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• Why does Excel now give me already existing name range error on Copy Sheet?

  - by WilliamKF

  I've been working on a Microsoft Excel 2007 spreadsheet for several days. I'm working from a master template like sheet and copying it to a new sheet repeatedly. Up until today, this was happening with no issues. However, in the middle of today this suddenly changed and I do not know why. Now, whenever I try to copy a worksheet I get about ten dialogs, each one with a different name range object (shown below as 'XXXX') and I click yes for each one: A formula or sheet you want to move or copy contains the name 'XXXX', which already exists on the destination worksheet. Do you want to use this version of the name? To use the name as defined in destination sheet, click Yes. To rename the range referred to in the formula or worksheet, click No, and enter a new name in the Name Conflict dialog box. The name range objects refer to cells in the sheet. For example, E6 is called name range PRE on multiple sheets (and has been all along) and some of the formulas refer to PRE instead of $E$6. One of the 'XXXX' above is this PRE. These name ranges should only be resolved within the sheet within which they appear. This was not an issue before despite the same name range existing on multiple sheets before. I want to keep my name ranges. What could have changed in my spreadsheet to cause this change in behavior? I've gone back to prior sheets created this way and now they give the message too when copied. I tried a different computer and a different user and the same behavior is seen everywhere. I can only conclude something in the spreadsheet has changed. What could this be and how can I get back the old behavior whereby I can copy sheets with name ranges and not get any errors? Looking in the Name Manager I see that the name ranges being complained about show twice, once as scope Template and again as scope Workbook. If I delete the scope Template ones the error goes away on copy however, I get a bunch of #REF errors. If I delete the scope Workbook ones, all seems okay and the errors on copy go away too, so perhaps this is the answer, but I'm nervous about what effect this deletion will have and wonder how the Workbook ones came into existence in the first place. Will it be safe to just delete the Workbook name manager scoped entries and how might these have come into existence without my knowing it to begin with?

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• Apache certificates for some urls not working

  - by Vegaasen

  We are having a rather strange problem with a Apache-installation. Here is a short summary: Currently I'm setting up Apache with https, and server-certificates. This is fairly easy and works straight out of the box - as expected. This is the configuration for this setup: Listen 443 SSLEngine on SSLCertificateFile "/progs/apache/ssl/example-site.no.pem" SSLCertificateKeyFile "/progs/apache/ssl/example-site.no.key" SSLCACertificateFile "/progs/apache/ssl/ca/example_root.pem" SSLCADNRequestFile "/progs/apache/ssl/ca/example_intermediate.pem" SSLVerifyClient none SSLVerifyDepth 3 SSLOptions +StdEnvVars +ExportCertData RequestHeader set ssl-ClientCert-Subject-CN "%{SSL_CLIENT_S_DN}s" RewriteEngine On ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyRequests On SSLProxyEngine On ... <LocationMatch /secureStuff/$> SSLVerifyClient require Order deny,allow Allow from All </LocationMatch> ... <Proxy balancer://exBalancer> Header add Set-Cookie "EX_ROUTE=EB.%{BALANCER_WORKER_ROUTE}e; path=/" env=BALANCER_ROUTE_CHANGED BalancerMember http://10.0.0.1:7200 route=ee1 retry=300 flushpackets=off keepalive=on BalancerMember http://10.0.0.2:7200 route=ee2 retry=300 flushpackets=off keepalive=on status=+H ProxySet stickysession=EX_ROUTE scolonpathdelim=Off timeout=10 nofailover=off failonstatus=505 maxattempts=1 lbmethod=bybusyness Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/index.html [NC] RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ balancer://exBalancer/$1 [P,NC] ProxyPassReverse / balancer://exBalancer/ Header edit Set-Cookie "(.*)" "$1;HttpsOnly" ... So - everything works fine and as expected for all of the pages that are not a part of the LocationMatch-directive. When requesting something that matches the LocationMatch-directive, I'm asked for a certificate (hence the SSLVerifyClient required attribute) - and getting all the correct certificates in my browser that is based on the root/intermediate chain. After choosing a certificate and clicking "OK", this is what pops up in the apache logs: [ssl:info] [pid 9530:tid 25] [client :43357] AH01998: Connection closed to child 86 with abortive shutdown ( [Thu Oct 11 09:27:36.221876 2012] [ssl:debug] [pid 9530:tid 25] ssl_engine_io.c(1171): (70014)End of file found: [client 10.235.128.55:45846] AH02007: SSL handshake interrupted by system [Hint: Stop button pressed in browser?!] And this just spams the logs. What is happening here? I can see this configuration working on my local machine, but not on one of our servers. There is no configration differences between the servers, only minor application-wise-changes. I've tried the following: 1) Removing CA-certificate-checking (works) 2) Adding required CA-certificate for the whole site (works) 3) Adding "SSLVerifyClient optional" does not work 4) ++ Server/Application Information Local: -OpenSSL v.1.0.1x -Apache 2.4.3 -Ubuntu -mpm: event -every configuration should be turned on (failing) server: -OpenSSL 0.9.8e -Apache 2.4.2 -SunOS -mpm: worker -every configuration should be turned on Please let me know if more information is needed, I'll provide it instantly. Brief sum-up: -Running apache 2.4 -Server certificates works just fine -Client certificates for some /Locations does not work, fails with errors PS: Could it be related with the OpenSSL version and the "Renegotiation" stuff related to TLS/SSLv3?

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• How to auto advance a PowerPoint slide after an exit animation is over?

