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  • CakePHP Observe field for validation check(already exists)

    - by deck john
    i have already user observe field in cakephp 1.3 Now i want to do the same thing in cakephp 2.0 I have one form.there is a one field named email. When user insert email. onblur there is a popup one message that displays "email already exists" or "right" for that i have write below code in my projects. the below code is my add file code <?php $options = array('url' => array( 'controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'is_exist'), 'update' => 'email_exist'); echo $this->ajax->observeField('UserEmailId',array('url' => array( 'controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'is_exist'), 'update' => 'email_exists')); ?> In my controller i have created one function like public function is_exist($id = null) { $result = "yes"; $this->set('existdata',$result); } i have also created is_exists.ctp fiel in view/uers. i dont know why its not working. i did the same thing in Cakephp 1.3 and its working file but not in cakephp 2.0 can anyone tell me how i implement this ? thanks in advance

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  • jQuery .load from another page that contains Javascript

    - by Dave
    I've been using jQuery .load() to load content into a div. The content being .loaded occasionally has a document.ready() function which is called, and works, correctly (i.e. the ready() function is called). However, when I use an element ID in the .load(), such as: .load ("test.php #content"), the Javascript is no longer executed even if I put the script tag inside of the element that is being loaded. Does anyone have a solution to this other than to not use the element ID in the .load()? Thanks in advance. Here is the dynamic content (loadDialogTest.php): <div id="test"> <div> Hello, World! </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { alert ("ready"); }); </script> </div> and here is the page (where the element ID is NOT specified) that loads it (shortened as much as possible while maintaining the form: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { $("#openDialog").click (function () { $("<div></div>") .load ("loadDialogTest.php") .appendTo ($("#containingDiv")) .dialog ({ autoOpen: 'false', title: 'Test This!', close: function () { $(this).dialog ('destroy').remove (); } }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" id="openDialog">Open it</a> <div id="containingDiv"> </div> </body> If I put #test after the .php file as the div to load, the jQuery ready() function is no longer called.

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  • extending the delphi TEditCopy action to also copy listbox items to clipboard

    - by PA
    I have a form with most of its functionality implemented using standard TAction. I have a menu, a toolbar, and some toobuttons. I have implemented clipboard copy/paste with no code at all, just using TEditCopy and TEditPaste actions. It works perfect in the TEdit and TMemo boxes I have. Now, I want it to work with TListBox, too. Specifically, I want to be able to copy the selected list item in a TListBox using the very same menuitems, key shortcuts and toolbuttons. So, I believe I will need to extend the TEditCopy Action. But it doesn't seem very straight forward to me. In particular, the TEditAction checks for the focused control to be a TCustomEdit control, which a TListBox it is not. I am a little affraid that it will be just too much work. The obvious alternative is to just forget about the standard actions and implement the copy to clipbard in the OnExecute method of a generic TAction. But, before giving up, do you have some idea, hint or trick that would help me extend the standard TEditCopy action?

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  • Body Mass Index program in haskell

    - by user364996
    Hi there. I'm trying to write a simple program in Haskell that can determine someone's body mass index. Here's what I have written: type Height = Float type Weight = Float type PeopleStats = [(String, Height, Weight)] and... bmi :: Height -> Weight -> Float bmi heightCm weightKg = weightKg/(heightCm)^2 healthy :: Height -> Weight -> Bool healthy heightCm weightKg | 25 > index && 18 < index = True | otherwise = False where index = bmi heightCm weightKg So far, the function "healthy" can calculate someone's BMI, and the function "healthyPeople" returns a boolean statement determining if the person's BMI falls within the limits which is considered normal for a healthy person. I want to write a function called "healthyPeople". healthyPeople :: PeopleStats -> [String] This function needs to take a list of PeopleStats and returns a list of names (Strings) of people who are deemed to be "healthy" from the "healthy" function. For example: If I input [("Lee", 65, 185), ("Wang", 170, 100), ("Tsu", 160, 120)] I will get a list of the names of the people whose BMI returns true form the boolean function in "healthy". Please help !!!!

