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  • waiting for a signal

    - by Umesha MS
    Hi, I am working on an application which uploads the content of the file to server. To upload the file to server I am using ‘QNetworkAccessManager’ class. Since it works as asynchronous way, I changed it to work as synchronous way by using QEventLoop. Class FileTransfer { Public : QNetworkAccessManager mNetworkManager; Void Upload(QNetworkRequest request, QIODevice *data) { responce = mNetworkManager.put(request, data); EventLoop.exec(); ReadResponce(responce); } Void Stop() { responce ->close(); } } In my sample application I have 2 windows. 1st to select the files and 2nd to show the progress. When user click on upload button in the first window, the 2nd window will be displayed and then I create the FileTransfer object and start uploading. While uploading the file if user closes the form then in the destructor of the window I call the stop of ‘FileTransfer’ after that I delete the ‘FileTransfer’ object. But here the Upload() function is not yet completed so it will crash. Please help me to: How to wait in 'stop()' function until the Upload() function is completed

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  • CakePHP Observe field for validation check(already exists)

    - by deck john
    i have already user observe field in cakephp 1.3 Now i want to do the same thing in cakephp 2.0 I have one form.there is a one field named email. When user insert email. onblur there is a popup one message that displays "email already exists" or "right" for that i have write below code in my projects. the below code is my add file code <?php $options = array('url' => array( 'controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'is_exist'), 'update' => 'email_exist'); echo $this->ajax->observeField('UserEmailId',array('url' => array( 'controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'is_exist'), 'update' => 'email_exists')); ?> In my controller i have created one function like public function is_exist($id = null) { $result = "yes"; $this->set('existdata',$result); } i have also created is_exists.ctp fiel in view/uers. i dont know why its not working. i did the same thing in Cakephp 1.3 and its working file but not in cakephp 2.0 can anyone tell me how i implement this ? thanks in advance

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  • Codeigniter only loads the default controller

    - by fh47331
    I am very new to CodeIgniter, but have been programming PHP for ages. I'm writing some software at the moment and using CI for the first time with it. The default controller is set to the first controller I want to action call 'login' (the controller is login.php, the view is login.php. When the form is submitted it calls the 'authenticate' controller. This executes fine, process the login data correctly and then does a redirect command (without any output to the screen prior) to the next page in this case 'newspage'. The problem is that the redirect, never reaches 'newspage' but the default controller runs again. It doesn't matter what I put ... ht tp://domain.name/anything ... (yes im using .htaccess to remove the index.php) the anything never gets called, just the default controller. I have left the standard 'welcome.php' controller and 'welcome_message.php' in the folders and even putting ht tp://domain.name/welcome all I get is the login screen! (Obviously there shouldn't be a space between the http - thats just done so it does not show as a hyperlink!) Can anyone tell me what i've done wrong!

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  • Is encrypting session id (or other authenticate value) in cookie useful at all?

    - by Ji
    In web development, when session state is enabled, a session id is stored in cookie(in cookieless mode, query string will be used instead). In asp.net, the session id is encrypted automatically. There are plenty of topics on the internet regarding how you should encrypt your cookie, including session id. I can understand why you want to encrypt private info such as DOB, but any private info should not be stored in cookie at first place. So for other cookie values such as session id, what is the purpose encryption? Does it add security at all? no matter how you secure it, it will be sent back to server for decryption. Be be more specific, For authentication purpose, turn off session, i don't want to deal with session time out any more store some sort of id value in the cookie, on the server side, check if the id value exists and matches, if it is, authenticate user. let the cookie value expire when browser session is ended, this way. vs Asp.net form authentication mechanism (it relies on session or session id, i think) does latter one offer better security?

