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• how to split a very large database on sql server

  - by ken jackson

  I have a 90 GB SQL Server database that I want to make more manageable. It stores stock data from 50+ different stocks from 2009 and 2010, and each stock is a separate table. Some tables have hundreds of millions of rows, and other have just a few million. What I want to do is somehow split the database, so that I don't have a single database file that is 90 GB. What I want is to be able to somehow magically split all the tables so that I can backup the 2009 data once and not have to keep on including it in the backup every time I backup the entire database, however, I would like the 2009 data to be included whenever I do a query. Is partitioning the database the way to go? Will it do the above for me, or will I need some other solution? I research partitioning, but I wasn't sure if that would solve all my problems. I wasn't able to find anything that would tell me whether or not it would migrate prexisting data, or whether it only worked for newly inserted data. Any help or pointers would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance, Ken

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• How to Detect in Windows Registry if user has .Net Framework installed?

  - by Sarah Weinberger

  How do I detect in the Windows Registry if a user has .Net Framework installed? I am not looking for a .Net based solution, as the query is from InnoSetup. I know from reading another post here on Stack Overflow that .Net Framework is an inplace upgrade to 4.0. I already know how to check if a user has version 4.0 installed on the system, namely by checking the following: function FindFramework(): Boolean; var bVer4x0: Boolean; bVer4x0Client: Boolean; bVer4x0Full: Boolean; bSuccess: Boolean; iInstalled: Cardinal; begin Result := False; bVer4x0Client := False; bVer4x0Full := False; bVer4x0 := RegKeyExists(HKLM, 'SOFTWARE\Microsoft\.NETFramework\policy\v4.0'); bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Client', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Client := True; bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Full', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Full := True; if (True = bVer4x0Full) then begin Result := True; end; end; I checked the registry and there is no v4.5 folder, which makes sense if .Net Framework 4.5 is an inplace upgrade. Still, the Control Panel Programs and Features includes the listing. I know that probably "issuing dotNetFx45_Full_setup.exe /q" will have no bad effect if installing on a system that already has version 4.5, but I still would like to not install the upgrade if the upgrade already exists, faster and less problems.

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• Redirecting users after destroy

  - by mathee

  I have 3 models: Questions, Answers, and Profiles (I know, it should be called "Users"). When you view a question Q, I query the database for the answers to Q. (They are linked by id.) In the view, the current user has the option to delete his answer by clicking on the destroy link displayed next to his answer: %table %tr %td Answers: - @answers.each do |a| %tr %td - @provider = Profile.find(a.provider) %i #{h @provider.username} said: %br #{h a.description} %td = link_to 'View full answer', a %td - if a.provider == @profile.id #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete} The problem is that when the user clicks on the destroy link, it redirects to the /answers/index. I want it to redirect to /questions/Q. What's the best way to do this? I know that there's a redirect_to method, but I don't know how to implement it when I want to redirect to an action for a different controller. It also needs to remember the question from which the answer is being deleted. I tried passing something like :question_id in link_to as: #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :question_id => @question.id, :method => :delete} In AnswersController#destroy: def destroy @answer = Answer.find(params[:id]) @answer.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(answers_url) } format.xml { head :ok } end @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) redirect_to question_path(@question) end The :question_id information is not passed to the destroy method, so I get this error: Couldn't find Question without an ID To confirm, I added a puts call before Question.find, and it returned nil.

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• PHP + MYSQLI: Variable parameter/result binding with prepared statements.

  - by Brian Warshaw

  In a project that I'm about to wrap up, I've written and implemented an object-relational mapping solution for PHP. Before the doubters and dreamers cry out "how on earth?", relax -- I haven't found a way to make late static binding work -- I'm just working around it in the best way that I possibly can. Anyway, I'm not currently using prepared statements for querying, because I couldn't come up with a way to pass a variable number of arguments to the bind_params() or bind_result() methods. Why do I need to support a variable number of arguments, you ask? Because the superclass of my models (think of my solution as a hacked-up PHP ActiveRecord wannabe) is where the querying is defined, and so the find() method, for example, doesn't know how many parameters it would need to bind. Now, I've already thought of building an argument list and passing a string to eval(), but I don't like that solution very much -- I'd rather just implement my own security checks and pass on statements. Does anyone have any suggestions (or success stories) about how to get this done? If you can help me solve this first problem, perhaps we can tackle binding the result set (something I suspect will be more difficult, or at least more resource-intensive if it involves an initial query to determine table structure).