  - by joooc

  PowerPoint entrance animation set up with "Start: With Previous" starts right when a new slide is advanced. However, if you set up an exit animation in the same way, it doesn't start with a slide ending sequence. Instead, the "Start: On Click" trigger needs to be used and after your exit animation is over you still need one extra click just to advance to the next slide. Workarounds to this are obvious: create a duplicate slide, make your ending animations from the original slide being your starting animations on the duplicate slide and let them be followed with whatever you want or create a transition slide with those ending animations only and set up "Change Advance slide - Automatically after - [the time it takes your animations to finish]". These workarounds will make it work for your audience, visually. However, it has an impact on slide numbers you might need to adjust accordingly and/or duplicate content changes. If you are the only one creating and using your presentation, this might be just fine. But if you are creating a presentation in collaborative mode with three other people and don't even know who will be the presenter at the end, you can mess things up. Let's be specific: most of my slides have 0.2s fly in entrance animation applied to blocks of content coming from right, bottom or left. Advancing to the next slide I want them to fly out in another 0.2s exit animation being followed by new slide 0.2s fly in entrance animation of the new blocks. The swapping of the blocks should be triggered while advancing to the next slide, as usually. As mentioned, I'm not able to achieve this without one extra click between the slides. I wrote a VBA script that should start together with an exit animation and will auto advance a slide after 0.3s when the exit animation is over. That way I should get rid of those extra clicks which are needed right now. Sub nextslide() iTime = 0.3 Start = Timer While Timer < Start + iTime DoEvents Wend With SlideShowWindows(1).View .GotoSlide (ActivePresentation.SlideShowWindow.View.Slide.SlideIndex + 1) End With End Sub It works well when binded on a box, button or another object. But I can't make it run on a single click (anywhere on the slide) so that it could start together with the exit animation onclick trigger. Creating a big transparent rectangular shape over the whole slide and binding the macro on it doesn't help either. By clicking it you only get the macro running, exit animation is not triggered. Anyway, I don't want to bind the macro to any other workaround object but the slide itself. Anyone knows how to trigger a PowerPoint VBA script on slide onclick event? Anyone knows a secret setting that will make the exit animation work as expected i.e. animating right before exiting a slide while transitioning to the next one? Anyone knows how to beat this dragon? Thank you!

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• How to prevent dual booted OSes from damaging each other?

  - by user1252434

  For better compatibility and performance in games I'm thinking about installing Windows additionally to Linux. I have security concerns about this, though. Note: "Windows" in the remaining text includes not only the OS but also any software running on it. Regardless of whether it comes included or is additionally installed, whether it is started intentionally or unintentionally (virus, malware). Is there an easy way to achieve the following requirements: Windows MUST NOT be able to kill my linux partition or my data disk neither single files (virus infection) nor overwriting the whole disk Windows MUST NOT be able to read data disk (- extra protection against spyware) Linux may or may not have access to the windows partition both Linux and Windows should have full access to the graphics card this rules out desktop VM solutions for gaming I want the manufacturer's windows graphics card driver Regarding Windows to be unable to destroy my linux install: this is not just the usual paranoia, that has happened to me in the past. So I don't accept "no ext4 driver" as an argument. Once bitten, twice shy. And even if destruction targeted at specific (linux) files is nearly impossible, there should be no way to shred the whole partition. I may accept the risk of malware breaking out of a barrier (e.g. VM) around the whole windows box, though. Currently I have a system disk (SSD) and a data disk (HDD), both SATA. I expect I have to add another disk. If i don't: even better. My CPU is a Intel Core i5, with VT-x and VT-d available, though untested. Ideas I've had so far: deactivate or hide other HDs until reboot at low level possible? can the boot loader (grub) do this for me? tiny VM layer: load windows in a VM that provides access to almost all hardware, except the HDs any ready made software solution for this? Preferably free. as I said: the main problem seems to be to provide full access to the graphics card hardware switch to cut power to disks commercial products expensive and lots of warnings against cheap home built solutions preferably all three hard disks with one switch (one push) mobile racks - won't wear of daily swapping be a problem?

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• Remote access to internal machine (ssh port-forwarding)

  - by MacUsers

  I have a server (serv05) at work with a public ip, hosting two KVM guests - vtest1 & vtest2 - in two different private network - 192.168.122.0 & 192.168.100.0 - respectively, this way: [root@serv05 ~]# ip -o addr show | grep -w inet 1: lo inet 127.0.0.1/8 scope host lo 2: eth0 inet xxx.xxx.xx.197/24 brd xxx.xxx.xx.255 scope global eth0 4: virbr1 inet 192.168.100.1/24 brd 192.168.100.255 scope global virbr1 6: virbr0 inet 192.168.122.1/24 brd 192.168.122.255 scope global virbr0 # [root@serv05 ~]# route -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 192.168.100.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 virbr1 xxx.xxx.xx.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 192.168.122.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 virbr0 169.254.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 U 1002 0 0 eth0 0.0.0.0 xxx.xxx.xx.62 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 I've also setup IP FORWARDing and Masquerading this way: iptables --table nat --append POSTROUTING --out-interface eth0 -j MASQUERADE iptables --append FORWARD --in-interface virbr0 -j ACCEPT All works up to this point. If I want to remote access vtest1 (or vtest2) first I ssh to serv05 and then from there ssh to vtest1. Is there a way to setup a port forwarding so that vtest1 can be accessed directly from the outside world? This is what I probably need to setup: external_ip (tcp port 4444) -> DNAT -> 192.168.122.50 (tcp port 22) I know it's easily do'able using a SOHO router but can't figure out how can I do that on a Linux box. Any help form you guys?? Cheers!! Update: 1 Now I've made ssh to listen to both of the ports: [root@serv05 ssh]# netstat -tulpn | grep ssh tcp 0 0 xxx.xxx.xx.197:22 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 5092/sshd tcp 0 0 xxx.xxx.xx.197:4444 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 5092/sshd and port 4444 is allowed in the iptables rules: [root@serv05 sysconfig]# grep 4444 iptables -A PREROUTING -i eth0 -p tcp -m tcp --dport 4444 -j DNAT --to-destination 192.168.122.50:22 -A INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 4444 -j ACCEPT -A FORWARD -i eth0 -p tcp -m tcp --dport 4444 -j ACCEPT But I'm getting connection refused: maci:~ santa$ telnet serv05 4444 Trying xxx.xxx.xx.197... telnet: connect to address xxx.xxx.xx.197: Connection refused telnet: Unable to connect to remote host Any idea what's I'm still missing? Cheers!!

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• How to link specific ports to specific domains with Apache virtual hosts?

