Search Results

Search found 45316 results on 1813 pages for 'class literals'.

Page 681/1813 | < Previous Page | 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686 687 688  | Next Page >

• Unserializing an API return object (PHP/Ebay API)

  - by DavidYell

  I have been working with the Ebay api for a project and have found it great. I have however found a problem now, more PHP related. When I read my items from Ebay, I store a bunch of details in the database. Currently, just for the sake of it really, I serialize the whole return object and store it in the database in a related table. The idea being, that when I display my information, I have all the details to hand should I need them. The problem arises in that the pricing information is always in a sub object. [ConvertedAdjustmentAmount] => __PHP_Incomplete_Class Object ( [__PHP_Incomplete_Class_Name] => eBayAmountType [_] => 0 [currencyID] => USD ) As you can see when I unserialize my object, my cunning plan falls foul of the Incomplete class problem. I have checked the following question, without success. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/965611/forcing-access-to-php-incomplete-class-object-properties The main issue lies, as far as I can see, in that the price class is stored in the Ebay api, so how do I recreate it? I have been reading this page, http://uk3.php.net/manual/en/function.unserialize.php and trying to figure out, unserialize_callback_func which I can't figure out either, so any help would be appreciated!

  Read the article

• Python: why does this code take forever (infinite loop?)

  - by Rosarch

  I'm developing an app in Google App Engine. One of my methods is taking never completing, which makes me think it's caught in an infinite loop. I've stared at it, but can't figure it out. Disclaimer: I'm using http://code.google.com/p/gaeunitlink text to run my tests. Perhaps it's acting oddly? This is the problematic function: def _traverseForwards(course, c_levels): ''' Looks forwards in the dependency graph ''' result = {'nodes': [], 'arcs': []} if c_levels == 0: return result model_arc_tails_with_course = set(_getListArcTailsWithCourse(course)) q_arc_heads = DependencyArcHead.all() for model_arc_head in q_arc_heads: for model_arc_tail in model_arc_tails_with_course: if model_arc_tail.key() in model_arc_head.tails: result['nodes'].append(model_arc_head.sink) result['arcs'].append(_makeArc(course, model_arc_head.sink)) # rec_result = _traverseForwards(model_arc_head.sink, c_levels - 1) # _extendResult(result, rec_result) return result Originally, I thought it might be a recursion error, but I commented out the recursion and the problem persists. If this function is called with c_levels = 0, it runs fine. The models it references: class Course(db.Model): dept_code = db.StringProperty() number = db.IntegerProperty() title = db.StringProperty() raw_pre_reqs = db.StringProperty(multiline=True) original_description = db.StringProperty() def getPreReqs(self): return pickle.loads(str(self.raw_pre_reqs)) def __repr__(self): return "%s %s: %s" % (self.dept_code, self.number, self.title) class DependencyArcTail(db.Model): ''' A list of courses that is a pre-req for something else ''' courses = db.ListProperty(db.Key) def equals(self, arcTail): for this_course in self.courses: if not (this_course in arcTail.courses): return False for other_course in arcTail.courses: if not (other_course in self.courses): return False return True class DependencyArcHead(db.Model): ''' Maintains a course, and a list of tails with that course as their sink ''' sink = db.ReferenceProperty() tails = db.ListProperty(db.Key) Utility functions it references: def _makeArc(source, sink): return {'source': source, 'sink': sink} def _getListArcTailsWithCourse(course): ''' returns a LIST, not SET there may be duplicate entries ''' q_arc_heads = DependencyArcHead.all() result = [] for arc_head in q_arc_heads: for key_arc_tail in arc_head.tails: model_arc_tail = db.get(key_arc_tail) if course.key() in model_arc_tail.courses: result.append(model_arc_tail) return result Am I missing something pretty obvious here, or is GAEUnit acting up?