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• Architecture for database analytics

  - by David Cournapeau

  Hi, We have an architecture where we provide each customer Business Intelligence-like services for their website (internet merchant). Now, I need to analyze those data internally (for algorithmic improvement, performance tracking, etc...) and those are potentially quite heavy: we have up to millions of rows / customer / day, and I may want to know how many queries we had in the last month, weekly compared, etc... that is the order of billions entries if not more. The way it is currently done is quite standard: daily scripts which scan the databases, and generate big CSV files. I don't like this solutions for several reasons: as typical with those kinds of scripts, they fall into the write-once and never-touched-again category tracking things in "real-time" is necessary (we have separate toolset to query the last few hours ATM). this is slow and non-"agile" Although I have some experience in dealing with huge datasets for scientific usage, I am a complete beginner as far as traditional RDBM go. It seems that using column-oriented database for analytics could be a solution (the analytics don't need most of the data we have in the app database), but I would like to know what other options are available for this kind of issues.

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• What type of web service should I put together?

  - by Jake

  I want to write a web service using Visual Studio. The service needs to support some type of authentication, and should be able to receive commands via simple HTTP GET requests. The input would only be a method call with some parameters, and the responses will be simple status/error codes. My instinct would be to go with an ASP.NET Web Service, but this isn't an option in C# 4.0 and it makes me wonder if I should be using something that's more up-to-date. I've looked into WCF, but it seems like this requires a running application on the client-side - is there a way to query a WCF host by just accessing a URL? The authentication is also an important piece. Developing my own little authentication system seems like a bad idea - I've read that it's too easy to mess up. What would be the standard way of authenticating with a web service like this? I'd love to look up all of the specifics on this and learn it myself, but I really don't even know where to begin. Some direction would be greatly appreciated!

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• Unable to send '+' through AJAX post?

  - by Harish Kurup

  I am using Ajax POST method to send data, but i am not able to send '+'(operator to the server i.e if i want to send 1+ or 20k+ it will only send 1 or 20k..just wipe out '+') HTML code goes here.. <form method='post' onsubmit='return false;' action='#'> <input type='input' name='salary' id='salary' /> <input type='submit' onclick='submitVal();' /> </form> and javascript code goes here, function submitVal() { var sal=document.getElementById("salary").value; alert(sal); var request=getHttpRequest(); request.open('post','updateSal.php',false); request.setRequestHeader("Content-Type","application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); request.send("sal="+sal); if(request.readyState == 4) { alert("update"); } } function getHttpRequest() { var request=false; if(window.XMLHttpRequest) { request=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if(window.ActiveXObject) { try { request=new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch(e) { try { request=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch(e) { request=false; } } } return request; } in the function submitVal() it first alert's the salary value as it is(if 1+ then alerts 1+), but when it is posted it just post's value without '+' operator which is needed... is it any problem with query string, as the PHP backend code is working fine...

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• SQL 2 INNER JOINS with 3 tables

  - by Jelmer Holtes

  I've a question about a SQL query.. I'm building a prototype webshop in ASP.NET Visual Studio. Now I'm looking for a solution to view my products. I've build a database in MS Access, it consists of multiple tables. The tables which are important for my question are: Product Productfoto Foto Below you'll see the relations between the tables For me it is important to get three datatypes: Product title, price and image. The product title, and the price are in the Product table. The images are in the Foto table. Because a product can have more than one picture, there is a N - M relation between them. So I've to split it up, I did it in the Productfoto table. So the connection between them is: product.artikelnummer -> productfoto.artikelnummer productfoto.foto_id -> foto.foto_id Then I can read the filename (in the database: foto.bestandnaam) I've created the first inner join, and tested it in Access, this works: SELECT titel, prijs, foto_id FROM Product INNER JOIN Productfoto ON product.artikelnummer = productfoto.artikelnummer But I need another INNER JOIN, how could I create that? I guess something like this (this one will give me an error) SELECT titel, prijs, bestandnaam FROM Product (( INNER JOIN Productfoto ON product.artikelnummer = productfoto.artikkelnummer ) INNER JOIN foto ON productfoto.foto_id = foto.foto_id) Can anyone help me?