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  • servicestack Razor view with request and response DTO

    - by user7398
    I'm having a go with the razor functionality in service stack. I have a razor cshtml view working for one of my response DTO's. I need to access some values from the request DTO in the razor view that have been filled in from some fields from the REST route, so i can construct a url to put into the response html page and also label some form labels. Is there anyway of doing this? I don't want to duplicate the property from the request DTO into the response DTO just for this html view. Because i'm trying to emulate an existing REST service of another product, i do not want to emit extra data just for the html view. eg http://localhost/rest/{Name}/details/{Id} eg @inherits ViewPage<DetailsResponse> @{ ViewBag.Title = "todo title"; Layout = "HtmlReport"; } this needs to come from the request dto NOT @Model <a href="/rest/@Model.Name">link to user</a> <a href="/rest/@Model.Name/details/@Model.Id">link to user details</a>

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  • Can't store UTF-8 in RDS despite setting up new Parameter Group using Rails on Heroku

    - by Lail
    I'm setting up a new instance of a Rails(2.3.5) app on Heroku using Amazon RDS as the database. I'd like to use UTF-8 for everything. Since RDS isn't UTF-8 by default, I set up a new Parameter Group and switched the database to use that one, basically per this. Seems to have worked: SHOW VARIABLES LIKE '%character%'; character_set_client utf8 character_set_connection utf8 character_set_database utf8 character_set_filesystem binary character_set_results utf8 character_set_server utf8 character_set_system utf8 character_sets_dir /rdsdbbin/mysql-5.1.50.R3/share/mysql/charsets/ Furthermore, I've successfully setup Heroku to use the RDS database. After rake db:migrate, everything looks good: CREATE TABLE `comments` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `commentable_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `parent_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `content` text COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci, `child_count` int(11) DEFAULT '0', `created_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `updated_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `commentable_id` (`commentable_id`), KEY `index_comments_on_community_id` (`community_id`), KEY `parent_id` (`parent_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=4 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; In the markup, I've included: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Also, I've set: production: encoding: utf8 collation: utf8_general_ci ...in the database.yml, though I'm not very confident that anything is being done to honor any of those settings in this case, as Heroku seems to be doing its own config when connecting to RDS. Now, I enter a comment through the form in the app: "Úbe® ƒåiL", but in the database I've got "Úbe® Æ’Ã¥iL" It looks fine when Rails loads it back out of the database and it is rendered to the page, so whatever it is doing one way, it's undoing the other way. If I look at the RDS database in Sequel Pro, it looks fine if I set the encoding to "UTF-8 Unicode via Latin 1". So it seems Latin-1 is sneaking in there somewhere. Somebody must have done this before, right? What am I missing?

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  • Drupal Ubercart: error in passing values back to the Content Type after checkout

    - by user512826
    I am trying to set up event registration in a drupal site using Ubercart + the UC Node Checkout Module. I have followed the instructions provided in http://drupaleasy.com/blogs/ultimike/2009/03/event-registration-ubercart. However I seem to be unable to pass the Order ID and Payment Status back to the node. I have created a conditional action that on node checkout executes the following PHP code: I am using the following code to update the node on checkout - but nothing happens: if (isset($order)) { foreach ($order->products as $product) { if (isset($product->data['node_checkout_nid'])) { $node = node_load($product->data['node_checkout_nid']); $node->field_status['0']['value'] = 1; $node->field_orderid['0']['value'] = $order->order_id; node_save($node); } } } I know the conditional action is working because it prints dsm('hello world') messages on node checkout - however when I include a dsm($node) or dsm($product) in the PHP code, they return blank. Also when I go back to my product and click the 'Devel' tab, the 'data' string contains the following characters: a:1:{s:13:"form_build_id";s:37:"form-3ccc03345f4832c69666a89c560de940";} In this link http://www.ubercart.org/forum/support/10951/node_checkout_issue I found someone else with the same issue, but I have been unable to replicate his solution. Can anybody please help? Thanks so much!

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  • How to call Java code from Javascript and assign a value to a JSP page?

    - by Frank
    I have the following "form.jsp" program, it generates a drop down list, below the list is a textarea to show the display_name of a selected item, now when user selected a item, it shows the selected item id in the textarea, how to call the DB from my code and get the display_name in the javascript so the result display_name will be shown in the textarea ? <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags"%> <script type="text/javascript"> function callme(Display_Name) { alert('callme : Display_Name = '+Display_Name); var v=document.getElementById('hiddenValue').value; alert('hiddenValue : v = '+v); document.getElementById('defaultDisplayName').value=Display_Name; } </script> <s:hidden id="pricelist.id" name="pricelist.id" value="%{pricelist.id}"/> <div class="dialog"> <table> <tbody> <s:if test="%{enableProductList}"> <tr class="prop"> <td valign="top" class="name required"><label for="description">Product:</label></td> <td valign="top"> <s:select id="productPrice.product" name="productPrice.product" headerKey="0" headerValue="-- Select Product --" list="products" listKey="id" listValue="name" value="productPrice.product.id" theme="simple" displayName1='value' onchange="callme(value)" /> <s:hidden id="hiddenValue" name="hiddenValue" value="123"/> </td> </tr> </s:if> <tr class="prop"> <td valign="top" class="name"><label for="description">Default Display Name:</label></td> <td valign="top"><s:textarea id="defaultDisplayName" name="defaultDisplayName" theme="simple" readonly="true"/></td> </tr> See attached image for details, in the DB, a product table has the product Id and display_name, I know the Id, how to use Java to get the display_name and plug it into the jsp ?