  - by theJoe

  We have a forward-facing linux box running Apache HTTP server that is acting as a reverse proxy for several back-end servers. The servers are accessed through specific domain names and ports and are set up as virtual hosts within Apache as such: Listen 8001 Listen 8002 <Virtualhost *:8001> ServerName service.one.mycompany.com ProxyPass / http://internal.one.mycompany.com:8001/ ProxyPassReverse / http://internal.one.mycompany.com:8001/ RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_METHOD} ^(TRACE|TRACK) RewriteRule .* - [F] </Virtualhost> <Virtualhost *:8002> ServerName service.two.mycompany.com ProxyPass / http://internal.two.mycompany.com:8002/ ProxyPassReverse / http://internal.two.mycompany.com:8002/ RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_METHOD} ^(TRACE|TRACK) RewriteRule .* - [F] </Virtualhost> The proxy server has only one IP address, and both domains are pointing to it. Accessing internal.one via service.one works fine, as does accessing internal.two via service.two. Now the problem is that Apache does not take the requesting domain into account when accessing the virtual hosts. What I mean is that both domains work for both ports: requests for service.one:8002 proxies to internal.two:8002, and requests for service.two:8001 proxies to internal.one:8001, where ideally both these requests should be denied. I can get around this by creating more virtual hosts that explicitly deny these requests: NameVirtualHost *:8001 NameVirtualHost *:8002 <Virtualhost *:8001> ServerName service.two.mycompany.com Redirect permanent / http://errorpage.mycompany.com/ </Virtualhost> <Virtualhost *:8002> ServerName service.one.mycompany.com Redirect permanent / http://errorpage.mycompany.com/ </Virtualhost> But this is not an ideal solution, since we plan to add more services to the proxy, and each new port would need to be explicitly denied on all the other domains, and each new domain would need to be explicitly denied on all ports it is not utilizing. As we add more services, the number of virtual hosts can get out of hand quickly. My question, then, is whether there is a better way? Can we explicitly tie specific ports to specific domains in a virtual host so that only that domain-port combination is processed, and all other combinations are not? Things I’ve tried: Adding NameVirtualHost *:8001, etc. without the additional virtual hosts. Setting ProxyRequests On and Off, as well as ProxyPreserveHost On and Off Adding the server name or IP address to the virtual host header, e.g. <VirtualHost service.one.mycompany.com:8001> Using the <proxy> directive inside the virtual host directive. Lots and lots of googling. The proxy server is running CentOS 6.2 64-bit, Apache HTTPD server 2.2.15. As mentioned, the proxy server has only one IP address, and all the domains we are using are pointing to it.

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• MySQL performance over a (local) network much slower than I would expect

  - by user15241

  MySQL queries in my production environment are taking much longer than I would expect them too. The site in question is a fairly large Drupal site, with many modules installed. The webserver (Nginx) and database server (mysql) are hosted on separated machines, connected by a 100mbps LAN connection (hosted by Rackspace). I have the exact same site running on my laptop for development. Obviously, on my laptop, the webserver and database server are on the same box. Here are the results of my database query times: Production: Executed 291 queries in 320.33 milliseconds. (homepage) Executed 517 queries in 999.81 milliseconds. (content page) Development: Executed 316 queries in 46.28 milliseconds. (homepage) Executed 586 queries in 79.09 milliseconds. (content page) As can clearly be seen from these results, the time involved with querying the MySQL database is much shorter on my laptop, where the MySQL server is running on the same database as the web server. Why is this?! One factor must be the network latency. On average, a round trip from from the webserver to the database server takes 0.16ms (shown by ping). That must be added to every singe MySQL query. So, taking the content page example above, where there are 517 queries executed. Network latency alone will add 82ms to the total query time. However, that doesn't account for the difference I am seeing (79ms on my laptop vs 999ms on the production boxes). What other factors should I be looking at? I had thought about upgrading the NIC to a gigabit connection, but clearly there is something else involved. I have run the MySQL performance tuning script from http://www.day32.com/MySQL/ and it tells me that my database server is configured well (better than my laptop apparently). The only problem reported is "Of 4394 temp tables, 48% were created on disk". This is true in both environments and in the production environment I have even tried increasing max_heap_table_size and Current tmp_table_size to 1GB, with no change (I think this is because I have some BLOB and TEXT columns).

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• debugging JBoss 100% CPU usage

  - by Nate

  We are using JBoss to run two of our WARs. One is our web app, the other is our web service. The web app accesses a database on another machine and makes requests to the web service. The web service makes JMS requests to other machines, aggregates the data, and returns it. At our biggest client, about once a month the JBoss Java process takes 100% of all CPUs. The machine running JBoss has 8 CPUs. Our web app is still accessible during this time, however pages take about 3 minutes to load. Restarting JBoss restores everything to normal. The database machine and all the other machines are fine, only the machine running JBoss is affected. Memory usage is normal. Network utilization is normal. There are no suspect error messages in the JBoss logs. I have set up a test environment as close as possible to the client's production environment and I've done load testing with as much as 2x the number of concurrent users. I have not gotten my test environment to replicate the problem. Where do we go from here? How can we narrow down the problem? Currently the only plan we have is to wait until the problem occurs in production on its own, then do some debugging to determine the cause. So far people have just restarted JBoss when the problem occurred to minimize down time. Next time it happens they will get a developer to take a look. The question is, next time it happens, what can be done to determine the cause? We could setup a separate JBoss instance on the same box and install the web app separately from the web service. This way when the problem next occurs we will know which WAR has the problem (assuming it is our code). This doesn't narrow it down much though. Should I enable JMX remote? This way the next time the problem occurs I can connect with VisualVM and see which threads are taking the CPU and what the hell they are doing. However, is there a significant down side to enabling JMX remote in a production environment? Is there another way to see what threads are eating the CPU and to get a stacktrace to see what they are doing? Any other ideas? Thanks!

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• Is there a way to replicate a very large file shares in real-time?

  - by fsckin

  I have an hourly cron job that copies about 40GB of data from a source folder into a new folder with the hour appended on the end. When it's done, the job prunes anything older than 24 hours. This data changes very often during work hours and is on a samba file share. Here's how the folder structure looks: \server\Version.1 \server\Version.2 \server\Version.3 ... \server\Version.24 The contents of each new folder compared to the last one usually doesn't change very much, since this is a hourly job. Now you might be thinking that I'm an idiot for setting dreaming this up. Truth is, I just found out. It's actually been used for years and is so incredibly simple, anyone could delete the ENTIRE 40GB share (imagine that dialog spooling up... deleting thousands and thousands of files) and it would actually be faster to restore by moving the latest copy back to the source than it took to delete. Brilliant! Now to top this off, I need to efficiently replicate this 960GB of "mostly similar" data to a remote server over WAN link, with the replication happening as close to real-time as possible -- think hot spare, disaster recovery, etc. My first thought was rsync. Total failure. Rsync sees it sees a deletion of the folder that is 24 hours old and the addition of a new folder with 30GB of data to sync! I also looked at rdiff-backup and unison, they both appear to use similar algorithms and do not keep enough meta-data to do this intelligently. Best thing that I can find "out of the box" to do this is Windows Server "Distributed Filesystem Replication" which uses "Remote Differential Compression" -- After reading the background information on how this works, it actually looks like exactly what I need. Problem: Both servers are running Linux. D'oh! One approach to this I'm looking at is this, say it's 5AM and the cron job finishes: New Version.5 folder arrives at on local server SSH to remote server and copy Version.4 to Version.5 Run rsync on the local server pushing changes to the remote server. Rsync finally knows to do a differential copy between Version.4 and Version.5 Is there a smarter way to replicate Samba shares as close to real-time as possible? Anything out there that does "Remote Differential Compression" on Linux?