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• Google app engine: Poor Performance with JDO + Datastore

  - by Bosh

  I have a simple data model that includes USERS: store basic information (key, name, phone # etc) RELATIONS: describe, e.g. a friendship between two users (supplying a relationship_type + two user keys) I'm getting very poor performance, for instance, if I try to print the first names of all of a user's friends. Say the user has 500 friends: I can fetch the list of friend user_ids very easily in a single query. But then, to pull out first names, I have to do 500 back-and-forth trips to the Datastore, each of which seems to take on the order of 30 ms. If this were SQL, I'd just do a JOIN and get the answer out fast. I understand there are rudimentary facilities for performing joins across un-owned relations in a relaxed implementation of JDO (as described at http://gae-java-persistence.blogspot.com) but they sound experimental and non-standard (e.g. my code won't work in any other JDO implementation). Is this really my best bet? Otherwise, how do people extract satisfactory performance from JDO/Datastore in this kind of (very common) situation? -Bosh

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• how to get Contact database schema.

  - by kamiomar

  Dear, is there any link that provide me the Contact Schema. when i store new phone number in mobile, the informaion store in the database. so i need schema to create my own table for back purpose. i have alreay get People table column by the follwoing code. boolean displayFlag = false; String str = ""; Uri CONTACT_URI = People.CONTENT_URI; Cursor cursor = mContext.getContentResolver().query(CONTACT_URI, null, null, null, null); String columnNames = ""; if (cursor != null) { try { cursor.getCount(); if (cursor.moveToFirst()) { String[] columns = cursor.getColumnNames(); for (int i = 0; i < columns.length; i++) { columnNames += "colName" + cursor.getColumnName(i) + " : " + cursor.getString(i) + "colValue"; } } } finally { cursor.close(); } } createImage(columnNames); if (displayFlag) { Toast.makeText(mContext, str, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } Thanks

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• Building asynchronous cache pattern with JSP

  - by merweirdo

  I have a JSP that will take some 8 minutes to render. The code logic itself can not be made more efficient (it will update often and be updated by basically a pointy haired boss). I tried wrapping it with a caching layer like <%@ taglib uri="/WEB-INF/classes/oscache.tld" prefix="oscache" %> <oscache:cache time="60"> <div class="pagecontent"> ..... my logic </div> </oscache:cache> This is nice until the 60 seconds is over. The next query after that blocks until the 8 minutes of rendering is done with again. I would need a way to build a pattern something like: If there is no version of the dynamic content in the cache run the actual logic (and populate the cache for subsequent requests) If there is a non-expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic from the cache If there is an expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic still from the cache AND run the JSP logic in the background so that the cache gets updated transparently to the user - avoiding the user have to wait for 8 minutes I found out that at least EHCache might be able to do some asynchronous cache updating but it did not sadly seem to apply to the JSP tags... Also I have to take in 10-20 parameters for the actual logic of the JSP and some of them should be used as a key for caching. Code example and/or pointers would be greatly appreciated. I do not frankly care if the solution provided is extremely ugly. I just want a simple 5 minute caching with asynchronous cache update taking into account some parameters as a key.

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• prolog - infinite rule

  - by Tom

  I have the next rules % Signature: natural_number(N)/1 % Purpose: N is a natural number. natural_number(0). natural_number(s(X)) :- natural_number(X) ackermann(0, N, s(N)). //rule 1 ackermann(s(M),0,Result):- ackermann(M,s(0),Result). //rule 2 ackermann(s(M),s(N),Result):-ackermann(M,Result1,Result),ackermann(s(M),N,Result1). //rule 3 The query is: ackermann (M,N,s(s(0))). Now, as I understood, In the third calculation, we got an infinite search (failture branch). I check it, and I got a finite search (failture branch). I'll explain: In the first, we got a substitue of M=0, N=s(0) (rule 1 - succsess!). In the second, we got a substitue of M=s(0),N=0 (rule 2 - sucsses!). But what now? I try to match M=s(s(0)) N=0, But it got a finite search - failture branch. Why the comipler doesn't write me "fail". Thank you.

