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  • Apache Lucene: Is Relevance Score Always Between 0 and 1?

    - by Eamorr
    Greetings, I have the following Apache Lucene snippet that's giving me some nice results: int numHits=100; int resultsPerPage=100; IndexSearcher searcher=new IndexSearcher(reader); TopScoreDocCollector collector=TopScoreDocCollector.create(numHits,true); Query q=parser.parse(queryString); searcher.search(q,collector); ScoreDoc[] hits=collector.topDocs(0*resultsPerPage,resultsPerPage).scoreDocs; Results r=new Results(); r.length=hits.length; for(int i=0;i<hits.length;i++){ Document doc=searcher.doc(hits[i].doc); double distanceKm=getGreatCircleDistance(lucene2double(doc.get("lat")), lucene2double(doc.get("lng")), Double.parseDouble(userLat), Double.parseDouble(userLng)); double newRelevance=((1/distanceKm)*Math.log(hits[i].score)/Math.log(2))*(0-1); System.out.println(hits[i].doc+"\t"+hits[i].score+"\t"+doc.get("content")+"\t"+"Km="+distanceKm+"\trlvnc="+String.valueOf(newRelevance)); } What I want to know, is hits[i].score always between 0 and 1? It seems that way, but I can't be sure. I've even checked the Lucene documentation (class ScoreDocs) to no avail. You'll see I'm calculating the log of the "newRelevance" value, which is based on hits[i].score. I need hits[i].score to be between 0 and 1, because if it is below zero, I'll get an error; above 1 and the sign will change from negative to positive. I hope some Lucene expert out there can offer me some insight. Many thanks,

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  • Mysql partitioning: Partitions outside of date range is included

    - by Sturlum
    Hi, I have just tried to configure partitions based on date, but it seems that mysql still includes a partition with no relevant data. It will use the relevant partition but also include the oldest for some reason. Am I doing it wrong? The version is 5.1.44 (MyISAM) I first added a few partitions based on "day", which is of type "date" ALTER TABLE ptest PARTITION BY RANGE(TO_DAYS(day)) ( PARTITION p1 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2009-08-01')), PARTITION p2 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2009-11-01')), PARTITION p3 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2010-02-01')), PARTITION p4 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2010-05-01')) ); After a query, I find that it uses the "old" partition, that should not contain any relevant data. mysql> explain partitions select * from ptest where day between '2010-03-11' and '2010-03-12'; +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | partitions | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | ptest | p1,p4 | range | day | day | 3 | NULL | 79 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ When I select a single day, it works: mysql> explain partitions select * from ptest where day = '2010-03-11'; +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+ | id | select_type | table | partitions | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | ptest | p4 | ref | day | day | 3 | const | 39 | | +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+

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  • Listen to Response on HTML Form embedded in GWT View?

    - by confile
    I have a HTML like the following: <div> <form> <input type="text" /> <button class="sendForm" value="Send form" /> </form> </div> <script> // post the form with Jquery post // register a callback that handles the response </script> I use this type of form a lot with a JavaScript/JQuery overlay that displays the form. That could be handled for example with plugins like FancyBox. I also want to use this form embedded into a GWT view. Lets assume that the for cannot be created on client side because it has some server based markup language inside to set up some model data. If I want to use this form in GWT I have to do the following. Tell GWT the form request url and use a RequestBuilder to query the html content of this form. Then I can insert it into a div generated by GWT. So far so good. Problem: When the user hits the send button the response is handled my the JQuery callback that is inside the script under the form. Is there a way to access this callback from within GWT? Is there a way to overwrite the JQuery send action? Since, the code is HTML and comes from the server I cannot place ui-binder UiFields inside to get access to these DOM elements. I need to get the response if the submitted form accessible to GWT. Is there a way how I can achieve this with JSNI?