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• [CentOS 4.8] nslookup resolves domains to IPs, but I can't get a response to pings to external servers

  - by Beco

  I have a fresh install of CentOS 4.8 running on an internal development server. I haven't done anything to it besides setting up sudoers and SSH. I can SSH into the server and from there resolve domains to IPs and ping internal servers, but for some reason I don't get any response from pinging external servers. The software firewall is disabled, and the problem is present with both static and DHCP-assigned network configurations. The network domain controller is a Windows Server 2003 box. $ nslookup google.com Server: 10.254.2.5 Address: 10.254.2.5#53 Non-authoritative answer: Name: google.com Address: 74.125.47.147 Name: google.com Address: 74.125.47.99 <etc...> 10.254.2.5 is the Win2K3 server. $ ping google.com PING google.com (74.125.47.106) 56(84) bytes of data. It just hangs here indefinitely. $ cat /etc/resolv.conf ; generated by /sbin/dhclient-script search <...snip...>.local nameserver 10.254.2.5 nameserver 10.254.2.124 10.254.2.124 is the backup DC server, which is currently off and tombstoned by this point. The snipped section is our company name. # ifconfig eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr <snip> inet addr:10.254.2.101 Bcast:10.254.2.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 inet6 addr: <snip>/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:80066 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:4421 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:7810133 (7.4 MiB) TX bytes:590550 (576.7 KiB) Interrupt:225 Base address:0xc000 lo Link encap:Local Loopback inet addr:127.0.0.1 Mask:255.0.0.0 inet6 addr: ::1/128 Scope:Host UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:32 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:32 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:8104 (7.9 KiB) TX bytes:8104 (7.9 KiB) # route -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 10.254.2.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 169.254.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 0.0.0.0 10.254.2.5 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 And, for good measure, a snapshot of the current ethernet config via the system-config-network GUI. Edit: I don't yet have enough rep to post images, so here's a link. Sorry! system-config-network snapshot I'm pretty green when it comes to setting up *nix dev servers and network configuration in general, so please let me know if I've left out critical information, or posted information I shouldn't have posted. Thanks!

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• What server setup for a small web development company? [closed]

  - by Giordano

  I co-own a company with a friend of mine and we have decided to buy a new server to support our business (our current server is an Asus EEE Box, working great but too limited :) ). I should mention that we are web developers but occasionally we do small-office sys admin. Thus, 99% of time we work on GNU/Linux (mainly Ubuntu) but from time to time we need to setup a Windows environment to assist some customers (e.g. setup a temporary SQL Server 2008). Our requirements: Low budget: we don't want the cheapest solution out there but we can't afford to spend too much. Budget could be ~1000-1500€ (before VAT) Robustness: we would like to setup a RAID array and maybe have an external disk where we can store backups Virtualization: we need to be able to setup few servers for development. The scenario is something like this (~8 appliances running in parallel): Redmine + GIT server Bacula server FTP server 3-4 virtual appliances that could be set up on demand to test our applications or support a customer. The appliances could be: LAMP, Tomcat+PostgreSQL, SQL Server Support: if something breaks down it shouldn't be too difficult to find a replacement. Now, given the main requirements, there are some doubts we need to clarify: Do you suggest to buy a prepackaged solution (for example a customized Dell PowerEdge T110 or T310) or to assemble the server by ourselves (buy the separate components)? What RAID configuration do you suggest? I was thinking of RAID1 (probably cheaper) or RAID5. should we buy a hardware RAID controller or is it ok to use a software RAID (mdadm)? In case, which controller do you suggest? What processor do you suggest (Intel Xeon, i3, i5, i7, AMD)? How much RAM? (I was thinking at least 8GB, ~1GB per appliance) What virtualization software do you recommend? VMWare seems to be the best choice, but what about XEN or KVM? We don't want to buy licenses at the moment so we would like to consider only free options. What OS do you recommend? We know Ubuntu, Debian, Gentoo very well (we would like to use Ubuntu Server), however it seems a lot of people goes for CentOS. Thanks in advance if you can help us with this! It's our first "serious" server so many doubts popped up :) Please feel free to add further recommendations if you have some to share ;) Have a nice day

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• nhibernate mapping: A collection with cascade="all-delete-orphan" was no longer referenced

  - by Chev

  Hi All I am having some probs with my fluent mappings. I have an entity with a child collection of entities i.e Event and EventItems for example. If I set my cascade mapping of the collection to AllDeleteOrphan I get the following error when saving a new entity to the DB: NHibernate.HibernateException : A collection with cascade="all-delete-orphan" was no longer referenced by the owning entity instance: Core.Event.EventItems If I set the cascade to All it works fine? Below are my classes and mapping files: public class EventMap : ClassMap<Event> { public EventMap() { Id(x => x.Id, "Id") .UnsavedValue("00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000") .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(x => x.Name); HasMany(x => x.EventItems) .Inverse() .KeyColumn("EventId") .AsBag() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } } public class EventItemMap : SubclassMap<EventItem> { public EventItemMap() { Id(x => x.Id, "Id") .UnsavedValue("00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000") .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); References(x => x.Event, "EventId"); } } public class Event : EntityBase { private IList<EventItem> _EventItems; protected Event() { InitMembers(); } public Event(string name) : this() { Name = name; } private void InitMembers() { _EventItems = new List<EventItem>(); } public virtual EventItem CreateEventItem(string name) { EventItem eventItem = new EventItem(this, name); _EventItems.Add(eventItem); return eventItem; } public virtual string Name { get; private set; } public virtual IList<EventItem> EventItems { get { return _EventItems.ToList<EventItem>().AsReadOnly(); } protected set { _EventItems = value; } } } public class EventItem : EntityBase { protected EventItem() { } public EventItem(Event @event, string name):base(name) { Event = @event; } public virtual Event Event { get; private set; } } Pretty stumped here. Any tips greatly appreciated. Chev

