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• What problems do you find with this view on domain-driven design?

  - by Bozho

  I just wrote a long (and messy) blogpost about my view on domain-driven design at present day, with frameworks like spring and hibernate massively in use. I'd ask you to spot any problems with my views on the matter - why this won't work, why it isn't giving the benefits of DDD, why it is not a good idea in general. The blogpost is here (I don't think I need to copy-paste it on SO - if you think I should, tell me). I know the question is subjective, but it is aimed at gathering the most predominant opinions. (I'm tagging Java, since the frameworks discussed are Java frameworks)

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• Why don't Domain class static methods work from inside a grails "service"?

  - by ?????

  I want a grails service to be able to access Domain static methods, for queries, etc. For example, in a controller, I can call IncomingCall.count() to get the number of records in table "IncomingCall" but if I try to do this from inside a service, I get the error: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'incomingStatusService': Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is groovy.lang.MissingMethodException: No signature of method: static ms.wdw.tropocontrol.IncomingCall.count() is applicable for argument types: () values: [] How do these methods get injected? There's no magic def statement in a controller that appears to do this. Or is the problem that Hibernate isn't available from my Service class?

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• Table Disobeys W3C Box Model, Ie8 Ignores Fixed Table Width !

  - by Axel Myers

  Hi, I'm having hard time with tables and column widths. Update: I'm using XHTML Strict 1.0. The page is: http://www.pro-turk.net/try The first problem I have is, I have a column with a fixed width of 100px and 4px padding, but it disobeys my padding depending on the value. The column width (as the distance between two borders according to W3C Box Model) is 156 px even if padding is 0 or 4. Only the position of the text changes. According to W3C Box Model ( available at www.pro-turk.net/box_model.png ), borders and paddings aren't included in WIDTH attribute, so why does it render wrongly ? The second problem is, when you look the page I gave with IE8, the first cell in the second row has 150px fixed width, but ie shows it about 50% of the total table width regardless of what i say.

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• Storing GenericForeignKey content_type in another model?

  - by slypete

  I have a typical definition/instance situation in my data modeling. I'm trying to store the content_type of a GenericForeignKey in another model (the definition model) like so: class IndicatorFieldInstance(models.Model): definition = models.ForeignKey(IndicatorField) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey(definition.content_type, 'object_id') indicator_instance = models.ForeignKey(IndicatorInstance) I've also tried it like this: content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('definition__content_type', 'object_id') Neither of these methods seem to work. Is it possible to achieve this? For reference, here's the definition model: class IndicatorField(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length='255') content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) indicator = models.ForeignKey(Indicator) Thanks, Pete

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• Can a Client Link to My JavaScript, Hosted on a Different Domain?

  - by DaveDev

  Is it possible for me to supply a client with a snippet of HTML which contains a reference to a javascript file that I host? They want to paste this HTML into their CMS, so that when their page loads, it'll load our content. I was under the impression that there was cross domain security preventing this from being possible. What if, instead of linking to the JavaScript, I gave them the snippet of HTML with the JavaScript already included so instead of <div> <!-- link to js --> </div> I gave them <div> $.get(/*url to my content*/); </div> Would that work?

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• Django display manytomany field in form when definition is on other model

  - by John

  Hi I have the definition for my manytomany relationship on one model but want to display the field on the form of my other model. How do I do this? for example: # classes class modelA(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=300) manytomany = models.ManyToManyField(modelA) class modelB(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=300) # forms class modelBForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = modelB If I then used modelBForm it would show a select box with the models from modelA rather than just name. Thanks

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• Grails unit testing domain classes with Set properties - is this safe?

  - by Ali G

  I've created a domain class in Grails like this: class MyObject { static hasMany = [tags: String] // Have to declare this here, as nullable constraint does not seem to be honoured Set tags = new HashSet() static constraints = { tags(nullable: false) } } Writing unit tests to check the size and content of the MyObject.tags property, I found I had to do the following: assertLength(x, myObject.tags as Object[]) assertEquals(new HashSet([...]), myObject.tags) To make the syntax nicer for writing the tests, I implemented the following methods: void assertEquals(List expected, Set actual) { assertEquals(new HashSet(expected), actual) } void assertLength(int expected, Set set) { assertLength(expected, set as Object[]) } I can now call the assertLength() and assertEquals() methods directly on an instance of Set, e.g. assertLength(x, myObject.tags) assertEquals([...], myObject.tags) I'm new to Groovy and Grails, so unaware how dangerous method overloading like this is. Is it safe? If so, I'm slightly* surprised that these methods (or similar) aren't already available - please let me know if they are. * I can see how these methods could also introduce ambiguity if people weren't expecting them. E.g. assertLength(1, set) always passes, no matter what the content of set

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• Can I create a transaction using ADO NET Entity Data Model?