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  • Round time to 5 minute nearest SQL Server

    - by Drako
    i don't know if it can be usefull to somebody but I went crazy looking for a solution and ended up doing it myself. Here is a function that (according to a date passed as parameter), returns the same date and approximate time to the nearest multiple of 5. It is a slow query, so if anyone has a better solution, it is welcome. A greeting. CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[RoundTime] (@Time DATETIME) RETURNS DATETIME AS BEGIN DECLARE @min nvarchar(50) DECLARE @val int DECLARE @hour int DECLARE @temp int DECLARE @day datetime DECLARE @date datetime SET @date = CONVERT(DATETIME, @Time, 120) SET @day = (select DATEADD(dd, 0, DATEDIFF(dd, 0, @date))) SET @hour = (select datepart(hour,@date)) SET @min = (select datepart(minute,@date)) IF LEN(@min) > 1 BEGIN SET @val = CAST(substring(@min, 2, 1) as int) END else BEGIN SET @val = CAST(substring(@min, 1, 1) as int) END IF @val <= 2 BEGIN SET @val = CAST(CAST(@min as int) - @val as int) END else BEGIN IF (@val <> 5) BEGIN SET @temp = 5 - CAST(@min%5 as int) SET @val = CAST(CAST(@min as int) + @temp as int) END IF (@val = 60) BEGIN SET @val = 0 SET @hour = @hour + 1 END IF (@hour = 24) BEGIN SET @day = DATEADD(day,1,@day) SET @hour = 0 SET @min = 0 END END RETURN CONVERT(datetime, CAST(DATEPART(YYYY, @day) as nvarchar) + '-' + CAST(DATEPART(MM, @day) as nvarchar) + '-' + CAST(DATEPART(dd, @day) as nvarchar) + ' ' + CAST(@hour as nvarchar) + ':' + CAST(@val as nvarchar), 120) END

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  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

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  • Linq, should I join those two queries together?

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    I have a Logins table which records when user is login, logout or loginFailed and its timestamp. Now I want to get the list of loginFailed after last login and the loginFailed happened within 24 hrs. What I am doing now is get the last login timestamp first. then use second query to get the final list. do you think I should join those two queris together? why not? why yes? var lastLoginTime = (from inRecord in db.Logins where inRecord.Users.UserId == userId && inRecord.Action == "I" orderby inRecord.Timestamp descending select inRecord.Timestamp).Take(1); if (lastLoginTime.Count() == 1) { DateTime lastInTime = (DateTime)lastLoginTime.First(); DateTime since = DateTime.Now.AddHours(-24); String actionStr = "F"; var records = from record in db.Logins where record.Users.UserId == userId && record.Timestamp >= since && record.Action == actionStr && record.Timestamp > lastInTime orderby record.Timestamp select record; }

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  • EF4 Code-First CTP5 Many-to-one

    - by Kevin McKelvin
    I've been trying to get EF4 CTP5 to play nice with an existing database, but struggling with some basic mapping issues. I have two model classes so far: public class Job { [Key, Column(Order = 0)] public int JobNumber { get; set; } [Key, Column(Order = 1)] public int VersionNumber { get; set; } public virtual User OwnedBy { get; set; } } and [Table("Usernames")] public class User { [Key] public string Username { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public bool IsAdministrator { get; set; } } And I have my DbContext class exposing those as IDbSet I can query my users, but as soon as I added the OwnedBy field to the Job class I began getting this error in all my tests for the Jobs: Invalid column name 'UserUsername'. I want this to behave like NHibernate's many-to-one, whereas I think EF4 is treating it as a complex type. How should this be done?

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  • jquery draggable/droppable issue

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a drag and drop function that does not fully work. What I want to do is be able to drag and drop a picture into a div and have that picture pop up in the div. I have a list of 2 pictures right now, so I have the following function echoed for each picture. Both pictures are draggable and droppable, but the first one is the only one that appears in the div, regardless of which picture gets dragged in. I am not sure what is wrong because the jquery function seems to be unique to each picture. If any one has any suggestions I would appreciate it greatly. while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { $image=htmlentities($row['image']); //image name $uniqid=uniqid(); //unique id for jquery functions $dirname = "usercontent/$user/images/$image"; echo "<img id=\"$uniqid\" src=\"$dirname\" width=\"75\" height=\"75\"/>"; echo "<script> $(function() { $(\"#$uniqid\").draggable({ scroll: true, scrollSensitivity: 10, scrollSpeed: 10, revert: true, helper: 'clone', cursorAt: { cursor: 'move', top: 27, left: 27 } }); $(\"#droppable2, #droppable-background , #droppable2-innerer\").droppable({ greedy: true, activeClass: 'ui-state-hover', hoverClass: 'ui-state-active', drop: function(event, ui) { $(this).addClass('ui-state-highlight').find('> p').html('Dropped!'); $('#droppable-background').css(\"background-image\",\"url($dirname)\"); } }); }); </script>"; }