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  • How to call Java code from Javascript and assign a value to a JSP page?

    - by Frank
    I have the following "form.jsp" program, it generates a drop down list, below the list is a textarea to show the display_name of a selected item, now when user selected a item, it shows the selected item id in the textarea, how to call the DB from my code and get the display_name in the javascript so the result display_name will be shown in the textarea ? <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags"%> <script type="text/javascript"> function callme(Display_Name) { alert('callme : Display_Name = '+Display_Name); var v=document.getElementById('hiddenValue').value; alert('hiddenValue : v = '+v); document.getElementById('defaultDisplayName').value=Display_Name; } </script> <s:hidden id="pricelist.id" name="pricelist.id" value="%{pricelist.id}"/> <div class="dialog"> <table> <tbody> <s:if test="%{enableProductList}"> <tr class="prop"> <td valign="top" class="name required"><label for="description">Product:</label></td> <td valign="top"> <s:select id="productPrice.product" name="productPrice.product" headerKey="0" headerValue="-- Select Product --" list="products" listKey="id" listValue="name" value="productPrice.product.id" theme="simple" displayName1='value' onchange="callme(value)" /> <s:hidden id="hiddenValue" name="hiddenValue" value="123"/> </td> </tr> </s:if> <tr class="prop"> <td valign="top" class="name"><label for="description">Default Display Name:</label></td> <td valign="top"><s:textarea id="defaultDisplayName" name="defaultDisplayName" theme="simple" readonly="true"/></td> </tr> See attached image for details, in the DB, a product table has the product Id and display_name, I know the Id, how to use Java to get the display_name and plug it into the jsp ?

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  • How do I get 2-way data binding to work for nested asp.net Repeater controls

    - by jimblanchard
    I have the following (trimmed) markup: <asp:Repeater ID="CostCategoryRepeater" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <div class="costCategory"> <asp:Repeater ID="CostRepeater" runat="server" DataSource='<%# Eval("Costs")%>'> <ItemTemplate> <tr class="oddCostRows"> <td class="costItemTextRight"><span><%# Eval("Variance", "{0:c0}")%></span></td> <td class="costItemTextRight"><input id="SupplementAmount" class="costEntryRight" type="text" value='<%# Bind("SupplementAmount")%>' runat="server" /></td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> The outer repeater's DataSource is set in the code-beside. I've snipped them, but there are Eval statements that wire up to the properties in the outer Repeater. Anyway, one of the fields in the inner Repeater needs to be a Bind instead of an Eval, as I want to get the values that the user types in. The SupplementAmount input element correctly receives it's value when the page loads, but on the other side, when I inspect the contents of the Costs List when the form posts back, the changes the user made aren't present. Thanks.

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  • HMAC URLs instead of login?

    - by Tres
    In implementing my site (a Rails site if it makes any difference), one of my design priorities is to relieve the user of the need to create yet another username and password while still providing useful per-user functionality. The way I am planning to do this is: User enters information on the site. Information is associated with the user via server-side session. User completes entering information, server sends an access URL via e-mail to the user roughly in the form of: http://siteurl/<user identifier>/<signature: HMAC(secret + salt + user identifier)> User clicks URL, site looks up user ID and salt and computes the HMAC with the server-stored secret and authenticates if the computed HMAC and signature match. My question is: is this a reasonably secure way to accomplish what I'm looking to do? Are there common attacks that would render it useless? Is there a compelling reason to abandon my desire to avoid a username/password? Is there a must-read book or article on the subject? Note that I'm not dealing with credit card numbers or anything exceedingly private, but I would still like to keep the information reasonably secure.