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  • No event is firing when placing a custom data bound control in DataRepeater control in Windows forms

    - by Remo
    Hi, Custom events in a custom data bound control are not firing in DataRepeater control. When I debug it I found that the DataRepeater Control recreates the control using Activator.CreateInstance and Copies the Properties and Events. In my case copying events doesn't copy the custom events that I hooked in. For example public class MyClass : Control { public event EventHandler MyEvent; protected virtual void OnMyEvent() { if(this.MyEvent != null) { this.MyEvent(this,EventArgs.Empty); } } private int selectedIndex= -1; public int SelectedIndex { get { return this.selectedIndex; } set { if(this.selectedIndex != value) { this.selectedIndex = value; this.OnMyEvent(); } } } // // DataBinding stuff goes here // } public Form1() { InitialiseComponent(); ArrayList list = new ArrayList(); list.Add("one"); this.dataRepeater1.DataSource = list; // One Repeater MyClass test = new Myclass(); test.DataSource = GetDataTable(); this.dataRepeater1.ItemTemplate.Controls.Add(test); test.MyEvent +=new EventHandler(test_MyEvent); } // This Event should fire when selected index of Datatable is changed and is firing when placed directly in the form and not firing when place in DataRepeater control/////////////////////// private void test_MyEvent(object sender, EventArgss e) { // This event is not fired/////////////////////// } private DataTable GetDataTable() { ..// Create a data Table and return } Any help Appreciated. Thanks,

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  • unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

    - by draconis
    Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

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  • jQuery .load from another page that contains Javascript

    - by Dave
    I've been using jQuery .load() to load content into a div. The content being .loaded occasionally has a document.ready() function which is called, and works, correctly (i.e. the ready() function is called). However, when I use an element ID in the .load(), such as: .load ("test.php #content"), the Javascript is no longer executed even if I put the script tag inside of the element that is being loaded. Does anyone have a solution to this other than to not use the element ID in the .load()? Thanks in advance. Here is the dynamic content (loadDialogTest.php): <div id="test"> <div> Hello, World! </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { alert ("ready"); }); </script> </div> and here is the page (where the element ID is NOT specified) that loads it (shortened as much as possible while maintaining the form: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { $("#openDialog").click (function () { $("<div></div>") .load ("loadDialogTest.php") .appendTo ($("#containingDiv")) .dialog ({ autoOpen: 'false', title: 'Test This!', close: function () { $(this).dialog ('destroy').remove (); } }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" id="openDialog">Open it</a> <div id="containingDiv"> </div> </body> If I put #test after the .php file as the div to load, the jQuery ready() function is no longer called.

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  • Dojo: Setting a CheckBox label programmatically

    - by Mitchell Flaherty
    Let me preface by saying that I saw this other question on the subject of CheckBox labels that was asked and answered well over a year ago. I was confused by the answers and am hoping that someone can clarify or that there has been new dojo functionality introduced since then that allows me to do this without resorting to HTML. So without further ado, I would like to know how to programmatically create labels for check boxes. I have a check box like so: this.pubBoxId = new dijit.form.CheckBox({ label: "IdChannel", checked: false, channel: that.idChannel }, that.name + "_PBI"); As you can see I've tried to edit the "label" field, but the label never actually shows up on the page. I have multiple CheckBoxes that I am adding to a ContentPane and simply want a label to the left or right of the check box. Is there any way I can do this without having to write separate HTML? Also, making a separate ContentPane for each individual label would be a big pain because of how many CheckBoxes I plan to have. Thank you for reading, and let me know if further clarification is needed!

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  • Now that I have solved AI and am preparing to take over the world, what should I do?