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• WPF CommandParameter is NULL first time CanExecute is called

  - by Jonas Follesø

  I have run into an issue with WPF and Commands that are bound to a Button inside the DataTemplate of an ItemsControl. The scenario is quite straight forward. The ItemsControl is bound to a list of objects, and I want to be able to remove each object in the list by clicking a Button. The Button executes a Command, and the Command takes care of the deletion. The CommandParameter is bound to the Object I want to delete. That way I know what the user clicked. A user should only be able to delete their "own" objects - so I need to do some checks in the "CanExecute" call of the Command to verify that the user has the right permissions. The problem is that the parameter passed to CanExecute is NULL the first time it's called - so I can't run the logic to enable/disable the command. However, if I make it allways enabled, and then click the button to execute the command, the CommandParameter is passed in correctly. So that means that the binding against the CommandParameter is working. The XAML for the ItemsControl and the DataTemplate looks like this: <ItemsControl x:Name="commentsList" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SharedDataItemPM.Comments}" Width="Auto" Height="Auto"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Button Content="Delete" FontSize="10" Command="{Binding Path=DataContext.DeleteCommentCommand, ElementName=commentsList}" CommandParameter="{Binding}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> So as you can see I have a list of Comments objects. I want the CommandParameter of the DeleteCommentCommand to be bound to the Command object. So I guess my question is: have anyone experienced this problem before? CanExecute gets called on my Command, but the parameter is always NULL the first time - why is that? Update: I was able to narrow the problem down a little. I added an empty Debug ValueConverter so that I could output a message when the CommandParameter is data bound. Turns out the problem is that the CanExecute method is executed before the CommandParameter is bound to the button. I have tried to set the CommandParameter before the Command (like suggested) - but it still doesn't work. Any tips on how to control it. Update2: Is there any way to detect when the binding is "done", so that I can force re-evaluation of the command? Also - is it a problem that I have multiple Buttons (one for each item in the ItemsControl) that bind to the same instance of a Command-object? Update3: I have uploaded a reproduction of the bug to my SkyDrive: http://cid-1a08c11c407c0d8e.skydrive.live.com/self.aspx/Code%20samples/CommandParameterBinding.zip

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• Dissertation about website and database security - in need of some pointers

  - by ClarkeyBoy

  Hi, I am on my dissertation in my final year at university at the moment. One of the areas I need to research is security - for both websites and for databases. I currently have sections on the following: Website Form security - such as data validation. This section is more about preventing errors made by legitimate users as much as possible rather than stopping hackers, for example comparing a field to a regular expression and giving them meaningful feedback on any errors which did occur so as to stop it happening again. Constraints. For example if a value must be true or false then use a checkbox. If it is likely to be one of several values then use a dropdown or a set of radio boxes, and so on. If the value is unpredictable then use regular expressions to limit what characters they are allowed to enter, and to restrict the length of the string, and sometimes to limit the format (such as for dates / times, post codes and so on). Sometimes you can limit permissions to the form. This is on the occasion that you know exactly who (whether it be peoples names or a group of people - such as administrators or employees) is going to need access to the form. Restricting permissions will stop members of the public from being able to access the form. Symbols or strings which could be used maliciously or cause the website to act incorrectly (such as the script tag) should be filtered out or html encoded. Captcha images can be used to prevent automated systems from filling in and submitting the form. There are some hacks for file uploads - such as using double extensions - which can allow hackers to upload malicious files. Databases (this is nowhere near done yet but the sections I have planned are listed below) SQL statements vs stored procedures Throwing an error when one of the variables contains particular characters or groups of characters (I cant remember what characters they are, but I have seen a message thrown back at me before where I have tried to enter html or something into a text area). SQL Injection - and ways around it, with some examples. Does anyone have any hints and tips on where I could go for some decent, reliable information either about these areas or about other areas of security that I could cover? Thanks in advance. Regards, Richard PS I am a complete newbie when it comes to security, so please be patient with me. If any of the information I have put down is wrong or could be sub-sectioned then please feel free to say so.

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• CSS3 Gradients to reproduce an 'inner glow' effect from Illustrator with border-radius applied

  - by iamfriendly

  Hello all! First post on here so please be kind :) I am in the process of trying to get my head properly around CSS3 Gradients (specifically radial ones) and in doing so I think I've set myself a relatively tough challenge. In Adobe Illustrator I have created a 'button' style which can be seen here: http://bit.ly/aePPtV (jpg image). To create this image I created a rectangle with a background colour of rgb(63,64,63) or #3F403F, then 'stylized' it to have a 15px border radius. I then applied an 'inner glow' to it with a 25% opacity, 8px blur, white from the center. Finally, I applied a 3pt white stroke on it. (I'm telling you all of this in case you wished to reproduce it, if the image above isn't sufficient.) So, my question is thus: is it possible to recreate this 'button' using CSS without the need for an image? I am aware of the 'limitations' of Internet Explorer (and for the sake of this experiment, I couldn't give a monkeys). I am also aware of the small 'bug' in webkit which incorrectly renders an element with a background colour, border-radius and a border (with a different color to the background-color) - it lets the background color bleed through on the curved corners. My best attempt so far is fairly pathetic, but for reference here is the code: section#featured footer p a { color: rgb(255,255,255); text-shadow: 1px 1px 1px rgba(0,0,0,0.6); text-decoration: none; padding: 5px 10px; border-radius: 15px; -moz-border-radius: 15px; -webkit-border-radius: 15px; border: 3px solid rgb(255,255,255); background: rgb(98,99,100); background: -moz-radial-gradient( 50% 50%, farthest-side, #626364, #545454 ); background: -webkit-gradient( radial, 50% 50%, 1px, 50% 50%, 5px, from(rgb(98,99,100)), to(rgb(84,84,84)) ); } Basically, terrible. Any hints or tips gratefully accepted and thank you very much in advance for them!