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  • iOS UIImageView dataWithContentsOfURL returning empty

    - by user761389
    I'm trying to display an image from a URL in a UIImageView and I'm seeing some very peculiar results. The bit of code that I'm testing with is below imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/user_dyn/1073/32/32"; imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/assets/profile_images/default/32_32/avatar-male-01.jpg"; NSURL *imageURLRes = [NSURL URLWithString:imageURL]; NSData *imageData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:imageURLRes]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageWithData:imageData]; NSLog(@"Image Data: %@", imageData); In it's current form I can see data in the output window which is what I'd expect. However if comment out the second imageURL so I'm referencing the first I'm getting empty data and therefore nil is being returned by imageWithData. What is possibly more confusing is that the first image is basically the same as the second but it's been through a PHP processing script. I'm nearly certain that it isn't the script that's causing the issue because if I use this instead imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/product_dynimg/389620/32/32" the image is displayed and this uses the same image processing script. I'm struggling to find any difference in the images that would cause this to occur. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Problem with ModelAndView and ModelMap in AnnotationController, Springframework

    - by saltfactory
    I have a question that is a point difference between ModelAndView and ModelMap. I want to maintain modelAndView when requestMethod is "GET" and requestMethod is "POST". My modelAndView saved others. So I made modelAndView return type to "GET", "POST" methods. But, Request lost commandObject, form:errors..., if request return showForm on "POST" because request validation failed. example) private ModelAndView modelAndView; public ControllerTest{ this.modelAndView = new ModelAndView(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView showForm(ModelMap model) { EntityObject entityObject = new EntityObject(); CommandObject commandObject = new CommandObject(); commandObject.setEntityObject(entityObject); model.addAttribute("commandObject", commandObject); this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "GET"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public ModelAndView submit(@ModelAttribute("commandObject") CommandObject commandObject, BindingResult result, SessionStatus status) { this.commandValidator.validate(commandObject, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } else { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "after POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("success"); } status.setComplete(); return this.modelAndView; }

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  • waiting for a signal

    - by Umesha MS
    Hi, I am working on an application which uploads the content of the file to server. To upload the file to server I am using ‘QNetworkAccessManager’ class. Since it works as asynchronous way, I changed it to work as synchronous way by using QEventLoop. Class FileTransfer { Public : QNetworkAccessManager mNetworkManager; Void Upload(QNetworkRequest request, QIODevice *data) { responce = mNetworkManager.put(request, data); EventLoop.exec(); ReadResponce(responce); } Void Stop() { responce ->close(); } } In my sample application I have 2 windows. 1st to select the files and 2nd to show the progress. When user click on upload button in the first window, the 2nd window will be displayed and then I create the FileTransfer object and start uploading. While uploading the file if user closes the form then in the destructor of the window I call the stop of ‘FileTransfer’ after that I delete the ‘FileTransfer’ object. But here the Upload() function is not yet completed so it will crash. Please help me to: How to wait in 'stop()' function until the Upload() function is completed

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  • Closing Windows Forms on a Touchscreen

    - by drharris
    Our clients have fat fingers, and so do we. We take touchscreen netbooks apart to insert them into our custom hardware, and I write a software interface that shows up on the touchscreen. The problem is that it has about a 3/4" bezel over the screen, which means hitting that little red "X" becomes a challenge, especially considering reduced capacitive ability on the edges and corners. Is there a way to make this standard close button larger? Of course in the application I can always make really nice 80x80 buttons that are perfectly usable, but there seems to be no way to override the default frame of the form. We have tried enabling Large Fonts and all the built-in accessibility features, but nothing seems to make it large enough to hit successfully. Simply adding a toolbar button is also not much of an option. We prefer to utilize the standard look and feel of a normal Windows application. Alternatively, should we be looking at making some sort of "kiosk mode" where we simply go fullscreen and do nothing involving the taskbar or title bar? How difficult is this to accomplish, if so?