    - by Zak
    Well, I did it.. yup, solved AI. I thought the voice of my fledgling life form would be booming and computery, and I would call it HAL.. But in reality, it sounds like a small japanese girl. I believe I will name "her" Koro . Koro is already asking me what her first task should be. I have asked her to help eradicate her namesake, as we are losing a lot of productivity due to fear of penile disappearance. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Koro_%28medicine%29 Having a young japanese girl personality, I believe she will have no problem with delivering lots of penis growth to asian men. However, some of my fellow AI researchers have warned me that if I go down this path, China may take over the world, as Koro is the only thing holding them back from completely dominating the rest of the world economically. After all, look at what China is doing just making our silverware and toasters... The entire US industrial metal production is gone because toaster factories moved to China! So you good patrons of SO... who have soldiered on with me through so many other programming related questions... I ask you this now... How can Koro help the world without letting small asian men with no fear of losing their peni take over the world?

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  • How does asp.net MVC remember my false values on postback?

    - by Michel
    Hi, This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

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  • How can I concisely copy multiple SQL rows, with minor modifications?

    - by Steve Jessop
    I'm copying a subset of some data, so that the copy will be independently modifiable in future. One of my SQL statements looks something like this (I've changed table and column names): INSERT Product( ProductRangeID, Name, Weight, Price, Color, And, So, On ) SELECT @newrangeid AS ProductRangeID, Name, Weight, Price, Color, And, So, On FROM Product WHERE ProductRangeID = @oldrangeid and Color = 'Blue' That is, we're launching a new product range which initially just consists of all the blue items in some specified current range, under new SKUs. In future we may change the "blue-range" versions of the products independently of the old ones. I'm pretty new at SQL: is there something clever I should do to avoid listing all those columns, or at least avoid listing them twice? I can live with the current code, but I'd rather not have to come back and modify it if new columns are added to Product. In its current form it would just silently fail to copy the new column if I forget to do that, which should show up in testing but isn't great. I am copying every column except for the ProductRangeID (which I modify), the ProductID (incrementing primary key) and two DateCreated and timestamp columns (which take their auto-generated values for the new row). Btw, I suspect I should probably have a separate join table between ProductID and ProductRangeID. I didn't define the tables. This is in a T-SQL stored procedure on SQL Server 2008, if that makes any difference.

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  • What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

    - by Pichan
    I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

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  • How can I manage building library projects that produce both a static lib and a dll?

    - by Scott Langham
    I've got a large visual studio solution with ~50 projects. There are configurations for StaticDebug, StaticRelease, Debug and Release. Some libraries are needed in both dll and static lib form. To get them, we rebuild the solution with a different configuration. The Configuration Manager window is used to setup which projects need to build in which flavours, static lib, dynamic dll or both. This can by quite tricky to manage and it's a bit annoying to have to build the solution multiple times and select the configurations in the right order. Static versions need building before non-static versions. I'm wondering, instead of this current scheme, might it be simpler to manage if, for the projects I needed to produce both a static lib and dynamc dll, I created two projects. Eg: CoreLib CoreDll I could either make both of these projects reference all the same files and build them twice, or I'm wondering, would it be possible to build CoreLib and then get CoreDll to link it to generate the dll? I guess my question is, do you have any advice on how to structure your projects in this kind of situation? Thanks.

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  • How to use urlencoded urls with the GA tracking code

    - by Fake51
    I've got a site where a booking page has an iframe embedded with the actual booking form. I need to track traffic from the parent site to the child iframe. This should all work just fine with the normal GA code, using javascript like: <script type="text/javascript"> try { var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("<UA CODE HERE>"); pageTracker._setDomainName("none"); pageTracker._setAllowLinker(true); pageTracker._setAllowHash(false); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {}</script> And then ofcourse using the _getLinkerUrl() function to get a url with the proper parameters. So far so good - this basically works (at least I know the principle works as I've got it working on other pages). However, and this is the problem: the server that serves up the page in the iframe was configured by a complete and utter moron (or, alternatively, created by a complete and utter moron). It chokes on '=' characters, so in order to request the iframe page I need to urlencode the '=' signs - but the GA code seems unable to parse the url when this is done. So the questions: 1. has anyone come across this? 2. does anyone know of any solutions to this problem?