  Read the article

• FluentNHibernate: Not.Nullable() doesn't affect output schema

  - by alex

  Hello I'm using fluent nhibernate v. 1.0.0.595. There is a class: public class Weight { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual double Value { get; set; } } I want to map it on the following table: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Weight DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) Here is the map: public class WeightMap : ClassMap<Weight> { public WeightMap() { Table("[Weight]"); Id(x => x.Id, "WeightId"); Map(x => x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable(); } } The problem is that this mapping produces table with nullable Weight column: Weight DOUBLE null Not-nullable column is generated only with default convention for column name (i.e. Map(x = x.Value).Not.Nullable() instead of Map(x = x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable()), but in this case there will be Value column instead of Weight: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Value DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) I found similiar problem here: http://code.google.com/p/fluent-nhibernate/issues/detail?id=121, but seems like mentioned workaround with SetAttributeOnColumnElement("not-null", "true") is outdated. Does anybody encountered with this problem? Is there a way to specify named column as not-nullable?

  Read the article

• Rails Association Problem

  - by looloobs

  I am having trouble with this association. I need to get an array of the primaries that belong to the soldiers in a platoon. So once I get all the soldiers in a platoon: @company = Company.find_by_id(1) @platoons = @company.platoons <% @platoons.each do |p| %> <%= p.soldiers.primaries.find(:all,:conditions => ["relationship = ? AND contacted = ?", 'Spouse', 'Yes'])) %> <% end %> * So there is no method for primaries, I assume this is because I am trying to call an association on an array. Soldiers have a platoon_id but primaries do not, they only have the association to soldiers in that platoon. How do I do this? I need it to return an array of Primaries. Thanks in advance! class Soldier < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :company belongs_to :platoon has_many :primaries, :dependent => :destroy end class Platoon < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :company belongs_to :battalion has_many :soldiers end class Primary < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :soldier belongs_to :company end

  Read the article

• autorelease object not confirming protocol does not give any warning

  - by Sahil Wasan

  I have a class "ABC" and its method which returns non autoreleases object of that class. @interface ABC:NSObject +(ABC *)aClassMethodReturnsObjectWhichNotAutoreleased; @end @implementation ABC +(ABC *)aClassMethodReturnsObjectWhichNotAutoreleased{ ABC *a = [[ABC alloc]init]; return a; } @end If I have a protocol Foo. @Protocol Foo @required -(void)abc; @end My ABC class is "not" confirming Foo protocols. 1st call id<Foo> obj = [ABC aClassMethodReturnsObjectWhichNotAutoreleased]; //show warning It shows warning "Non Compatible pointers.." thats good.Abc did not confirm protocol Foo BUT 2nd call id<Foo> obj = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"abc",@"def",nil]; // It will "not" show warning as it will return autorelease object.NSArray don't confirm protocol Foo In first call compiler gives warning and in second call compiler is not giving any warning.I think that is because i am not returning autorelease object. Why is compiler not giving warning in 2nd call as NSArray is also not confirming FOO Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• AJAX: Permission denied to access property in iframe

  - by Muhammad Sajid

  Hi I created an php website which uses for AJAX post and was live at http://sprook.com.au/ but my client change it's domain to http://www.sprookit.net/ from his service provider Godaddy and now the firebug says: Permission denied to access property 'stopAjax' here stopAjax is my method name. script is there: <div class="post_area"> <form action="post.php" method="post" id="addVideo" enctype="multipart/form-data" target="post" onsubmit="return startAjax(this);"> <iframe id="post" name="post" src="#" style="width:0;height:0;border:0px solid #fff;"></iframe> <table width="860" border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td width="435">POST YOUR AD FREE<br /> <em>Paste embed code from YouTube</em></td> <td width="322"><input type="text" id="videoLink" name="videoLink" class="input_textbox" /> </td> <td width="95"><input type="submit" name="set_video_link" id="set_video_link" value="" class="submt_post" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td><div id="process"> Connecting please wait <img src="images/loading.gif" /><br/> </div></td> </tr> </table> </form> </div> And all content comes from old domain i removed index file and it stoped working, therefore it is cleared that scripts run from old domain.

  Read the article

• When should EntityManagerFactory instance be created/opened ?