  - by Junior Mayhé

  Hi is it possible on the following try-catch to execute a set of statements as a transaction using ADO NET Entity Data Model? [ValidateInput(false)] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(Customer c) { try { c.Created = DateTime.Now; c.Active = true; c.FullName = Request.Form["FirstName"]; db.AddToCustomer(c); db.SaveChanges(); Log log = new Log();//another entity model object log.Created = DateTime.Now; log.Message = string.Format(@"A new customer was created with customerID {0}", c.CustomerID); db.AddToLog(log); db.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("CreateSuccess", "Customer"); } catch { return View(); } } Any thoughts would be very appreciated.

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• How to map a Entity Data Model conceptual model property to a storage model column using the "Serial

  - by codekaizen

  I have a conceptual model in EDM where one of the entities has a property which is essentially a big value object whose properties aren't really useful as columns in the datamodel. I'd like to apply the Serialized LOB pattern to it so that I can fit it into a 192 byte binary column. How do I map this in the EDM v4? Is it even possible at this time? Actually, is it possible in any ORM?

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• how to save a fitted R model for later use

  - by ahala

  Sorry for this novice question: if I fit a lm() model or loess() model, and save the model somewhere in a file or in database, for later using by third party with predict() method, do I have to save the entire model object? Since returned model object contains orginal raw data, this returned object can be huge.

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• Which type of Rails model association should I use in this situation?

  - by jstayton

  I have two models/tables in my Rails application: discussions and comments. Each discussion has_many comments, and each comment belongs_to a discussion. My discussions table also includes a first_comment_id column and last_comment_id column for convenience and speed. I want to be able to call discussion.last_comment for the last comment model, but the following (in my discussion model) isn't working to make this happen: has_one :first_comment, :class_name => "Comment" has_one :last_comment, :class_name => "Comment" When I call discussion.last_comment, the following SQL is run: SELECT * FROM `comments` WHERE (`comments`.discussion_id = 1) LIMIT 1 It's using the discussions.id column to join against comments.discussion_id, when I want it to join discussions.last_comment_id against comments.id. Am I using the wrong type of association here? Thanks for your help!

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• WPF List of ViewModels bound to list of Model objects.

  - by Eric

  In the model, I have: public ObservableCollection<Item> Items { get; private set; } In the ViewModel, I have a corresponding list of ItemViewModels: public ObservableCollection<ItemViewModel> ItemViewModels ... In the XAML, I will bind (in this case a TreeView) to the ItemViewModels property. My question is, what goes in the "..." in the ViewModel shown above? I am hoping for a line or two of code to binds these two ObservableCollections (providing the type of the ViewModel to construct for each model object). However, what I'm fearing is necessary is a bunch of code to handle the Items.CollectionChanged event and manually updates the ItemViewModels list by constructing ViewModels as necessary. Thanks! Eric

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• Rails multi level model security

  - by rballz

  I have the need to do the following in Rails to mirror a desktop application: a User and an Office 'owns' a record, if you don't own the record on a user or office level you're kicked into the public realm. user gets read,write,delete to the model record office gets read/write/delete to the model record other or public gets read/write/delete to the model record e.g. UserA owns a model record with read/write/delete OfficeA owns a model with read/write other/public gets read I was wondering if a plugin/gem existed to grant this functionality?

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• Which Java Web Framework allows Cross-Domain Javascripting (http proxy) ?