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  • question about MySQL transaction and trigger

    - by WilliamLou
    I quickly browsed MySQL manual but didn't find the exact information about my question. Here is my question: if I have a InnoDB table A with two triggers triggered by 'AFTER INSERT ON A' and 'AFTER UPDATE ON A'. More specifically, For example: one trigger is defined as: CREATE TRIGGER test_trigger AFTER INSERT ON A FOR EACH ROW BEGIN INSERT INTO B SELECT * FROM A WHERE A.col1 = NEW.col1 END; You can ignore the query between BEGIN AND END, basically I mean this trigger will insert several rows into table B which is also a InnoDB table. Now, if I started a transaction and then insert many rows, say: 10K rows, into table A. If there is no trigger associated with table A, all these inserts are atomic, that's for sure. Now, if table A is associated with several insert/update triggers which insert/update many rows to table B and/or table C etc.. will all these inserts and/or updates are still all atomic? I think it's still atomic, but it's kind of difficult to test and I can't find any explanations in the Manual. Anyone can confirm this? Thanks a lot!

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  • Parsing XML in Javascript getElementsByTagName not working

    - by Probocop
    Hi, I am trying to parse the following XML with javascript: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <ResultSet> <Result> <URL>www.asd.com</URL> <Value>10500</Value> </Result> </ResultSet> The XML is generated by a PHP script to get how many pages are indexed in Bing. My javascript function is as follows: function bingIndexedPages() { ws_url = "http://archreport.epiphanydev2.co.uk/worker.php?query=bingindexed&domain="+$('#hidden_the_domain').val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: ws_url, dataType: "xml", success: function(xmlIn){ alert('success'); result = xmlIn.getElementsByTagName("Result"); $('#tb_actualvsindexedbing_indexed').val($(result.getElementsByTagName("Value")).text()); $('#img_actualvsindexedbing_worked').attr("src","/images/worked.jpg"); }, error: function() {$('#img_actualvsindexedbing_worked').attr("src","/images/failed.jpg");} }); } The problem I'm having is firebug is saying: 'result.getElementsByTagName is not a function' Can you see what is going wrong? Thanks

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  • How does DATEDIFF calculate week differences in SQL Server 2005?

    - by eksortso
    I would like to calculate the difference in weeks between two dates, where two dates are considered part of the same week if their preceding Sunday is the same. Ideally, I'd like to do this using DATEDIFF, instead of learning an elaborate idiom to calculate the value. But I can't tell how it works when weeks are involved. The following query returns 1 and 2. This might make sense if your calendar week begins with a Sunday, i.e. if you run SET DATEFIRST 7 beforehand or if @@DATEFIRST is 7 by default. SET DATEFIRST 7; -- SET DATEFIRST 1; DECLARE @d1 DATETIME, @d2a DATETIME, @d2b DATETIME ; SELECT @d1 = '2010-04-05', -- Monday @d2a = '2010-04-16', -- Following Friday @d2b = '2010-04-18' -- the Sunday following ; SELECT DATEDIFF(week, @d1, @d2a) AS weekdiff_a -- returns 1 ,DATEDIFF(week, @d1, @d2b) AS weekdiff_b -- returns 2 ; So I expected different results if SET DATEFIRST 1 is executed instead of SET DATEFIRST 7. But the return values are the same, regardless! What is going on here? What should I do to get the correct week differences?