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• struts2 invalid.token returned when form submitted using JQuery

  - by John

  Hi, I have inherited some code in which I now have to add CSRF prevention and am trying to use the struts2 tokenSession interceptor to do this. I am adding a token to my form using the struts2 token tag like so: <form id="updateObject" name="updateObject" action="<%=request.getContextPath()%>/prv/updateObject.action" method="POST"> <fieldset class="x-fieldset"> <legend>Update object - Action Required</legend> <div>...</div> <s:token /> <s:hidden name="id" id="objectId" /> more stuff here... <input type="submit" value="Update Object" onclick="javascript:return doUpdateObject('myAction');"/> </fieldset> </form> In my javascript function, I am adding/removing some validation rules (depending upon the action required, and submitting the form: function doUpdateObject(action){ actionPanel.registerAction(action); // this function places the action name in an in-scope variable doUpdateObjectValidationSetup(action); // this function adds/removes jquery validation rules depending upon the action if($("#updateObject").valid()){ $("form#updateObject").submit(); } return false; } I have intercepted the request and a token is being added, however the struts2 tokenSession interceptor is returning invalid.token. The code works as expected without this interceptor. (struts2 xml file not posted - will post the relevant section if required). I have also used the tokenSession interceptor in other pages which use a basic html submit button (i.e. not going via javascript or jquery) and this also works as expected. What is making the token invalid? N.B. The project I have inherited uses a strange mixture of standard html, struts2 tags, ExtJS and JQuery. I will clean this up at some point but at the moment I just need to get the tokenSession interceptor working asap in the code as-is (as I have to apply a similar fix to several hundred pages...). Any help/pointers/tips/etc greatly appreciated! Regards, John

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• ASP.NET MVC2: Getting textbox data from a view to a controller

  - by mr_plumley

  Hi, I'm having difficulty getting data from a textbox into a Controller. I've read about a few ways to accomplish this in Sanderson's book, Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework, but haven't had any success. Also, I've ran across a few similiar questions online, but haven't had any success there either. Seems like I'm missing something rather fundamental. Currently, I'm trying to use the action method parameters approach. Can someone point out where I'm going wrong or provide a simple example? Thanks in advance! Using Visual Studio 2008, ASP.NET MVC2 and C#: What I would like to do is take the data entered in the "Investigator" textbox and use it to filter investigators in the controller. I plan on doing this in the List method (which is already functional), however, I'm using the SearchResults method for debugging. Here's the textbox code from my view, SearchDetails: <h2>Search Details</h2> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <fieldset> <%= Html.ValidationSummary() %> <h4>Investigator</h4> <p> <%=Html.TextBox("Investigator")%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Search", "SearchResults")%> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> Here is the code from my controller, InvestigatorsController: private IInvestigatorsRepository investigatorsRepository; public InvestigatorsController(IInvestigatorsRepository investigatorsRepository) { //IoC: this.investigatorsRepository = investigatorsRepository; } public ActionResult List() { return View(investigatorsRepository.Investigators.ToList()); } public ActionResult SearchDetails() { return View(); } public ActionResult SearchResults(SearchCriteria search) { string test = search.Investigator; return View(); } I have an Investigator class: [Table(Name = "INVESTIGATOR")] public class Investigator { [Column(IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = false, AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert)] public string INVESTID { get; set; } [Column] public string INVEST_FNAME { get; set; } [Column] public string INVEST_MNAME { get; set; } [Column] public string INVEST_LNAME { get; set; } } and created a SearchCriteria class to see if I could get MVC to push the search criteria data to it and grab it in the controller: public class SearchCriteria { public string Investigator { get; set; } } } I'm not sure if project layout has anything to do with this either, but I'm using the 3 project approach suggested by Sanderson: DomainModel, Tests, and WebUI. The Investigator and SearcCriteria classes are in the DomainModel project and the other items mentioned here are in the WebUI project. Thanks again for any hints, tips, or simple examples! Mike

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• Right-click context menu for Java JTree?

  - by arcanex

  I'm trying to implement pop-up menus in Java JTree. I've sub-classed DefaultTreeCellRenderer (to change node appearance) and DefaultTreeCellEditor (to create Components to attach event listeners to, since apparently the Components that DefaultTreeCellRenderer.getTreeCellRendererComponent() returns can't do it?). I don't really want to "edit" the nodes, just be able to pop-up a menu when a node gets right-clicked, but this is the only way I can think of doing it right now... Below is the code that I have so far-- I'm just trying to figure out how to capture MouseEvents. It sort of works, but badly. What's a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to do here? private class My_TreeCellRenderer extends DefaultTreeCellRenderer { My_TreeCellRenderer() { super (); } public Component getTreeCellRendererComponent(JTree tree, Object value, boolean selected, boolean expanded, boolean leaf, int row, boolean hasFocus) { super.getTreeCellRendererComponent(tree, value, selected, expanded, leaf, row, hasFocus); // set label text and tool tips setText(((My_Object)value).getTreeLabel()); setToolTipText(((My_Object)value).getTreeToolTip()); return this; } } private class My_TreeCellEditor extends DefaultTreeCellEditor { private MouseAdapter ma; My_TreeCellEditor(JTree tree, DefaultTreeCellRenderer renderer) { super (tree, renderer); ma = new MouseAdapter() { public void mousePressed(MouseEvent e) { if (e.isPopupTrigger()) { System.out.println("My Popup"); } } public void mouseReleased(MouseEvent e) { if (e.isPopupTrigger()) { System.out.println("My Popup"); } } }; } public Component getTreeCellEditorComponent(JTree tree, Object value, boolean selected, boolean expanded, boolean leaf, int row) { String src_filename = null; // return non-editing component Component c = renderer.getTreeCellRendererComponent(tree, value, selected, expanded, leaf, row, true); // add mouse listener if it's not listening already MouseListener mouseListeners[] = c.getMouseListeners(); int i; for (i=0; i < mouseListeners.length && mouseListeners[i] != ma; i++); if (i >= mouseListeners.length) c.addMouseListener(ma); return c; } protected boolean canEditImmediately(EventObject event) { if (event instanceof MouseEvent && ((MouseEvent)event).getClickCount() == 1) return true; else return false; } }

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• Jquery hiding all descendents of a ul tag...showing child elements as tree menu...