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• [PHP] Kohana-v3 ORM parent relationship

  - by VDVLeon

  Hi all, I just started with the version 3 of the Kohana Framework. I have worked a little with the $_has_many etc. Now I have the table pages. The primary key is pageID. The table has a column called parentPageID. Now I want to make a ORM model who, when accesed like this $page->parent->find() returns the page identified by parentPageID. I have the following already: // Settings protected $_table_name = 'pages'; protected $_primary_key = 'pageID'; protected $_has_one = array( 'parent' => array( 'model' => 'page', 'foreign_key' => 'parentPageID', ), ); But that does not work, it simply returns the first page from the table. Last query says this: SELECT `pages`.* FROM `pages` ORDER BY `pages`.`pageID` ASC LIMIT 1 Does somebody know how to solve this? I know this can: $parent = $page->parent->find($page->parentPageID); but it must be and can be cleaner (I think).

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• Updating ToolStripProgressBar and ToolStripStatusLabel along with with an action

  - by TChristian

  In a Windows Form, I have a search box that fires an event to search a remote database and display some results. The query is pretty fast, usually just a fraction of a second, but in case the delay is noticeable there is a progress bar and label in the form's status bar. When the user clicks "Search" the status label should appear and the progress bar show some progress. Then when the result comes back the label should disappear and the progress bar should be full. Pretty basic response. The problem is, I can't get those actions to happen in that order. Using the code below, I click "Search", nothing happens until the results are displayed, and then the progress bar fills up from 0 to 100. The label never appears. I even threw in a sleep command immediately after the event to be sure I wasn't just missing it, but it's as if the first 2 statements are not being executed. What am I doing wrong here? private void searchButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { toolStripStatusLabel1.Visible = true; toolStripProgressBar1.Value = 20; m_changeRequestedEvents.Fire<String>("SearchTerm", searchTextBox.Text); toolStripProgressBar1.Value = 100; toolStripStatusLabel1.Visible = false; }

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• SQL Server 2005 Import from Excel

  - by user327045

  I'd like to know what my best option would be to import data from an excel file on a weekly or monthly basis. At first, I thought I would use SSIS, but after much struggle with seemingly simple tasks, I'm starting to rethink my plan. Would it be better/easier to just write the SQL by hand or use the services of an SSIS package? The basic process will be as follows: A separate process will download an .xls file to a local fileshare. The xls file will have a filename like: 'myfilename MON YY'. I will need to read the month and year from the the filename, reformat it to a sql date and then query a DimDate table to find the corresponding date key. For each row (after the first 2 header rows), insert the data with the date key, unless the row is a total row, then ignore. Here are some of the issues I've been encountering with SSIS: I can parse the date string from a flat file datasource, but can't seem to do it with an excel data source. Also, once parsed, i cannot seem to convert the string to a date in order to perform the lookup for the date key. For example, I want to do something like this: select DateKey from DimDate where ActualDate = convert(datetime, '01-' + 'JAN-10', 120) but i don't think it is possible to use the 'convert' or 'datetime' keywords in an expression builder. I have been also unable to find where I can edit the SQL to ignore the first 2 rows of data. I'm very skeptical of using SSIS because it seems like a Kludgy way of doing something that can probably be accomplished more efficiently writing the SQL yourself, but I may be forced to use SSIS. Thoughts?