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  • Can't store UTF-8 in RDS despite setting up new Parameter Group using Rails on Heroku

    - by Lail
    I'm setting up a new instance of a Rails(2.3.5) app on Heroku using Amazon RDS as the database. I'd like to use UTF-8 for everything. Since RDS isn't UTF-8 by default, I set up a new Parameter Group and switched the database to use that one, basically per this. Seems to have worked: SHOW VARIABLES LIKE '%character%'; character_set_client utf8 character_set_connection utf8 character_set_database utf8 character_set_filesystem binary character_set_results utf8 character_set_server utf8 character_set_system utf8 character_sets_dir /rdsdbbin/mysql-5.1.50.R3/share/mysql/charsets/ Furthermore, I've successfully setup Heroku to use the RDS database. After rake db:migrate, everything looks good: CREATE TABLE `comments` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `commentable_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `parent_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `content` text COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci, `child_count` int(11) DEFAULT '0', `created_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `updated_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `commentable_id` (`commentable_id`), KEY `index_comments_on_community_id` (`community_id`), KEY `parent_id` (`parent_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=4 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; In the markup, I've included: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Also, I've set: production: encoding: utf8 collation: utf8_general_ci ...in the database.yml, though I'm not very confident that anything is being done to honor any of those settings in this case, as Heroku seems to be doing its own config when connecting to RDS. Now, I enter a comment through the form in the app: "Úbe® ƒåiL", but in the database I've got "Úbe® Æ’Ã¥iL" It looks fine when Rails loads it back out of the database and it is rendered to the page, so whatever it is doing one way, it's undoing the other way. If I look at the RDS database in Sequel Pro, it looks fine if I set the encoding to "UTF-8 Unicode via Latin 1". So it seems Latin-1 is sneaking in there somewhere. Somebody must have done this before, right? What am I missing?

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  • How does asp.net MVC remember my false values on postback?

    - by Michel
    Hi, This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

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  • Symfony 1.4 - Don't save a blank password on a executeUpdate action.

    - by Twelve47
    I have a form to edit a UserProfile which is stored in mysql db. Which includes the following custom configuration: public function configure() { $this->widgetSchema['password']=new sfWidgetFormInputPassword(); $this->validatorSchema['password']->setOption('required', false); // you don't need to specify a new password if you are editing a user. } When the user tries to save the executeUpdate method is called to commit the changes. If the password is left blank, the password field is set to '', but I want it to retain the old password instead of overwriting it. What is the best (/most in the symfony ethos) way of doing this? My solution was to override the setter method on the model (which i had done anyway for password encryption), and ignore blank values. public function setPassword( $password ) { if ($password=='') return false; // if password is blank don't save it. return $this->_set('password', UserProfile ::encryptPassword( $password )); } It seems to work fine like this, but is there a better way? If you're wondering I cannot use sfDoctrineGuard for this project as I am dealing with a legacy database, and cannot change the schema.

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  • Symfony generating database from model