  - by masato-san

  Ok, I read bunch of articles/examples how to write Entity Manager Factory in singleton. One of them easiest for me to understand a bit: http://javanotepad.blogspot.com/2007/05/jpa-entitymanagerfactory-in-web.html I learned that EntityManagerFactory (EMF) should only be created once preferably in application scope. And also make sure to close the EMF once it's used (?) So I wrote EMF helper class for business methods to use: public class EmProvider { private static final String DB_PU = "KogaAlphaPU"; public static final boolean DEBUG = true; private static final EmProvider singleton = new EmProvider(); private EntityManagerFactory emf; private EmProvider() {} public static EmProvider getInstance() { return singleton; } public EntityManagerFactory getEntityManagerFactory() { if(emf == null) { emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(DB_PU); } if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("factory created on: " + new Date()); } return emf; } public void closeEmf() { if(emf.isOpen() || emf != null) { emf.close(); } emf = null; if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("EMF closed at: " + new Date()); } } }//end class And my method using EmProvider: public String foo() { EntityManager em = null; List<Object[]> out = null; try { em = EmProvider.getInstance().getEntityManagerFactory().createEntityManager(); Query query = em.createNativeQuery(JPQL_JOIN); //just some random query out = query.getResultList(); } catch(Exception e) { //handle error.... } finally { if(em != null) { em.close(); //make sure to close EntityManager } } I made sure to close EntityManager (em) within method level as suggested. But when should EntityManagerFactory be closed then? And why EMF has to be singleton so bad??? I read about concurrency issues but as I am not experienced multi-thread-grammer, I can't really be clear on this idea.

  Read the article

• RegEx: difference between "(?:...) and normal parentheses

  - by N0thing

  >>> re.findall(r"(?:do|re|mi)+", "mimi") ['mimi'] >>> re.findall(r"(do|re|mi)+", "mimi") ['mi'] According to my understanding of the definitions, it should produce the same answer. The only difference between (...) and (?:...) should be whether or not we can use back-references later. Am I missing something? (...) Matches whatever regular expression is inside the parentheses, and indicates the start and end of a group; the contents of a group can be retrieved after a match has been performed, and can be matched later in the string with the \number special sequence, described below. To match the literals '(' or ')', use ( or ), or enclose them inside a character class: [(] [)]. (?:...) A non-capturing version of regular parentheses. Matches whatever regular expression is inside the parentheses, but the substring matched by the group cannot be retrieved after performing a match or referenced later in the pattern.

  Read the article

• How to deal with a flaw in System.Data.DataTableExtensions.CopyToDataTable()

  - by andy

  Hey guys, so I've come across something which is perhaps a flaw in the Extension method .CopyToDataTable. This method is used by Importing (in VB.NET) System.Data.DataTableExtensions and then calling the method against an IEnumerable. You would do this if you want to filter a Datatable using LINQ, and then restore the DataTable at the end. i.e: Imports System.Data.DataRowExtensions Imports System.Data.DataTableExtensions Public Class SomeClass Private Shared Function GetData() As DataTable Dim Data As DataTable Data = LegacyADO.NETDBCall Data = Data.AsEnumerable.Where(Function(dr) dr.Field(Of Integer)("SomeField") = 5).CopyToDataTable() Return Data End Function End Class In the example above, the "WHERE" filtering might return no results. If this happens CopyToDataTable throws an exception because there are no DataRows. Why? The correct behavior should be to return a DataTable with Rows.Count = 0. Can anyone think of a clean workaround to this, in such a way that whoever calls CopyToDataTable doesn't have to be aware of this issue? System.Data.DataTableExtensions is a Static Class so I can't override the behavior....any ideas? Have I missed something? cheers UPDATE: I have submitted this as an issue to Connect. I would still like some suggestions, but if you agree with me, you could vote up the issue at Connect via the link above cheers

  Read the article

• Creating sublines on Joomla menu items

  - by ploughansen

  In my toplevel menu items, I would like to make a subline for each item. I don't think it's possible to do by default, byt YooTheme has done it in many of their templates. The menu output look like this <div class="moduletable_menu"> <ul id="mainmenu" class="menu"> <li class="active item1" id="current"> <a href="URL_HIDDEN"> <span>Services</span> </a> </li> </ul> This basically outputs a one line menu item like so: Services What I would like to do is have a menu item like this: Services Service x, Service y, Service z For reference, have a look at the main menu on the YooTheme demo page. The way YooTheme does this, is using two pipes (||) as a linebreak, so in the Joomla backend you type "Services||Service x, Service y, Service z" as the menu title, and then there must be some fancy javascript that breaks this title into two spans, ready to be styled using css. Does anyone know of an easy way to code this? Please note that I am looking to build this feature into a custom template (ie. non-yootheme). Also note that I am not using MooTools, but Jquery instead.