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• Organizing Eager Queries in an ObjectContext

  - by Nix

  I am messing around with Entity Framework 3.5 SP1 and I am trying to find a cleaner way to do the below. I have an EF model and I am adding some Eager Loaded entities and i want them all to reside in the "Eager" property in the context. We originally were just changing the entity set name, but it seems a lot cleaner to just use a property, and keep the entity set name in tact. Example: Context - EntityType - AnotherType - Eager (all of these would have .Includes to pull in all assoc. tables) - EntityType - AnotherType Currently I am using composition but I feel like there is an easier way to do what I want. namespace Entities{ public partial class TestObjectContext { EagerExtensions Eager { get;set;} public TestObjectContext(){ Eager = new EagerExtensions (this); } } public partial class EagerExtensions { TestObjectContext context; public EagerExtensions(TestObjectContext _context){ context = _context; } public IQueryable<TestEntity> TestEntity { get { return context.TestEntity .Include("TestEntityType") .Include("Test.Attached.AttachedType") .AsQueryable(); } } } } public class Tester{ public void ShowHowIWantIt(){ TestObjectContext context= new TestObjectContext(); var query = from a in context.Eager.TestEntity select a; } }

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• How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

  - by froadie

  I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

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• Hibernate is persisting entity during flush when the entity has not changed

  - by Preston

  I'm having a problem where the entity manger is persisting an entity that I don't think has changed during the flush. I know the following code is the problem because if I comment it out the entity doesn't persist. In this code all I'm doing is loading the entity and calling some getters. Query qry = em.createNamedQuery("Clients.findByClientID"); qry.setParameter("clientID", clientID); Clients client = (Clients) qry.getSingleResult(); results.setFname(client.getFirstName()); results.setLname(client.getLastName()); ... return results; Later in a different method I do another namedQuery which causes the entity manger to flush. For some reason the client loaded above is persisted. The reason this is a problem is because in the middle of all this, there is some old code that is making some straight JDBC changes to the client. When the entity manger persists the changes made by the straight JDBC are lost. The theory we have at moment is that the entity manger is comparing the entity to the underlying record, sees that it's different, then persists it. Can someone explain or confirm the behavior we're seeing?

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• Why does this MySQL function return null?

  - by Shore

  Description: the query actually run have 4 results returned,as can be see from below, what I did is just concate the items then return, but unexpectedly,it's null. I think the code is self-explanatory: DELIMITER | DROP FUNCTION IF EXISTS get_idiscussion_ask| CREATE FUNCTION get_idiscussion_ask(iask_id INT UNSIGNED) RETURNS TEXT DETERMINISTIC BEGIN DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE body varchar(600); DECLARE created DATETIME; DECLARE anonymous TINYINT(1); DECLARE screen_name varchar(64); DECLARE result TEXT; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR SELECT body,created,anonymous,screen_name from idiscussion left join users on idiscussion.uid=users.id where idiscussion.iask_id=iask_id; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLSTATE '02000' SET done = 1; SET result = ''; OPEN cur1; REPEAT FETCH cur1 INTO body, created, anonymous, screen_name; SET result = CONCAT(result,'<comment><body><![CDATA[',body,']]></body>','<replier>',if(screen_name is not null and !anonymous,screen_name,''),'</replier>','<created>',created,'</created></comment>'); UNTIL done END REPEAT; CLOSE cur1; RETURN result; END | DELIMITER ; mysql> DELIMITER ; mysql> select get_idiscussion_ask(1); +------------------------+ | get_idiscussion_ask(1) | +------------------------+ | NULL | +------------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) mysql> SELECT body,created,anonymous,screen_name from idiscussion left join users on idiscussion.uid=users.id where idiscussion.iask_id=1; +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ | body | created | anonymous | screen_name | +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:51 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:52 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:52 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:53 | 0 | NULL | +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ 4 rows in set (0.00 sec) For those who don't think the code is self-explanatory: Why the function returns NULL?