  - by snsd

  So just a quick intro, I am starting to explore Vaadin, and it's absolutely perfect. Previously, I was juggling PHP, Perl, Ruby, and Jquery for designing rich client web application. It didn't work out too well, as I've burnt out from trying to fix cross browser issues (aka get-it-to-work-on-IE-damn-it), handling server-side, client-side, and building a robust communication between the two tier had lot of code not related to application logic....by the time I was burnt out, only tiny bit of application logic was implemented. Vaadin seems like the answer to my problem as it only requires Java and built on top of GWT. However, I am curious how I can incorporate Cross-Domain Javascripting ? Back in LAMP environment, I had a CGI proxy script that loaded external URL, and injected JS into the proxy-loaded page. I used the CGI proxy script, as it rendered Javascript of the external URL well. Is there a class or package for Java or a specific Java web framework similiar to Vaadin that makes this possible ? Thank you.

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• Why can't I register a custom model binder for a List<int>?

  - by quarksoup

  I have an action that looks like public ActionResult GetUsers(List<int> userIds) {//do stuff} The list of userIds can become quite long, so I want to use Json.Net to deserialize it. To do so I created an IModelBinder implementation, which works fine for other objects, but never gets called for a List. The IModelBind looks like this public class JsonBinder : System.Web.Mvc.IModelBinder { public object BindModel(System.Web.Mvc.ControllerContext controllerContext, System.Web.Mvc.ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { //Do model binding stuff using Json.Net } } And I register this model binder with this line ModelBinders.Binders.Add(typeof(List<int>), new JsonBinder()); However the JsonBinder is never called. Why is this? Should I be using a ValueProvider?

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• Is it valid to include view code in Model?

  - by Shreekumar S

  Guys I'm new to RoR and MVC. I've a model which deals with loan beneficiary's data. To access the structured data (including small piece of HTML data) I created a method like this class Beneficiary < ActiveRecord::Base   def info   "#{name}</br>#{age},#{sex}</br><b>Address :</b>#{address}"   end end And in the view, I'm using this info something like this <%= @b.info.html_safe %> were, b is an instance of Beneficiary class It's working fine for me. I just want to know that, Am i violating the MVC rule here? Is it valid to include view code in Model?

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• Virtualmin domain name registration php

  - by David Maitland

  in a PHP web page i need to run this following command to create a new domain: virtualmin create-domain --domain DOMAIN --pass PASS --plan 'Standard Package' --limits-from-plan --features-from-plan This is usually executed in a shell but i don't know how to do it from a web page and also i need to take the domain string and pass string from a web form. Can anyone help with the PHP code as my skills are basic and i have already tried a few things that just don't work. Thanks.

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• Use a custom value object or a Guid as an entity identifier in a distributed system?

  - by Kazark

  tl;dr I've been told that in domain-driven design, an identifier for an entity could be a custom value object, i.e. something other than Guid, string, int, etc. Can this really be advisable in a distributed system? Long version I will invent an situation analogous to the one I am currently facing. Say I have a distributed system in which a central concept is an egg. The system allows you to order eggs and see spending reports and inventory-centric data such as quantity on hand, usage, valuation and what have you. There area variety of services backing these behaviors. And say there is also another app which allows you to compose recipes that link to a particular egg type. Now egg type is broken down by the species—ostrich, goose, duck, chicken, quail. This is fine and dandy because it means that users don't end up with ostrich eggs when they wanted quail eggs and whatnot. However, we've been getting complaints because jumbo chicken eggs are not even close to equivalent to small ones. The price is different, and they really aren't substitutable in recipes. And here we thought we were doing users a favor by not overwhelming them with too many options. Currently each of the services (say, OrderSubmitter, EggTypeDefiner, SpendingReportsGenerator, InventoryTracker, RecipeCreator, RecipeTracker, or whatever) are identifying egg types with an industry-standard integer representation the species (let's call it speciesCode). We realize we've goofed up because this change could effect every service. There are two basic proposed solutions: Use a predefined identifier type like Guid as the eggTypeID throughout all the services, but make EggTypeDefiner the only service that knows that this maps to a speciesCode and eggSizeCode (and potentially to an isOrganic flag in the future, or whatever). Use an EggTypeID value object which is a combination of speciesCode and eggSizeCode in every service. I've proposed the first solution because I'm hoping it better encapsulates the definition of what an egg type is in the EggTypeDefiner and will be more resilient to changes, say if some people now want to differentiate eggs by whether or not they are "organic". The second solution is being suggested by some people who understand DDD better than I do in the hopes that less enrichment and lookup will be necessary that way, with the justification that in DDD using a value object as an ID is fine. Also, they are saying that EggTypeDefiner is not a domain and EggType is not an entity and as such should not have a Guid for an ID. However, I'm not sure the second solution is viable. This "value object" is going to have to be serialized into JSON and URLs for GET requests and used with a variety of technologies (C#, JavaScript...) which breaks encapsulation and thus removes any behavior of the identifier value object (is either of the fields optional? etc.) Is this a case where we want to avoid something that would normally be fine in DDD because we are trying to do DDD in a distributed fashion? Summary Can it be a good idea to use a custom value object as an identifier in a distributed system (solution #2)?