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  • Usage of autorelease pools for fetch method

    - by Matthias
    Hi, I'm a little bit confused regarding the autorelease pools when programming for the iPhone. I've read a lot and the oppionions seem to me from "Do-NOT-use" to "No problem to use". My specific problem is, I would like to have a class which encapsulates the SQLite3 Access, so I have for example the following method: -(User*)fetchUserWithId:(NSInteger)userId Now, within this method a SQL query is done and a new user object is created with the data from the database and then returned. Within this DB Access class I don't need this object anymore, so I can do a release, but since the calling method needs it, I would do an autorelease, wouldn't I? So, is it okay to use autorelease here oder would it gain too much memory, if this method is called quite frequently? Some websites say, that the autorelease pool is released first at the end of the application, some say, at every event (e.g. user touches something). If I should not use autorelease, how can I make sure, that the object is released correctly? Can I do a release in the fetch method and hope, that the object is still there until the calling method can do a retain? Thanks for your help! Regards Matthias

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  • XPath: limit scope of result set

    - by Laramie
    Given the XML <a> <c> <b id="1" value="noob"/> </c> <b id="2" value="tube"/> <a> <c> <b id="3" value="foo"/> </c> <b id="4" value="goo"/> <b id="5" value="noob"/> <a> <b id="6" value="near"/> <b id="7" value="bar"/> </a> </a> </a> and the Xpath 1.0 query //b[@id=2]/ancestor::a[1]//b[@value="noob"] is there some way to limit the result set to the <b> elements that are ONLY the children of the immediate <a> element of the start node (//b[@id=2])? For example the Xpath above returns both node ids 1 and 5. The goal is to limit the result to just node id=1 since it is the only @value="noob" element in the same <c> group as our start node (//b[@id=2]). In English, "Starting at a node whose id is equal to 2, find all the elements whose value is "noob" that are descendants of the immediate parent c element without passing through another c element".

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  • Compound Primary Key in Hibernate using Annotations

    - by Rich
    Hi, I have a table which uses two columns to represent its primary key, a transaction id and then the sequence number. I tried what was recommended http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/stable/annotations/reference/en/html_single/#entity-mapping in section 2.2.3.2.2, but when I used the Hibernate session to commit this Entity object, it leaves out the TXN_ID field in the insert statement and only includes the BA_SEQ field! What's going wrong? Here's the related code excerpt: @Id @Column(name="TXN_ID") private long txn_id; public long getTxnId(){return txn_id;} public void setTxnId(long t){this.txn_id=t;} @Id @Column(name="BA_SEQ") private int seq; public int getSeq(){return seq;} public void setSeq(int s){this.seq=s;} And here are some log statements to show what exactly happens to fail: In createKeepTxnId of DAO base class: about to commit Transaction :: txn_id->90625 seq->0 ...<Snip>... Hibernate: insert into TBL (BA_ACCT_TXN_ID, BA_AUTH_SRVC_TXN_ID, BILL_SRVC_ID, BA_BILL_SRVC_TXN_ID, BA_CAUSE_TXN_ID, BA_CHANNEL, CUSTOMER_ID, BA_MERCHANT_FREETEXT, MERCHANT_ID, MERCHANT_PARENT_ID, MERCHANT_ROOT_ID, BA_MERCHANT_TXN_ID, BA_PRICE, BA_PRICE_CRNCY, BA_PROP_REQS, BA_PROP_VALS, BA_REFERENCE, RESERVED_1, RESERVED_2, RESERVED_3, SRVC_PROD_ID, BA_STATUS, BA_TAX_NAME, BA_TAX_RATE, BA_TIMESTAMP, BA_SEQ) values (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) [WARN] util.JDBCExceptionReporter SQL Error: 1400, SQLState: 23000 [ERROR] util.JDBCExceptionReporter ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into ("SCHEMA"."TBL"."TXN_ID") The important thing to note is I print out the entity object which has a txn_id set, and then the following insert into statement does not include TXN_ID in the listing and thus the NOT NULL table constraint rejects the query.