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• Are Dynamic Prepared Statements Bad? (with php + mysqli)

  - by John

  I like the flexibility of Dynamic SQL and I like the security + improved performance of Prepared Statements. So what I really want is Dynamic Prepared Statements, which is troublesome to make because bind_param and bind_result accept "fixed" number of arguments. So I made use of an eval() statement to get around this problem. But I get the feeling this is a bad idea. Here's example code of what I mean // array of WHERE conditions $param = array('customer_id'=>1, 'qty'=>'2'); $stmt = $mysqli->stmt_init(); $types = ''; $bindParam = array(); $where = ''; $count = 0; // build the dynamic sql and param bind conditions foreach($param as $key=>$val) { $types .= 'i'; $bindParam[] = '$p'.$count.'=$param["'.$key.'"]'; $where .= "$key = ? AND "; $count++; } // prepare the query -- SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE customer_id = ? AND qty = ? $sql = "SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE ".substr($where, 0, strlen($where)-4); $stmt->prepare($sql); // assemble the bind_param command $command = '$stmt->bind_param($types, '.implode(', ', $bindParam).');'; // evaluate the command -- $stmt->bind_param($types,$p0=$param["customer_id"],$p1=$param["qty"]); eval($command); Is that last eval() statement a bad idea? I tried to avoid code injection by encapsulating values behind the variable name $param. Does anyone have an opinion or other suggestions? Are there issues I need to be aware of?

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• Is it possible to replace values ina queryset before sending it to your template?

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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• How can I get the rank of rows relative to total number of rows based on a field?

  - by Arms

  I have a scores table that has two fields: user_id score I'm fetching specific rows that match a list of user_id's. How can I determine a rank for each row relative to the total number of rows, based on score? The rows in the result set are not necessarily sequential (the scores will vary widely from one row to the next). I'm not sure if this matters, but user_id is a unique field. Edit @Greelmo I'm already ordering the rows. If I fetch 15 rows, I don't want the rank to be 1-15. I need it to be the position of that row compared against the entire table by the score property. So if I have 200 rows, one row's rank may be 3 and another may be 179 (these are arbitrary #'s for example only). Edit 2 I'm having some luck with this query, but I actually want to avoid ties SELECT s.score , s.created_at , u.name , u.location , u.icon_id , u.photo , (SELECT COUNT(*) + 1 FROM scores WHERE score > s.score) AS rank FROM scores s LEFT JOIN users u ON u.uID = s.user_id ORDER BY s.score DESC , s.created_at DESC LIMIT 15 If two or more rows have the same score, I want the latest one (or earliest - I don't care) to be ranked higher. I tried modifying the subquery with AND id > s.id but that ended up giving me an unexpected result set and different ties.

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• Modify the server side functions using jquery

  - by ant

  Hi, I am developing one website using cakephp and jquery technologies. Server-side there are some functions which handles sql queris. As per requirement I want to modify server side functions on client side using jquery AJAX call. E.g. : Below is the function on server side to modify users information. function modifyUser(username,userid) { //update query statements } Then jquery AJAX call will be like this : $.ajax({ url: 'users/modiyUser', success: function() { alert("Updation done") or any statements. } }); and I want to modify above i.e. server side function depending upon client input criteria. $.ajax({ function users/modiyUser(username,userid) { // I will write here any other statements which gives me some other output. } }); Above AJAX call syntax may not present, but i think you all understood what I am trying to do I simply wants to modify/override server side functions on client side. Please let me know is there any way to resolve above mentioned requirement. Thanks in adavance

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• Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

  - by Mark

  I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

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• PHP Notice: Undefined property: stdClass:

  - by 4D

  I've got an array coming back from a Flash app created in Flash Builder 4. I have a service setup that queries and brings data back from the DB successfully, however the Update script is generating the Undefined Property errors. I'm still learning both PHP and Flash Builder, and don't fully understand what the $this- commands do. If anyone can suggest where this script is going wrong, it is basically just generated by Flash Builder and is not something I've developed myself, I would appreciate it? Also if someone can explain $this- to me that would be awesome too? I've seen them before, but then I've seen scripts doing the same thing that do not use them, so is this an old way of doing things? Really appreciate any input anyone can give. public function updateItem($item) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub // Update an existing record in the database and return the item // Sample code \' $this->connect(); $sql = "UPDATE tbltrust SET inst_code = '$item->inst_code', trust_name = '$item->trust_name', trust_code = '$item->trust_code' WHERE trust_key = '$item->trust_key'"; mysqli_query($this->connection, $sql) or die('Query failed: ' . mysqli_error($this->connection)); mysqli_close($this->connection); }

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