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• SQL SERVER – Mirroring Configured Without Domain – The server network address TCP://SQLServerName:50

  - by pinaldave

  Regular readers of my blog will be aware of my friend who called me few days ago with very a funny SQL Problem SQL SERVER – SSMS Query Command(s) completed successfully without ANY Results. This time, it did not take long before he called me up with another interesting problem, although the issue he was facing this time was not that interesting and also very specific to him, however, he insisted me to share with all of you. Let us understand his situation at first. My friend is preparing for DBA exam Exam 70-450: PRO: Designing, Optimizing and Maintaining a Database Server Infrastructure using Microsoft SQL Server 2008 and for the same, he was trying to set up replication on his local laptop. He had installed two different instances of SQL Server on his computer and every time when he started the mirroring, it failed with common error message. The server network address “TCP://SQLServer:5023? cannot be reached or does not exist. Check the network address name and that the ports for the local and remote endpoints are operational. (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 1418) Well, before he contacted me, he searched online and checked my article written on the error in mirroring. However, he tried all the four suggestions, but it did not solve his problem. He called me at a reasonable time of late evening (unlike last time, which was midnight!). I even tried all the seven different suggestions myself, as previously proposed in my article; however, none of them worked. While looking at closely at services, I noticed something very simple. He was running all the instances on ‘Network Services’. In fact, his computer was a stand-alone computer. There was no network at all. Also, there was no domain or any other advance network concepts implemented. I just changed services from ‘Network Services’ to ‘Local System’ as his SQL Server was running on his local system and there were no network services. This prompted to restart the services. As this was not the production server and his development machine, we restarted the services on the laptop (do not restart services on production server without proper planning). After changing the ‘services log on’ account to localsystem, when he attempted to reconfigure the mirroring it worked right away. As usually in production server, proper domains are configured and advance network concepts are implemented I had never faced this type of problem earlier. My friend insisted to post this solution to his situation, wherein there was no domain configured and setting up mirroring was throwing an error. According to him, this is bound to help people, like him, who are preparing for certification using single system. Reference: Pinal Dave (http://blog.SQLAuthority.com) Filed under: Pinal Dave, SQL, SQL Authority, SQL Error Messages, SQL Query, SQL Scripts, SQL Server, SQL Tips and Tricks, T SQL, Technology Tagged: SQL Certifications, SQL Mirroring

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• DNS query appending parent suffix twice

  - by sjw

  We're having an issue with DNS clients not being able to resolve certain FQDNs. Within the same domain in which the problem occurs, doing an nslookup against a host name works. However, an nslookup against the hostname.domain.parentdomain1.parentdomain2.net doesn't work. Weird, from outside that domain, the same FQDN query works. Clients in both domains are using the same DNS servers, which are in the "parentdomain1" example. The nslookup comes back with: Non-authoritative answer: Name: hostname.domain.parentdomain1.parentdomain2.net.parentdomain2.net Address: 209.62.20.188 So, the client is appending the "parentdomain2.net" twice. Would appreciate any assistance.