  Read the article

• how do I best create a set of list classes to match my business objects

  - by ken-forslund

  I'm a bit fuzzy on the best way to solve the problem of needing a list for each of my business objects that implements some overridden functions. Here's the setup: I have a baseObject that sets up database, and has its proper Dispose() method All my other business objects inherit from it, and if necessary, override Dispose() Some of these classes also contain arrays (lists) of other objects. So I create a class that holds a List of these. I'm aware I could just use the generic List, but that doesn't let me add extra features like Dispose() so it will loop through and clean up. So if I had objects called User, Project and Schedule, I would create UserList, ProjectList, ScheduleList. In the past, I have simply had these inherit from List< with the appropriate class named and then written the pile of common functions I wanted it to have, like Dispose(). this meant I would verify by hand, that each of these List classes had the same set of methods. Some of these classes had pretty simple versions of these methods that could have been inherited from a base list class. I could write an interface, to force me to ensure that each of my List classes has the same functions, but interfaces don't let me write common base functions that SOME of the lists might override. I had tried to write a baseObjectList that inherited from List, and then make my other Lists inherit from that, but there are issues with that (which is really why I came here). One of which was trying to use the Find() method with a predicate. I've simplified the problem down to just a discussion of Dispose() method on the list that loops through and disposes its contents, but in reality, I have several other common functions that I want all my lists to have. What's the best practice to solve this organizational matter?

  Read the article

• Method not being resolved for dynamic generic type

  - by kelloti

  I have these types: public class GenericDao<T> { public T Save(T t) { return t; } } public abstract class DomainObject { // Some properties protected abstract dynamic Dao { get; } public virtual void Save() { var dao = Dao; dao.Save(this); } } public class Attachment : DomainObject { protected dynamic Dao { get { return new GenericDao<Attachment>(); } } } Then when I run this code it fails with RuntimeBinderException: Best overloaded method match for 'GenericDAO<Attachment.Save(Attachment)' has some invalid arguments var obj = new Attachment() { /* set properties */ }; obj.Save(); I've verified that in DomainObject.Save() "this" is definitely Attachment, so the error doesn't really make sense. Can anyone shed some light on why the method isn't resolving? Some more information - It succeeds if I change the contents of DomainObject.Save() to use reflection: public virtual void Save() { var dao = Dao; var type = dao.GetType(); var save = ((Type)type).GetMethod("Save"); save.Invoke(dao, new []{this}); }

  Read the article

• Working with fields which can mutate or be new instances altogether

  - by dotnetdev

  Structs are usually used for immutable data, eg a phone number, which does not mutate, but instead you get a new one (eg the number 000 becoming 0001 would mean two seperate numbers). However, pieces of information like Name, a string, can either mutate (company abc changing its name to abcdef, or being given a new name like def). For fields like this, I assume they should reside in the mutable class and not an immutable structure? My way of structuring code is to have an immutable concept, like Address (any change is a new address completely), in a struct and then reference it from a class like Customer, since Customer always has an address. So I would put CompanyName, or Employer, in the class as it is mutable. But a name can either mutate and so be the same 1 instance, or a new name setup and while the company still owning the first name too. Would the correct pattern for assigning a new instance (eg a new company name but the old name still owned by the company) be?: string name = ""; string newName = new string(); newName = "new"; name = newName; And a mutation just the standard assignment pattern? Thanks

  Read the article

• How to create a new ID for the new added node?

  - by marknt15

  Hi, I can normally get the ID of the default tree nodes but my problem is onCreate then jsTree will add a new node but it doesn't have an ID. My question is how can I add an ID to the newly created tree node? What I'm thinking to do is adding the ID HTML attribute to the newly created tree node but how? I need to get the ID of all of the nodes because it will serve as a reference for the node's respective div storage. HTML code: <div class="demo" id="demo_1"> <ul> <li id="phtml_1" class="file"><a href="#"><ins>&nbsp;</ins>Root node 1</a></li> <li id="phtml_2" class="file"><a href="#"><ins>&nbsp;</ins>Root node 2</a></li> </ul> </div> JS code: $("#demo_1").tree({ ui : { theme_name : "apple" }, callback : { onrename : function (NODE, TREE_OBJ) { alert(TREE_OBJ.get_text(NODE)); alert($(NODE).attr('id')); } } }); Cheers, Mark