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  • Unable to insert DateTime format into database

    - by melvg
    I'm unable to insert the DateTime into my database. Am i writing the statement wrongly? Apparently without the DateTime, I am able to insert into the database string dateAndTime = date + " " + time; CultureInfo provider = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture; DateTime theDateTime = DateTime.ParseExact(dateAndTime, "d MMMM yyyy hh:mm tt", provider); //Create a connection, replace the data source name with the name of the SQL Anywhere Demo Database that you installed SAConnection myConnection = new SAConnection("UserID=dba;Password=sql;DatabaseName=emaDB;ServerName=emaDB"); //open the connection ; myConnection.Open(); //Create a command object. SACommand insertAccount = myConnection.CreateCommand(); //Specify a query. insertAccount.CommandText = ("INSERT INTO [meetingMinutes] (title,location,perioddate,periodtime,attenders,agenda,accountID,facilitator,datetime) VALUES ('"+title+"','" + location + "', '" + date + "','" + time + "', '" + attender + "','" + agenda + "', '" + accountID + "','" + facilitator + "','" +theDateTime+ "')"); try { insertAccount.ExecuteNonQuery(); if (title == "" || agenda == "") { btnSubmit.Attributes.Add("onclick", "displayIfSuccessfulInsert();"); //ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, GetType(), "error", "alert('Please ensure to have a title or agenda!');", true); } else { btnSubmit.Attributes.Add("onclick", "displayIfSuccessfulInsert();"); Response.Redirect("HomePage.aspx"); //ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Redit", "alert('Minutes Created!'); window.location='" + Request.ApplicationPath + "/HomePage.aspx';", true); } } catch (Exception exception) { Console.WriteLine(exception); } finally { myConnection.Close(); } It does not insert the SQL into my database.

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  • PHP question about global variables and form requests

    - by user220201
    Hi, This is probably a stupid question but will ask anyway sine I have no idea. I have written basic php code which serve forms. Say I have a login page and I serve it using the login.php page and it will be called in the login.html page like this - <form action="login.php" method="post"> By this it is also implied that every POST needs its own php file, doesn't it? This kind of feels weird. Is there a way to have a single file, say code.php, and just have each of the forms as functions instead? EDIT: Specifically, say I have 5 forms that are used one after the other in my application. Say after login the user does A, B, C and D tasks each of which are sent to the server as a POST request. So instead of having A.php, B.php, C.php and D.php I would like to have a single code.php and have A(), B(), C() and D() as functions. Is there a way to do this? Also on the same note, how do I deal with say a global array (e.g. an array of currently logged in users) across multiple forms? I want to do this without writing to a DB. I know its probably better to write to a DB and query but is it even possible to do it with a global array? The reason I was thinking about having all the form functions in one file is to use a global array. Thanks, - Pav

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  • How would you organize this in asp.net mvc?

    - by chobo
    I have an asp.net mvc 2.0 application that contains Areas/Modules like calendar, admin, etc... There may be cases where more than one area needs to access the same Repo, so I am not sure where to put the Data Access Layers and Repositories. First Option: Should I create Data Access Layer files (Linq to SQL in my case) with their accompanying Repositories for each area, so each area only contains the Tables, and Repositories needed by those areas. The benefit is that everything needed to run that module is one place, so it is more encapsulated (in my mind anyway). The downside is that I may have duplicate queries, because other modules may use the same query. Second Option Or, would it be better to place the DAL and Repositories outside the Area's and treat them as Global? The advantage is I won't have any duplicate queries, but I may be loading a lot of unnecessary queries and DAL tables up for certain modules. It is also more work to reuse or modify these modules for future projects (though the chance of reusing them is slim to none :)) Which option makes more sense? If someone has a better way I'd love to hear it. Thanks!

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  • Are ternary operators not valid for linq-to-sql queries?

