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { extraInfoFrame.pack(); extraInfoFrame.toFront(); //frame.setSize(350, 250); extraInfoFrame.setVisible(true); //retrieve rows data for the table for(int i=0;i<len;i++){ Object[] data=new Object[4];data=getMetadata(); //get model and insert row ((javax.swing.table.DefaultTableModel)tblMetadata.getModel()).insertRow(i,data); //tried something to notify the view abt change in table data ((javax.swing.table.DefaultTableModel)tblMetadata.getModel()).fireTableRowsInserted(0, 0); tblMetadata.revalidate(); tblMetadata.repaint(); } } Have been racking my head to try and figure something out. A sample example would be greatly appreciated.

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  • can I acces a struct inside of a struct without using the dot operator?

    - by yan bellavance
    I have 2 structures that have 90% of their fields the same. I want to group those fields in a structure but I do not want to use the dot operator to access them. The reason is I already coded with the first structure and have just created the second one. before: struct{ int a; int b; int c; object1 name; }str1; struct{ int a; int b; int c; object2 name; }str2; now I would create a third struct: struct{ int a; int b; int c; }str3; and would change the str1 and atr2 to this: struct{ str3 str; object1 name; }str1; struct { str3 str; object2 name; }str2; Finally I would like to be able to access a,b and c by doing: str1 myStruct; myStruct.a; myStruct.b; myStruct.c; and not: myStruct.str.a; myStruct.str.b; myStruct.str.c; Is there a way to do such a thing. The reason for doing this is I want keep the integrety of the data if chnges to the struct were to occur and to not repeat myself and not have to change my existing code and not have fields nested too deeply.

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  • Get the equivalent time between "dynamic" time zones

    - by doctore
    I have a table providers that has three columns (containing more columns but not important in this case): starttime, start time in which you can contact him. endtime, final hour in which you can contact him. region_id, region where the provider resides. In USA: California, Texas, etc. In UK: England, Scotland, etc starttime and endtime are time without timezone columns, but, "indirectly", their value has time zone of the region in which the provider resides. For example: starttime | endtime | region_id (time zone of region) | "real" st | "real" et ----------|----------|---------------------------------|-----------|----------- 03:00:00 | 17:00:00 | 1 (EGT => -1) | 02:00:00 | 16:00:00 Often I need to get the list of suppliers whose time range is within the current server time (taking into account the time zone conversion). The problem is that the time zones aren't "constant", ie, they may change during the summer time. However, this change is very specific to the region and not always carried out at the same time: EGT <= EGST, ART <= ARST, etc. The question is: 1. Is it necessary to use a webservice to update every so often the time zones in the regions? Does anyone know of a web service that can serve? 2. Is there a better approach to solve this problem? Thanks in advance. UPDATE I will give an example to clarify what I'm trying to get. In the table providers I found this records: idproviders | starttime | endtime | region_id ------------|-----------|----------|----------- 1 | 03:00:00 | 17:00:00 | 23 (Texas) 2 | 04:00:00 | 18:00:00 | 23 (Texas) If I execute the query in January, with this information: Server time (UTC offset) = 0 hours Texas providers (UTC offset) = +1 hour Server time = 02:00:00 I should get the following results: idproviders = 1 If I execute the query in June, with this information: Server time (UTC offset) = 0 hours Texas providers (UTC offset) = +2 hours (their local time has not changed, but their time zone has changed) Server time = 02:00:00 I should get the following results: idproviders = 1 and 2

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  • OpenCV. cvFnName() works, but cv::FunName() doesn't work

    - by Innuendo
    I'm using OpenCV to write a plugin for a simulator. I've made an OpenCV project (single - not a plugin) and it works fine. When I added OpenCV libs to the plugin project, I added all libs required. Visual Studio 2010 doesn't highlight any code line with red. All looks fine and compiles fine. But in execution, the program halts with a Runtime Error on any cv::function. For example: cv::imread, or cv::imwrite. But if I replace them with cvLoadImage() and cvSaveImage(), it works fine. Why does this happen? I don't want to rewrite the whole script in old-api-style (cvFnName). It means I should change all Mat objects to IplImages, and so on. UPDATE: // preparing template ifstream ifile(tmplfilename); if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { // loading template file Mat tmpl = cv::imread(tmplfilename, 1); // << here occurs error FILE_LOADED = true; } Mat src; Bmp2Mat(hDC, hBitmap, src); TargetDetector detector(src, tmpl); detector.detectTarget(); If I change to: if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { IplImage* tmpl = 0; tmpl = cvLoadImage(tmplfilename, 1); // no error occurs } And then no error occurs. Early it displayed some Runtime Error. Now, I wanted to copy exact message and it just crashes the application (simulator, what I am pluginning). It displays window error - to kill process or no. (I can't show exact message, because I'm using russian windows now)

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  • Dependent Dropdowns with single class element

    - by AJ
    I am trying to create multiple dependent dropdowns (selects) with a unique way. I want to restrict the use of selectors and want to achieve this by using a single class selectors on all SELECTs; by figuring out the SELECT that was changed by its index. Hence, the SELECT[i] that changed will change the SELECT[i+1] only (and not the previous ones like SELECT[i-1]). For html like this: <select class="someclass"> <option value="volvo">Volvo</option> <option value="saab">Saab</option> <option value="mercedes">Mercedes</option> <option value="audi">Audi</option> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> where the SELECTs other than the first one will get something via AJAX. I see that the following Javascript gives me correct value of the correct SELECT and the value of i also corresponds to the correct SELECT. $(function() { $(".someclass").each(function(i) { $(this).change(function(x) { alert($(this).val() + i); }); }); }); Please note that I really want the minimum selector approach. I just cannot wrap my head around on how to approach this. Should I use Arrays? Like store all the SELECTS in an Array first and then select those? I believe that since the above code already passes the index i, there should be a way without Arrays also. Thanks a bunch. AJ

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  • Dependent Dropdowns (Linked Selects) with single class (no other selectors)

    - by AJ
    I am trying to create multiple dependent dropdowns (selects) with a unique way. I want to restrict the use of selectors and want to achieve this by using a single class selectors on all SELECTs; by figuring out the SELECT that was changed by its index. Hence, the SELECT[i] that changed will change the SELECT[i+1] only (and not the previous ones like SELECT[i-1]). For html like this: <select class="someclass"> <option value="volvo">Volvo</option> <option value="saab">Saab</option> <option value="mercedes">Mercedes</option> <option value="audi">Audi</option> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> where the SELECTs other than the first one will get something via AJAX. I see that the following Javascript gives me correct value of the correct SELECT and the value of i also corresponds to the correct SELECT. $(function() { $(".someclass").each(function(i) { $(this).change(function(x) { alert($(this).val() + i); }); }); }); Please note that I really want the minimum selector approach. I just cannot wrap my head around on how to approach this. Should I use Arrays? Like store all the SELECTS in an Array first and then select those? I believe that since the above code already passes the index i, there should be a way without Arrays also. Thanks a bunch. AJ

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