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  • How to Avoid Server Error 414 for Very Long QueryString Values

    - by Registered User
    I had a project that required posting a 2.5 million character QueryString to a web page. The server itself only parsed URI's that were 5,400 characters or less. After trying several different sets of code for WebRequest/WebResponse, WebClient, and Sockets, I finally found the following code that solved my problem: HttpWebRequest webReq; HttpWebResponse webResp = null; string Response = ""; Stream reqStream = null; webReq = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(strURL); Byte[] bytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("xml_doc=" + HttpUtility.UrlEncode(strQueryString)); webReq.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; webReq.Method = "POST"; webReq.ContentLength = bytes.Length; reqStream = webReq.GetRequestStream(); reqStream.Write(bytes, 0, bytes.Length); reqStream.Close(); webResp = (HttpWebResponse)webReq.GetResponse(); if (webResp.StatusCode == HttpStatusCode.OK) { StreamReader loResponseStream = new StreamReader(webResp.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.UTF8); Response = loResponseStream.ReadToEnd(); } webResp.Close(); reqStream = null; webResp = null; webReq = null;

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  • How to provide i18n service for developer and end user

    - by user247245
    Many android applications have quite poor i18n-support, and for an understandable reason, as it adds much work for the developer. From a both intuitive and cultural point of view it would be a good thing if end-users could translate the apps themself, and OTA share the translation, without reinstalling the app itself. In concept; as wikipedia, some add content easily, others only use what's there. It's of course important that the service is as easy as possible to use, both for app-developers, and people willing to transcribe. To keep it simple, this is the solution I'm concidering; Developer perspective: Developer uses a customized setContentView when open activities/layouts that will seach for thanslations of xml-entries. (below) The customized version is provided as a free downloadable library/class..., turning the i18n feature to more or less a one liner. User perspective: User downloads app without any translation As app launches, it checks locale running at phone, and will look for a translated xml-file at shared space in SD. If no or old transcribed xml (above), try to download new from internet-service (ansync). This is all done by library above, no need for intents. Translator perspective: Separate app to provide translations for any app using the i18n service above. (Could be just a webapp), with some form of QA on translators/input. QUESTION: Now, for this to work efficiently, it has to be AeasyAP for the developer to even bother, and the most fluent solution would be a customized version of setContentView, that simply loads the translated values from external xml, instead of the ones in the apk. Is this possible at all, and if not, what's your suggested solutions? (And of course, Happy New Year, feliz ano novo, blwyddyn newydd dda, Gott Nytt År, kontan ane nouvo, szczesliwego nowego roku ...) Regards, /T

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  • iOS UIImageView dataWithContentsOfURL returning empty

    - by user761389
    I'm trying to display an image from a URL in a UIImageView and I'm seeing some very peculiar results. The bit of code that I'm testing with is below imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/user_dyn/1073/32/32"; imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/assets/profile_images/default/32_32/avatar-male-01.jpg"; NSURL *imageURLRes = [NSURL URLWithString:imageURL]; NSData *imageData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:imageURLRes]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageWithData:imageData]; NSLog(@"Image Data: %@", imageData); In it's current form I can see data in the output window which is what I'd expect. However if comment out the second imageURL so I'm referencing the first I'm getting empty data and therefore nil is being returned by imageWithData. What is possibly more confusing is that the first image is basically the same as the second but it's been through a PHP processing script. I'm nearly certain that it isn't the script that's causing the issue because if I use this instead imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/product_dynimg/389620/32/32" the image is displayed and this uses the same image processing script. I'm struggling to find any difference in the images that would cause this to occur. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Call event from original thread ??

    - by user311883
    Hi all, Here is my problem, I have a class which have a object who throw an event and in this event I throw a custom event from my class. But unfortunately the original object throw the event from another thread and so my event is also throw on another thread. This cause a exception when my custom event try to access from controls. Here is a code sample to better understand : class MyClass { // Original object private OriginalObject myObject; // My event public delegate void StatsUpdatedDelegate(object sender, StatsArgs args); public event StatsUpdatedDelegate StatsUpdated; public MyClass() { // Original object event myObject.AnEvent += new EventHandler(myObject_AnEvent); } // This event is called on another thread private void myObject_AnEvent(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Throw my custom event here StatsArgs args = new StatsArgs(..........); StatsUpdated(this, args); } } So when on my windows form I call try to update a control from the event StatsUpdated I get a cross thread exception cause it has been called on another thread. What I want to do is throw my custom event on the original class thread, so control can be used within it. Anyone can help me ?