    - by KallDrexx
    I am trying to display a nullable date time in my JSON response. In my MVC Controller I am running the following query: var requests = (from r in _context.TestRequests where r.scheduled_time == null && r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0 select new { id = r.id, name = r.name, start = DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue ? DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value) : string.Empty }); When I run requests.ToArray() I get the following exception: Could not translate expression ' Table(TestRequest) .Where(r => ((r.scheduled_time == null) AndAlso (r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0))) .Select(r => new <>f__AnonymousType18`4(id = r.id, name = r.name, start = value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = IIF(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue, value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value), Invoke(value(System.Func`1[System.String])))))' into SQL and could not treat it as a local expression. If I comment out the end = line, everything seems to run correctly, so it doesn't seem to be the use of my local DateAndTimeDisplayString method, so the only thing I can think of is Linq to Sql doesn't like Ternary operators? I think I've used ternary operators before, but I can't remember if I did it in this code base or another code base (that uses EF4 instead of L2S). Is this true, or am I missing some other issue?

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  • Open-sourcing a web site with active users?

    - by Lars Yencken
    I currently run several research-related web-sites with active users, and these sites use some personally identifying information about these users (their email address, IP address, and query history). Ideally I'd release the code to these sites as open source, so that other people could easily run similar sites, and more importantly scrutinise and replicate my work, but I haven't been comfortable doing so, since I'm unsure of the security implications. For example, I wouldn't want my users' details to be accessed or distributed by a third party who found some flaw in my site, something which might be easy to do with full source access. I've tried going half-way by refactoring the (Django) site into more independent modules, and releasing those, but this is very time consuming, and in practice I've never gotten around to releasing enough that a third party can replicate the site(s) easily. I also feel that maybe I'm kidding myself, and that this process is really no different to releasing the full source. What would you recommend in cases like this? Would you open-source the site and take the risk? As an alternative, would you advertise the source as "available upon request" to other researchers, so that you at least know who has the code? Or would you just apologise to them and keep it closed in order to protect users?

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  • Lucene DuplicateFilter question

    - by chardex
    Hi, Why DuplicateFilter doesn't work together with other filters? For example, if a little remake of the test DuplicateFilterTest, then the impression that the filter is not applied to other filters and first trims results: public void testKeepsLastFilter() throws Throwable { DuplicateFilter df = new DuplicateFilter(KEY_FIELD); df.setKeepMode(DuplicateFilter.KM_USE_LAST_OCCURRENCE); Query q = new ConstantScoreQuery(new ChainedFilter(new Filter[]{ new QueryWrapperFilter(tq), // new QueryWrapperFilter(new TermQuery(new Term("text", "out"))), // works right, it is the last document. new QueryWrapperFilter(new TermQuery(new Term("text", "now"))) // why it doesn't work? It is the third document. }, ChainedFilter.AND)); ScoreDoc[] hits = searcher.search(q, df, 1000).scoreDocs; assertTrue("Filtered searching should have found some matches", hits.length > 0); for (int i = 0; i < hits.length; i++) { Document d = searcher.doc(hits[i].doc); String url = d.get(KEY_FIELD); TermDocs td = reader.termDocs(new Term(KEY_FIELD, url)); int lastDoc = 0; while (td.next()) { lastDoc = td.doc(); } assertEquals("Duplicate urls should return last doc", lastDoc, hits[i].doc); } }

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  • NHibernate + Fluent long startup time

    - by PaRa
    Hi all, am new to NHibernate. When performing below test took 11.2 seconds (debug mode) i am seeing this large startup time in all my tests (basically creating the first session takes a tone of time) setup = Windows 2003 SP2 / Oracle10gR2 latest CPU / ODP.net 2.111.7.20 / FNH 1.0.0.636 / NHibernate 2.1.2.4000 / NUnit 2.5.2.9222 / VS2008 SP1 using System; using System.Collections; using System.Data; using System.Globalization; using System.IO; using System.Text; using System.Data; using NUnit.Framework; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Data.Common; using NHibernate; using log4net.Config; using System.Configuration; using FluentNHibernate; [Test()] public void GetEmailById() { Email result; using (EmailRepository repository = new EmailRepository()) { results = repository.GetById(1111); } Assert.IsTrue(results != null); } public class EmailRepository : RepositoryBase { public EmailRepository():base() { } } In my RepositoryBase public T GetById(object id) { using (var session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using (var transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { try { T returnVal = session.Get(id); transaction.Commit(); return returnVal; } catch (HibernateException ex) { // Logging here transaction.Rollback(); return null; } } } The query time is very small. The resulting entity is really small. Subsequent queries are fine. Its seems to be getting the first session started. Has anyone else seen something similar?