    - by Sergej Jevsejev
    Hello, I am having troubles generating a simple database form model. I am using: Doctrine on Symfony 1.4.4 MySQL Workbench 5.2.16 with Doctrine Export 0.4.2dev So my ERL Model is: http://img708.imageshack.us/img708/1716/tmg.png Genereted YAML file: --- detect_relations: true options: collate: utf8_unicode_ci charset: utf8 type: InnoDB Course: columns: id: type: integer(4) primary: true notnull: true autoincrement: true name: type: string(255) notnull: true keywords: type: string(255) notnull: true summary: type: clob(65535) notnull: true Lecture: columns: id: type: integer(4) primary: true notnull: true autoincrement: true course_id: type: integer(4) primary: true notnull: true name: type: string(255) notnull: true description: type: string(255) notnull: true url: type: string(255) relations: Course: class: Course local: course_id foreign: id foreignAlias: Lectures foreignType: many owningSide: true User: columns: id: type: integer(4) primary: true unique: true notnull: true autoincrement: true firstName: type: string(255) notnull: true lastName: type: string(255) notnull: true email: type: string(255) unique: true notnull: true designation: type: string(1024) personalHeadline: type: string(1024) shortBio: type: clob(65535) UserCourse: tableName: user_has_course columns: user_id: type: integer(4) primary: true notnull: true course_id: type: integer(4) primary: true notnull: true relations: User: class: User local: user_id foreign: id foreignAlias: UserCourses foreignType: many owningSide: true Course: class: Course local: course_id foreign: id foreignAlias: UserCourses foreignType: many owningSide: true And no matter what I try this error occurs after: symfony doctrine:build --all --no-confirmation SQLSTATE[42000]: Syntax error or access violation: 1072 Key column 'user_userid' doesn't exist in table. Failing Query: "ALTER TABLE user_has_course ADD CONSTRAINT user_has_course_user_userid_user_id FOREIGN KEY (user_userid) REFERENCES user(id)". Failing Query: ALTER TABLE user_has_course ADD CONSTRAINT user_has_cou rse_user_userid_user_id FOREIGN KEY (user_userid) REFERENCES user(id) Currently I am studying Symfony, and stuck with this error. Please help.

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  • Javascipt Regular Expression

    - by Ghoul Fool
    Having problems with regular expressions in JavaScript. I've got a number of strings that need delimiting by commas. Unfortunately the sub strings don't have quotes around them which would make life easier. var str1 = "Three Blind Mice 13 Agents of Cheese Super 18" var str2 = "An Old Woman Who Lived in a Shoe 7 Pixies None 12" var str3 = "The Cow Jumped Over The Moon 21 Crazy Cow Tales Wonderful 9" They are in the form of PHRASE1 (Mixed type with spaces") INTEGER1 (1 or two digit) PHRASE2 (Mixed type with spaces") WORD1 (single word mixed type, no spaces) INTEGER2 (1 or two digit) so I should get: result1 = "Three Blind Mice, 13, Agents of Cheese, Super, 18" result2 = "An Old Woman Who Lived in a Shoe, 7, Pixies, None, 12" result3 = "A Cow Jumped Over The Moon, 21, Crazy Cow Tales, Wonderful, 9" I've looked at txt2re.com, but can't quite get what I need and ended up delimiting by hand. But I'm sure it can be done, albeit someone with a bigger brain. There are lots of examples of regEx but I couldn't find any to deal with phrases; so I was wondering if anyone could help me out. Thank you.

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  • Login to website and use cookie to get source for another page

    - by Stu
    I am trying to login to the TV Rage website and get the source code of the My Shows page. I am successfully logging in (I have checked the response from my post request) but then when I try to perform a get request on the My Shows page, I am re-directed to the login page. This is the code I am using to login: private string LoginToTvRage() { string loginUrl = "http://www.tvrage.com/login.php"; string formParams = string.Format("login_name={0}&login_pass={1}", "xxx", "xxxx"); string cookieHeader; WebRequest req = WebRequest.Create(loginUrl); req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; req.Method = "POST"; byte[] bytes = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(formParams); req.ContentLength = bytes.Length; using (Stream os = req.GetRequestStream()) { os.Write(bytes, 0, bytes.Length); } WebResponse resp = req.GetResponse(); cookieHeader = resp.Headers["Set-cookie"]; String responseStream; using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(resp.GetResponseStream())) { responseStream = sr.ReadToEnd(); } return cookieHeader; } I then pass the cookieHeader into this method which should be getting the source of the My Shows page: private string GetSourceForMyShowsPage(string cookieHeader) { string pageSource; string getUrl = "http://www.tvrage.com/mytvrage.php?page=myshows"; WebRequest getRequest = WebRequest.Create(getUrl); getRequest.Headers.Add("Cookie", cookieHeader); WebResponse getResponse = getRequest.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(getResponse.GetResponseStream())) { pageSource = sr.ReadToEnd(); } return pageSource; } I have been using this previous question as a guide but I'm at a loss as to why my code isn't working.