  Read the article

• The use of getters and setters for different programming languages [closed]

  - by leonhart88

  So I know there are a lot of questions on getters and setters in general, but I couldn't find something exactly like my question. I was wondering if people change the use of get/set depending on different languages. I started learning with C++ and was taught to use getters and setters. This is what I understand: In C++ (and Java?), a variable can either be public or private, but we cannot have a mix. For example, I can't have a read-only variable that can still be changed inside the class. It's either all public (can read and change it), or all private (can't read and can only change inside the class). Because of this (and possibly other reasons), we use getters and setters. In MATLAB, I can control the "setaccess" and "getaccess" properties of variables, so that I can make things read-only (can directly access the property, but can't overwrite it). In this case, I don't feel like I need a getter because I can just do class.property. Also, in Python it is considered "Pythonic" to not use getters/setters and to only put things into properties if needed. I don't really understand why its OK to have all public variables in Python, because that's opposite of what I learned when I started with C++. I'm just curious what other people's thoughts are on this. Would you use getters and setters for all languages? Would you only use it for C++/Java and do direct access in MATLAB and Python (which is what I am currently doing)? Is the second option considered bad? For my purposes, I am only referring to simple getters and setters (just return/set the value and do not do anything else). Thanks!

  Read the article

• NHibernate. Initiate save collection at saving parent

  - by Andrew Kalashnikov

  Hello, colleagues. I've got a problem at saving my entity. MApping: ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Clients.Core" namespace="Clients.Core.Domains"> <class name="Sales, Clients.Core" table='sales'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <column name="id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="Guid"> <column name="guid"/> </property> <set name="Accounts" table="sales_users" lazy="false"> <key column="sales_id" /> <element column="user_id" type="Int32" /> </set> Domain: public class Sales : BaseDomain { ICollection<int> accounts = new List<int>(); public virtual ICollection<int> Accounts { get { return accounts; } set { accounts = value; } } public Sales() { } } When I save Sales object Account collection don't save at sales_users table. What should I do for saving it? Please don't advice me use classes inside List Thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• StructureMap Open Generic Types

  - by Shane Fulmer

  I have the following classes: public interface IRenderer<T> { string Render(T obj); } public class Generic<T> { } public class SampleGenericRenderer<T> : IRenderer<Generic<T>> { public string Render(Generic<T> obj) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I would like to be able to call StructureMap with ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IRenderer<Generic<string>>>(); and receive SampleGenericRenderer<string>. I'm currently using the following registration and receiving this error when I call GetInstance. "Unable to cast object of type 'ConsoleApplication1.SampleGenericRenderer'1[ConsoleApplication1.Generic'1[System.String]]' to type 'ConsoleApplication1.IRenderer'1[ConsoleApplication1.Generic'1[System.String]]'." public class CoreRegistry : Registry { public CoreRegistry() { Scan(assemblyScanner => { assemblyScanner.AssemblyContainingType(typeof(IRenderer<>)); assemblyScanner.AddAllTypesOf(typeof(IRenderer<>)); assemblyScanner.ConnectImplementationsToTypesClosing(typeof(IRenderer<>)); }); } } Is there any way to configure StructureMap so that it creates SampleGenericRenderer<string> instead of SampleGenericRenderer<Generic<string>>?

  Read the article

• Mapping relationships from multiple databases in NHibernate

  - by mannish

  I have a multi-database application configured with NHibernate. The entities that correspond to tables from each database are in their own separate assemblies (an assembly per database if you will). I have a need/desire to relate an entity from one database to an entity of another database. Everything up to this point works as I want it to (the application handles multiple session factories, etc.). The relationship I want is many-to-one, but in reality my application only cares about one side of the relationship (for reasons that aren't relevant). The relevant entities are Project and PMProject, where a Project HAS A PMProject. When I map the many-to-one, I get the following error: NHibernate.MappingException: An association from the table PROJECTS refers to an unmapped class: SDMS.PPRM.PMProject The Project mapping itself reads (ignore the funky column naming; it's an Oracle db): <many-to-one name="PMProject" class="SDMS.PPRM.PMProject" column="PM_PROJECT_ID" cascade="none" /> In the class attribute, I'm referencing the appropriate assembly, but I get that error which seems to tell me it simply can't find the mapping file for PMProject. But that file exists (it's set as embedded resource), the session factory instantiation works without fail; so I'm at a loss on how to tell the Project mapping how/where to look for the appropriate mapping. Is there something I'm missing? A better way to go about this? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• DefaultTableCellRenderer getTableCellRendererComponent never gets called