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  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

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  • Excel 2010 VBA code is stuck when UserForm is shown

    - by Denis
    I've created a UserForm as a progress indicator while a web query (using InternetExplorer object) runs in the background. The code gets triggered as shown below. The progress indicator form is called 'Progerss'. Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) If Target.Row = Range("B2").Row And Target.Column = Range("B2").Column Then Progress.Show vbModeless Range("A4:A65535").ClearContents GetWebData (Range("B2").Value) Progress.Hide End If End Sub What I see with this code is that the progress indicator form pops up when cell B2 changes. I also see that the range of cells in column A gets cleared which tells me that the vbModeless is doing what I want. But then, somewhere within the GetWebData() procedure, things get hung up. As soon as I manually destroy the progress indicator form, the GetWebData() routine finishes and I see the correct results. But if I leave the progress indicator visible, things just get stuck indefinitely. The code below shows what GetWebData() is doing. Private Sub GetWebData(ByVal Symbol As String) Dim IE As New InternetExplorer 'IE.Visible = True IE.navigate MyURL Do DoEvents Loop Until IE.readyState = READYSTATE_COMPLETE Dim Doc As HTMLDocument Set Doc = IE.document Dim Rows As IHTMLElementCollection Set Rows = Doc.getElementsByClassName("financialTable").Item(0).all.tags("tr") Dim r As Long r = 0 For Each Row In Rows Sheet1.Range("A4").Offset(r, 0).Value = Row.Children.Item(0).innerText r = r + 1 Next End Sub Any thoughts?

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  • How to execute stored procedure from Access using linked tables

    - by webworm
    I have an Access 2003 database that connects to a SQL Server 2008 box via ODBC. The tables from SQL Server are connected as linked tables in Access. I have a stored procedure on the SQL Server that I am trying to execute via ADO code. The problem I have is that Access cannot seem to find the procedure. What do I have to do within Access to be able to execute this stored procedure? Some facts ... The stored procedure in question accepts one parameter which is an integer. The stored procedure returns a recordset which I am hoping to use as the datasource for a ListBox. Here is my ADO code in Access ... Private Sub LoadUserCaseList(userID As Integer) Dim cmd As ADODB.Command Set cmd = New ADODB.Command cmd.ActiveConnection = CurrentProject.Connection cmd.CommandType = adCmdStoredProc cmd.CommandText = "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList" Dim par As New ADODB.Parameter Set par = cmd.CreateParameter("userID", adInteger) cmd.Parameters.Append par cmd.Parameters("userID") = userID Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Set rs = cmd.Execute() lstUserCases.Recordset = rs End Sub The error I get is "the microsoft jet database engine cannot find the input table or query "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList".

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  • django: results in in_bulk style without IDs

    - by valya
    in django 1.1.1, Place.objects.in_bulk() does not work and Place.objects.in_bulk(range(1, 100)) works and returns a dictionary of Ints to Places with indexes - primary keys. How to avoid using range in this situation (and avoid using a special query for ids, I just want to get all objects in this dictionary format) >>> Place.objects.in_bulk() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/Django-1.1.1-py2.5.egg/django/db/models/manager.py", line 144, in in_bulk return self.get_query_set().in_bulk(*args, **kwargs) TypeError: in_bulk() takes exactly 2 arguments (1 given) >>> Place.objects.in_bulk(range(1, 100)) {1L: <Place: "??? ????">, 3L: <Place: "???????????? ?????">, 4L: <Place: "????????? "??????"">, 5L: <Place: "????????? "??????"">, 8L: <Place: "????????? "??????????????"">, 9L: <Place: "??????? ????????">, 10L: <Place: "????????? ???????">, 11L: <Place: "??????????????? ???">, 14L: <Place: "????? ????? ??????">}

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