  - by Ronedog

  I want to hide all the descendents of the "ul" for my tree menu when the page loads up, then as each "main" "li" link is clicked display the direct child, and if the direct child has children (grandchild), when the the "Child" is clicked I want it to show the "grandchild" elements. should be simple, but some how I screwed things up and when i click on the main "li" (Heading 1) it displays all of the descendents (Including the "Sub page A - 1"), instead of just the direct children ("Sub Page A"). Which I think means the children, grandchildren, etc. were never hidden to begin with with the .hide(). What I really want to happen is to hide all the descendents (except the main top-level headings) and as I walk down the tree display the children as needed. Any tips on how to make this work? Here's the HTML: <ul id="nav"> <li>Heading 1 <ul> <li>Sub page A <ul> <li>Sub page A - 1</li> <li>Sub page A - 3</li> <li>Sub page A - 2</li> </ul> </li> <li>Sub page B</li> <li>Sub page C</li> </ul> </li> <li>Heading 2 <ul> <li>Sub page D</li> <li>Sub page E</li> <li>Sub page F</li> </ul> </li> <li>Heading 3 <ul> <li>Sub page G</li> <li>Sub page H</li> <li>Sub page I</li> </ul> </li> Here's my Jquery: $(function(){ $('#nav ul').hide(); //Supposed to Hide all <ul> tags for all descendents, but doesn't work $('#nav>li').mouseover(function(){ $(this).addClass("a_hand") }); //Add the class that displays the hand $('#nav>li').toggle(function() { $(this).find('ul').slideDown(200); }, function() { $(this).find('ul').slideUp(200); });//END TOGGLE });//END MAIN FUNCTION thanks.

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• Dojo JsonRest store and dijit.Tree

  - by user1427712

  I'm having a some problem making JSonRest store and dijit.Tree with ForestModel. I've tried some combination of JsonRestStore and json data format following many tips on the web, with no success. At the end, taking example form here http://blog.respondify.se/2011/09/using-dijit-tree-with-the-new-dojo-object-store/ I've made up this simple page (I'm using dojotolkit 1.7.2) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"> <title>Tree Model Explorer</title> <script type="text/javascript"> djConfig = { parseOnLoad : true, isDebug : true, } </script> <script type="text/javascript" djConfig="parseOnLoad: true" src="lib/dojo/dojo.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> dojo.require("dojo.parser"); dojo.require("dijit.Tree"); dojo.require("dojo.store.JsonRest"); dojo.require("dojo.data.ObjectStore"); dojo.require("dijit.tree.ForestStoreModel"); dojo.addOnLoad(function() { var objectStore = new dojo.store.JsonRest({ target : "test.json", labelAttribute : "name", idAttribute: "id" }); var dataStore = new dojo.data.ObjectStore({ objectStore : objectStore }); var treeModel = new dijit.tree.ForestStoreModel({ store : dataStore, deferItemLoadingUntilExpand : true, rootLabel : "Subjects", query : { "id" : "*" }, childrenAttrs : [ "children" ] }); var tree = new dijit.Tree({ model : treeModel }, 'treeNode'); tree.startup(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="treeNode"></div> </body> </html> My rest service responds the following json { data: [ { "id": "PippoId", "name": "Pippo", "children": [] }, { "id": "PlutoId", "name": "Pluto", "children": [] }, { "id": "PaperinoId", "name": "Paperino", "children": [] } ]} I've tried also with the following response (actually my final intention n is to use lazy loading for the tree) { data: [ { "id": "PippoId", "name": "Pippo", "$ref": "author0", "children": true }, { "id": "PlutoId", "name": "Pluto", "$ref": "author1", "children": true }, { "id": "PaperinoId", "name": "Paperino", "$ref": "author2", "children": true } ]} Neither of the two works. I see no error message in firebug. I simply see the root "Subject" on the page. Thanks to anybody could help in some way.

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• WCF help, how can I expose a service over http, that calls another service over net.tcp?

  - by Hcabnettek

  Hi All, I have a WCF .svc file hosted in IIS. I want to use basicHTTP binding. This services job is to actually call another service over net.tcp. Everything works fine locally, but when I deployed, I'm getting this error. The provided URI scheme 'http' is invalid; expected 'net.tcp'. Parameter name: via Here is the server config <client> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:9300/InternalInterfaceService" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="NetTcpBinding_IInternalInterfaceService" contract="IInternalInterfaceService" name="NetTcpBinding_IInternalInterfaceService"> <identity> <servicePrincipalName value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> </client> <services> <service name="MyExternalService"> <endpoint address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" contract="IMyExternalService" /> </service> </services> And here is the config that svcutil generates <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_IMyExternalService" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://myserver.somesdomain.com/Services/MyExternalService.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_IMyExternalService" contract="IMyInternalService" name="BasicHttpBinding_IMyExternalService" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> What do I need to do to wire this up correctly. I do not want to expose InternalInterfaceService over http. What am I doing incorrectly here? Any tips or suggestions are certainly appreciated. Thanks, ~ck

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• Injecting generics with Guice

  - by paradigmatic

  I am trying to migrate a small project, replacing some factories with Guice (it is my first Guice trial). However, I am stuck when trying to inject generics. I managed to extract a small toy example with two classes and a module: import com.google.inject.Inject; public class Console<T> { private final StringOutput<T> out; @Inject public Console(StringOutput<T> out) { this.out = out; } public void print(T t) { System.out.println(out.converter(t)); } } public class StringOutput<T> { public String converter(T t) { return t.toString(); } } import com.google.inject.AbstractModule; import com.google.inject.Guice; import com.google.inject.Injector; import com.google.inject.TypeLiteral; public class MyModule extends AbstractModule { @Override protected void configure() { bind(StringOutput.class); bind(Console.class); } public static void main(String[] args) { Injector injector = Guice.createInjector( new MyModule() ); StringOutput<Integer> out = injector.getInstance(StringOutput.class); System.out.println( out.converter(12) ); Console<Double> cons = injector.getInstance(Console.class); cons.print(123.0); } } When I run this example, all I got is: Exception in thread "main" com.google.inject.CreationException: Guice creation errors: 1) playground.StringOutput<T> cannot be used as a key; It is not fully specified. at playground.MyModule.configure(MyModule.java:15) 1 error at com.google.inject.internal.Errors.throwCreationExceptionIfErrorsExist(Errors.java:354) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder.initializeStatically(InjectorBuilder.java:152) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder.build(InjectorBuilder.java:105) at com.google.inject.Guice.createInjector(Guice.java:92) I tried looking for the error message, but without finding any useful hints. Further on the Guice FAQ I stumble upon a question about how to inject generics. I tried to add the following binding in the configure method: bind(new TypeLiteral<StringOutput<Double>>() {}).toInstance(new StringOutput<Double>()); But without success (same error message). Can someone explain me the error message and provide me some tips ? Thanks.