  - by Dean Schulze

  I need to render a java.util.Date in a JTable. I've implemented a custom renderer that extends DefaultTableCellRenderer (below). I've set it as the renderer for the column, but the method getTableCellRendererComponent() never gets called. This is a pretty common problem, but none of the solutions I've seen work. public class DateCellRenderer extends DefaultTableCellRenderer { String sdfStr = "yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.SSS"; SimpleDateFormat sdf = new SimpleDateFormat(sdfStr); public Component getTableCellRendererComponent(JTable table, Object value, boolean isSelected, boolean hasFocus, int row, int column) { super.getTableCellRendererComponent(table, value, isSelected, hasFocus, row, column); if (value instanceof Date) { this.setText(sdf.format((Date) value)); } else logger.info("class: " + value.getClass().getCanonicalName()); return this; } } I've installed the custom renderer (and verified that it has been installed) like this: DateCellRenderer dcr = new DateCellRenderer(); table.getColumnModel().getColumn(2).setCellRenderer(dcr); I've also tried table.setDefaultRenderer( java.util.Date.class, dcr ); Any idea why the renderer gets installed, but never called?

  Read the article

• C# Generics Question

  - by TheCloudlessSky

  Would it be possible to do something like the following in c#? Basically TParent and TChildren should be types of the class A but not necessairly have the same types that were passed in. I know this may sound confusing but I want to strongly type the children and parents of a particular object, but at the same time they must be of the same type. Because TParent inherits from A this would imply that it requires type parameters that inherit from A but using potentially different types. public class A<TParent, TChildren> where TParent : A where TControls : A { TParent Parent; List<TChildren> Children; } or more easily seen here: public class A<TParent, TChildren> where TParent : A<?, ?> where TChildren : A<?, ?> { TParent Parent; List<TChildren> Children; } I hope this isn't too confusing. Is this at all possible? Thanks :)

  Read the article

• asp.net mvc 2 - return JavaScript with View

  - by Tomaszewski

  Hi, using ASP.NET MVC 2 I have a navigation menu inside my Master Page. In the navigation menu, I am trying add a class to the that the current page relates to (i.e., home page will add class="active" to the Home button). I'm trying to consider scalability and the fact that I don't want to change individual pages if the navigation changes later. The only way I can think of doing this is: Add JavaScript to each individual View that will add the class when the DOM is ready Return JavaScript when return View() occurs on point (2), I am unsure how to do. Thusfar I have been doing the following in my controller: public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["messege"] = JavaScript("<script type='text/javascript' language='javascript'> $(document).ready(function () { console.log('hi hi hi'); }); </script>"); return View(); } but in my view, when I call: <%: ViewData["messege"] %> I get: System.Web.Mvc.JavaScriptResult as the result Would you guys have any ideas on How to solve the navigation menu probelem, other than the solutions I've listed return JavaScript along with your view from the Controller Thanks, in advanced!

  Read the article

• why does this knockout method receive a form element instead of the object its nested in?