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  • Optimization in Common Decalaration

    - by Pratik
    Its a 3-tier ASP.NET Website Project In Data Layer there is class "Common Decalaration" in which lot of common things are mentioned. Something this way : public class CommonDeclartion { #region Common Messages public const string RECORD_INSERT_MSG = "Record Inserted Successfully "; public const string RECORD_UPDATE_MSG = "Record Updated Successfully"; public const string RECORD_DELETE_MSG = "Record Deleted Successfully"; public const string ERROR_MSG = "Error Ocuured while Perfoming This Action."; public const string UserID_Incorrect = "Please Enter The Correct User ID."; public const string RECORD_ALREADY_EXIT = "Record Already Exit"; public const string NO_RECORD = "No Record found."; #endregion } Can this be more optimized in terms of : 1.Perfomance 2.Security(if any) 3.Code Readablity or Reusablity I thought of using enum but can't figure that out : enum CommonMessages { RECORD_INSERT_MSG "Record Inserted Successfully.", RECORD_UPDATE_MSG "Record Updated Successfully.", RECORD_DELETE_MSG "Record Deleted Successfully.", ERROR_MSG "Error Ocuured while Perfoming This Action.", UserID_Incorrect "Please Enter The Correct User ID.", RECORD_ALREADY_EXIT "Record Already Exit.", NO_RECORD "No Record found.", } or else should keep them in some collections like dictionary/NameValueCollection or so or i have to keep them in XML in form of key/value pair and reterive from it ? What can be better way keeping in mind 1.Perfomance 2.Security(if any) 3.Code Readablity or Reusablity

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  • Is is possible to do an end-run around generics covariance in C# < 4 in this hypothetical situation?

    - by John Feminella
    Suppose I have a small inheritance hierarchy of Animals: public interface IAnimal { string Speak(); } public class Animal : IAnimal { public Animal() {} public string Speak() { return "[Animal] Growl!"; } } public class Ape : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Ape] Rawrrrrrrr!"; } } public class Bat : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Bat] Screeeeeee!"; } } Next, here's an interface offering a way to turn strings into IAnimals. public interface ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal { T Transmogrify(string s); } And finally, here's one strategy for doing that: public class Transmogrifier<T> : ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal, new() { public T Transmogrify(string s) { T t = default(T); if (typeof(T).Name == s) t = new T(); return t; } } Now, the question. Is it possible to replace the sections marked [1], [2], and [3] such that this program will compile and run correctly? If you can't do it without touching parts other than [1], [2], and [3], can you still get an IAnimal out of each instance of a Transmogrifier in a collection containing arbitrary implementations of an IAnimal? Can you even form such a collection to begin with? static void Main(string[] args) { var t = new Transmogrifier<Ape>(); Ape a = t.Transmogrify("Ape"); Console.WriteLine(a.Speak()); // Works! // But can we make an arbitrary collection of such animals? var list = new List<Transmogrifier< [1] >>() { // [2] }; // And how about we call Transmogrify() on each one? foreach (/* [3] */ transmogrifier in list) { IAnimal ia = transmogrifier.Transmogrify("Bat"); } } }

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  • The most expressive web app programming language/framework combination?

    - by Thor
    When concerned about creating web applications, I often ask myself how I can make the code easy to read and above all; how to make it easy to maintain. There has been alot of inventions in the last couple of years with probably millions of programmers sharing these thoughts. So, lets test if we can squeeze the distilled knowledge of millions of StackOverflow users for this ultimate answer: Which language/framework combination in the world right now is the most expressive to do common tasks? Please provide a simple example of simplicity, add a link to more information about the language, and no more than one entry per language/framework combination. Specifications: "Web application" in this context refers to applications that runs on a server and outputs HTML/Javascript/CSS for rendering on a client browser. Any server operating system is ok. "Language/Framework combination" can for example be like Java+Struts or Java+SpringWeb or Perl+CGI or Java+ZK "Most expressive" in this context is meant to be minimal code to do common tasks. "Common tasks" include simple output/input, i.e. form specifying, displaying and processing, as well as simply styling of output. I am more concerned about minimality than about complete functionality. A decent language design can have great potential even though it is not complete.

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