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• Fixing the Model Binding issue of ASP.NET MVC 4 and ASP.NET Web API

  - by imran_ku07

          Introduction:                     Yesterday when I was checking ASP.NET forums, I found an important issue/bug in ASP.NET MVC 4 and ASP.NET Web API. The issue is present in System.Web.PrefixContainer class which is used by both ASP.NET MVC and ASP.NET Web API assembly. The details of this issue is available in this thread. This bug can be a breaking change for you if you upgraded your application to ASP.NET MVC 4 and your application model properties using the convention available in the above thread. So, I have created a package which will fix this issue both in ASP.NET MVC and ASP.NET Web API. In this article, I will show you how to use this package.           Description:                     Create or open an ASP.NET MVC 4 project and install ImranB.ModelBindingFix NuGet package. Then, add this using statement on your global.asax.cs file, using ImranB.ModelBindingFix;                     Then, just add this line in Application_Start method,   Fixer.FixModelBindingIssue(); // For fixing only in MVC call this //Fixer.FixMvcModelBindingIssue(); // For fixing only in Web API call this //Fixer.FixWebApiModelBindingIssue(); .                     This line will fix the model binding issue. If you are using Html.Action or Html.RenderAction then you should use Html.FixedAction or Html.FixedRenderAction instead to avoid this bug(make sure to reference ImranB.ModelBindingFix.SystemWebMvc namespace). If you are using FormDataCollection.ReadAs extension method then you should use FormDataCollection.FixedReadAs instead to avoid this bug(make sure to reference ImranB.ModelBindingFix.SystemWebHttp namespace). The source code of this package is available at github.          Summary:                     There is a small but important issue/bug in ASP.NET MVC 4. In this article, I showed you how to fix this issue/bug by using a package. Hopefully you will enjoy this article too.

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• How to set up the CNAME in DNS zone record to work with Unbounce

  - by Lirik

  I'm trying to run split testing on some landing pages I "designed" with Unbounce, but it requires that I set the CNAME record for my domain/sub-domain and I'm having trouble figuring out what is the right way to do it. My host is arvixe (www.arvixe.com) and their customer support has failed to help me for the past 5 days (I spoke to them multiple times). I followed the directions for setting the CNAME record and I was able to set the CNAME record, but I'm consistently unable to verify that the CNAME record is set up correctly. I followed the instructions on Unbounce to verify the CNAME record for my sub-domain (beta.devboost.com) and here are the results: No records found reverse lookup smtp diag port scan blacklist Reported by ns1.SNARE.arvixe.com on Thursday, November 10, 2011 at 5:49:57 PM (GMT-6) Here is my DNS zone record from the control panel of my host (last record, CNAME unbouncepages.com): Is there something wrong with my DNS Zone Record? What's the right way to do this? Update: I also have a CNAME record for beta in my root domain (devboost.com): I've updated my sub-domain record now: I've removed most of the other DNS records and I've removed the beta label for the CNAME record: Is that correct? Is there anything else I need to do?

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• How to track subdomains with Google Analytics while having mod_rewrite redirect to a subdomain?

  - by Marek

  When users come directly to domain.com or www.domain.com, I am redirecting them to shop.domain.com via this .htaccess rewrite: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain.com$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://shop.domain.com/ [R=301,L] The content served by shop.domain.com has the following tracking code parameters: var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-123456-6']); _gaq.push(['_setDomainName', '.domain.com']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); All direct visits that come to shop.domain.com as a result of the rewrite from domain.com are tracked as referral traffic, showing my own domain.com as referral source in Google Amalytics. I would like to track these visits as direct traffic. How to change the configuration to track mod_rewritten traffic on my subdomain coming from my own domain as direct traffic?

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• Google Apps for Domains, Multiple Domains

  - by belliez

  I have a primary google apps for domains account which I use for my personal email, calender, docs etc and is great. I also receive my pop3 company email via settings-Get mail from other accounts in my account. Due to spam I want to make use of gmail servers for my company email and have two options: [1] Add my second domain as a domain alias [2] Create a new apps for domains account If I do [1] above do I access (send and receive) my company email as if it was a separate account or is it merged into my primary domain. I want the two seperated. If I perform [2] can I share my contacts / calender between the two? I also have Act! contact manager which syncs to my primary domain and it is getting messy now with personal and work contacts being changed / sync'd to my Act CM software. I want to try and separate my personal and work contacts (but make the work them avaiable in my primary domain). Hope this makes sense! Your suggestions are gratefully accepted. Thank you

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• How Experience Helped EMC Win Data Domain

  EMC's long experience in acquisitions helped it win the hand of Data Domain &#151; and it will help the data storage giant with what comes next.

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