  - by ladookie

  I have this HTML: <ul class="chat_list" data-bind="foreach: chats"> <li> <div class="chat_response" data-bind="visible: CommentList().length == 0"> <form data-bind="submit: $root.addComment"> <input class="comment_field" placeholder="Comment…" data-bind="value: NewCommentText" /> </form> </div> </li> </ul> and this JavaScript: function ChatListViewModel(chats) { // var self = this; self.chats = ko.observableArray(ko.utils.arrayMap(chats, function (chat) { return { CourseItemDescription: chat.CourseItemDescription, CommentList: ko.observableArray(chat.CommentList), CourseItemID: chat.CourseItemID, UserName: chat.UserName, ChatGroupNumber: chat.ChatGroupNumber, ChatCount: chat.ChatCount, NewCommentText: ko.observable("") }; })); self.newChatText = ko.observable(); self.addComment = function (chat) { var newComment = { CourseItemDescription: chat.NewCommentText(), ParentCourseItemID: chat.CourseItemID, CourseID: $.CourseLogic.dataitem.CourseID, AccountID: $.CourseLogic.dataitem.AccountID, SystemObjectID: $.CourseLogic.dataitem.CommentSystemObjectID, SystemObjectName: "Comments", UserName: chat.UserName }; chat.CommentList.push(newComment); chat.NewCommentText(""); }; } ko.applyBindings(new ChatListViewModel(initialData)); When I go into the debugger it shows that the chat parameter of the addComment() function is a form element instead of a chat object. Why is this happening?

  Read the article

• Java Generic Type and Reflection

  - by Tom Tucker

  I have some tricky generic type problem involving reflection. Here's the code. public @interface MyConstraint { Class<? extends MyConstraintValidator<?>> validatedBy(); } public interface MyConstraintValidator<T extends Annotation> { void initialize(T annotation); } /** @param annotation is annotated with MyConstraint. */ public void run(Annotation annotation) { Class<? extends MyConstraintValidator<? extends Annotation>> validatorClass = annotation.annotationType().getAnnotation(MyConstraint.class).validatedBy(); validatorClass.newInstance().initialize(annotation) // will not compile! } The run() method above will not compile because of the following error. The method initialize(capture#10-of ? extends Annotation) in the type MyConstraintValidator<capture#10-of ? extends Annotation> is not applicable for the arguments (Annotation) If I remove the wild cards, then it compiles and works fine. What would be the propert way to declare the type parameter for the vairable validatorClass? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Spring validation has error in XML document from ServletContext resource

  - by user1441404

  I applied spring validation in my registration page .but the follwing error are shown in my server log of my app engine server. javax.servlet.UnavailableException: org.springframework.beans.factory.xml.XmlBeanDefinitionStoreException: Line 22 in XML document from ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring/appServlet/servlet-context.xml] is invalid; nested exception is org.xml.sax.SAXParseException; lineNumber: 22; columnNumber: 30; cvc-complex-type.2.4.c: The matching wildcard is strict, but no declaration can be found for element 'property'. My code is given below : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/jee http://www.springframework.org/schema/jee/spring-jee-3.0.xsd > <beans:bean name="/register" class="com.my.registration.NewUserRegistration"> <property name="validator"> <bean class="com.my.validation.UserValidator" /> </property> <beans:property name="formView" value="newuser"></beans:property> <beans:property name="successView" value="home"></beans:property> </beans:bean> <beans:bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <beans:property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/" /> <beans:property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </beans:bean> </beans:beans>

  Read the article

• Identical files from different servers. Why might IE 8 display them differently?

  - by jasongetsdown

  I'm working on a site that will go on my company's intranet. I developed it locally on my computer, checking it in different browsers and on colleague's computers, and when it was done I handed it off to IT. They put identical copies on a staging server, and on the production server. This is a site built only with html, javascript, and css. No server side scripting. It also uses a DWF viewer plugin from Autodesk. It is a single standalone page (not part of a CMS) that allows users to load drawings into the viewer and then click to see info from a database of space info saved in a series of js arrays (the space DB software spits out a js file with all the info listed in array literals, creating a crap ton of global variables - ugh, but I digress). When I followed their links (using IE 8) the version on the staging server looked as expected, but the layout is hosed on the version from the production server. Specifically, it seems like a div that is supposed to flow to the right of a div that is float: left is displaying below the floated div at full width, as though it was clear: left (which it is not). It also has the wrong height. I downloaded the files from each and they are identical to my local version. Frustrated, I cleared my browser's cache, restarted my computer, checked it on a colleague's computer who also has IE 8. All the same issue. Staging server good. Production server bad. Finally I uninstalled IE 8 and looked at it in IE 6. Both versions looked fine. So, to recap. Two different servers. No server side scripting. Identical files. One browser agrees they are identical, the other does not. What could cause this?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686 687 688  | Next Page >