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• Tactics for using PHP in a high-load site

  - by Ross

  Before you answer this I have never developed anything popular enough to attain high server loads. Treat me as (sigh) an alien that has just landed on the planet, albeit one that knows PHP and a few optimisation techniques. I'm developing a tool in PHP that could attain quite a lot of users, if it works out right. However while I'm fully capable of developing the program I'm pretty much clueless when it comes to making something that can deal with huge traffic. So here's a few questions on it (feel free to turn this question into a resource thread as well). Databases At the moment I plan to use the MySQLi features in PHP5. However how should I setup the databases in relation to users and content? Do I actually need multiple databases? At the moment everything's jumbled into one database - although I've been considering spreading user data to one, actual content to another and finally core site content (template masters etc.) to another. My reasoning behind this is that sending queries to different databases will ease up the load on them as one database = 3 load sources. Also would this still be effective if they were all on the same server? Caching I have a template system that is used to build the pages and swap out variables. Master templates are stored in the database and each time a template is called it's cached copy (a html document) is called. At the moment I have two types of variable in these templates - a static var and a dynamic var. Static vars are usually things like page names, the name of the site - things that don't change often; dynamic vars are things that change on each page load. My question on this: Say I have comments on different articles. Which is a better solution: store the simple comment template and render comments (from a DB call) each time the page is loaded or store a cached copy of the comments page as a html page - each time a comment is added/edited/deleted the page is recached. Finally Does anyone have any tips/pointers for running a high load site on PHP. I'm pretty sure it's a workable language to use - Facebook and Yahoo! give it great precedence - but are there any experiences I should watch out for? Thanks, Ross

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• Visual Web Developer 2008 Express and XHTML 1.1 (not applying)

  - by Mike Valeriano

  Hello. I may be missing something since I'm not used to work with IDEs for web development, so please understand if I'm doing something stupid. I've picked a copy of Beginning ASP.NET 3.5 in C# and VB to try and learn this thing quickly. I'm no HTML guru, but I know something about the DTDs and I want to either use XHTML 1.0 Strict or XHTML 1.1 while learning the ins and outs of ASP.NET. Following the book (just started actually), I'm not having any trouble understanding the concepts, since I have a C# background, but what I don't understand is how VWD goes about applying the schema you select for validation. The book explains that the drop-down list on the toolbar is enough to set this, so that's what I did: I've selected XHTML 1.1 (since there is no 1.0 strict option, what I find really odd) and then started the project. The thing is that the code generated automatically for the Default page had the XHTML 1.0 transitional DTD. Every other page added had the same DTD, even though XHTML 1.1 is still the selected schema in the drop-down list. I decided to test it out and there it was: inserting some text in the design view and then applying a bold formatting just inserted < b tags on the code. Changing color does add a span tag with added CSS though. What I want to know is: if I want strict XHTML (or 1.1) should I just code it manually? Or is there a "fix" for this problem (having a schema selected but not applied by the IDE)? Am I missing something really easy and dumb? I have no problem with coding it manually - I actually prefer doing that. The thing is that I really wanna try this WYSIWYG approach for once, since some developers swear by it. Plus I don't know yet if I'll need special tags for ASP.NET, so I think having them inserted automatically should be the best practice. I couldn't find any similar problems around (MSDN, Google, here), and as far as the book goes (up to the point I've read), this is the expected VWD behavior, which I find suspect at least. Sorry for the long text (and poor English - not my primary language). Thanks in advance for any help/tips.

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• How to better create stacked bar graphs with multiple variables from ggplot2?

  - by deoksu

  I often have to make stacked barplots to compare variables, and because I do all my stats in R, I prefer to do all my graphics in R with ggplot2. I would like to learn how to do two things: First, I would like to be able to add proper percentage tick marks for each variable rather than tick marks by count. Counts would be confusing, which is why I take out the axis labels completely. Second, there must be a simpler way to reorganize my data to make this happen. It seems like the sort of thing I should be able to do natively in ggplot2 with plyR, but the documentation for plyR is not very clear (and I have read both the ggplot2 book and the online plyR documentation. My best graph looks like this, the code to create it follows: the R code I use to get it is the following: library(epicalc) ### recode the variables to factors ### recode(c(int_newcoun, int_newneigh, int_neweur, int_newusa, int_neweco, int_newit, int_newen, int_newsp, int_newhr, int_newlit, int_newent, int_newrel, int_newhth, int_bapo, int_wopo, int_eupo, int_educ), c(1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9, NA), c('Very Interested','Somewhat Interested','Not Very Interested','Not At All interested',NA,NA,NA,NA,NA,NA)) ### Combine recoded variables to a common vector Interest1<-c(int_newcoun, int_newneigh, int_neweur, int_newusa, int_neweco, int_newit, int_newen, int_newsp, int_newhr, int_newlit, int_newent, int_newrel, int_newhth, int_bapo, int_wopo, int_eupo, int_educ) ### Create a second vector to label the first vector by original variable ### a1<-rep("News about Bangladesh", length(int_newcoun)) a2<-rep("Neighboring Countries", length(int_newneigh)) [...] a17<-rep("Education", length(int_educ)) Interest2<-c(a1, a2, a3, a4, a5, a6, a7, a8, a9, a10, a11, a12, a13, a14, a15, a16, a17) ### Create a Weighting vector of the proper length ### Interest.weight<-rep(weight, 17) ### Make and save a new data frame from the three vectors ### Interest.df<-cbind(Interest1, Interest2, Interest.weight) Interest.df<-as.data.frame(Interest.df) write.csv(Interest.df, 'C:\\Documents and Settings\\[name]\\Desktop\\Sweave\\InterestBangladesh.csv') ### Sort the factor levels to display properly ### Interest.df$Interest1<-relevel(Interest$Interest1, ref='Not Very Interested') Interest.df$Interest1<-relevel(Interest$Interest1, ref='Somewhat Interested') Interest.df$Interest1<-relevel(Interest$Interest1, ref='Very Interested') Interest.df$Interest2<-relevel(Interest$Interest2, ref='News about Bangladesh') Interest.df$Interest2<-relevel(Interest$Interest2, ref='Education') [...] Interest.df$Interest2<-relevel(Interest$Interest2, ref='European Politics') detach(Interest) attach(Interest) ### Finally create the graph in ggplot2 ### library(ggplot2) p<-ggplot(Interest, aes(Interest2, ..count..)) p<-p+geom_bar((aes(weight=Interest.weight, fill=Interest1))) p<-p+coord_flip() p<-p+scale_y_continuous("", breaks=NA) p<-p+scale_fill_manual(value = rev(brewer.pal(5, "Purples"))) p update_labels(p, list(fill='', x='', y='')) I'd very much appreciate any tips, tricks or hints. Thanks.

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