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  • No event is firing when placing a custom data bound control in DataRepeater control in Windows forms

    - by Remo
    Hi, Custom events in a custom data bound control are not firing in DataRepeater control. When I debug it I found that the DataRepeater Control recreates the control using Activator.CreateInstance and Copies the Properties and Events. In my case copying events doesn't copy the custom events that I hooked in. For example public class MyClass : Control { public event EventHandler MyEvent; protected virtual void OnMyEvent() { if(this.MyEvent != null) { this.MyEvent(this,EventArgs.Empty); } } private int selectedIndex= -1; public int SelectedIndex { get { return this.selectedIndex; } set { if(this.selectedIndex != value) { this.selectedIndex = value; this.OnMyEvent(); } } } // // DataBinding stuff goes here // } public Form1() { InitialiseComponent(); ArrayList list = new ArrayList(); list.Add("one"); this.dataRepeater1.DataSource = list; // One Repeater MyClass test = new Myclass(); test.DataSource = GetDataTable(); this.dataRepeater1.ItemTemplate.Controls.Add(test); test.MyEvent +=new EventHandler(test_MyEvent); } // This Event should fire when selected index of Datatable is changed and is firing when placed directly in the form and not firing when place in DataRepeater control/////////////////////// private void test_MyEvent(object sender, EventArgss e) { // This event is not fired/////////////////////// } private DataTable GetDataTable() { ..// Create a data Table and return } Any help Appreciated. Thanks,

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  • Is encrypting session id (or other authenticate value) in cookie useful at all?

    - by Ji
    In web development, when session state is enabled, a session id is stored in cookie(in cookieless mode, query string will be used instead). In asp.net, the session id is encrypted automatically. There are plenty of topics on the internet regarding how you should encrypt your cookie, including session id. I can understand why you want to encrypt private info such as DOB, but any private info should not be stored in cookie at first place. So for other cookie values such as session id, what is the purpose encryption? Does it add security at all? no matter how you secure it, it will be sent back to server for decryption. Be be more specific, For authentication purpose, turn off session, i don't want to deal with session time out any more store some sort of id value in the cookie, on the server side, check if the id value exists and matches, if it is, authenticate user. let the cookie value expire when browser session is ended, this way. vs Asp.net form authentication mechanism (it relies on session or session id, i think) does latter one offer better security?

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  • How to provide i18n service for developer and end user

    - by user247245
    Many android applications have quite poor i18n-support, and for an understandable reason, as it adds much work for the developer. From a both intuitive and cultural point of view it would be a good thing if end-users could translate the apps themself, and OTA share the translation, without reinstalling the app itself. In concept; as wikipedia, some add content easily, others only use what's there. It's of course important that the service is as easy as possible to use, both for app-developers, and people willing to transcribe. To keep it simple, this is the solution I'm concidering; Developer perspective: Developer uses a customized setContentView when open activities/layouts that will seach for thanslations of xml-entries. (below) The customized version is provided as a free downloadable library/class..., turning the i18n feature to more or less a one liner. User perspective: User downloads app without any translation As app launches, it checks locale running at phone, and will look for a translated xml-file at shared space in SD. If no or old transcribed xml (above), try to download new from internet-service (ansync). This is all done by library above, no need for intents. Translator perspective: Separate app to provide translations for any app using the i18n service above. (Could be just a webapp), with some form of QA on translators/input. QUESTION: Now, for this to work efficiently, it has to be AeasyAP for the developer to even bother, and the most fluent solution would be a customized version of setContentView, that simply loads the translated values from external xml, instead of the ones in the apk. Is this possible at all, and if not, what's your suggested solutions? (And of course, Happy New Year, feliz ano novo, blwyddyn newydd dda, Gott Nytt År, kontan ane nouvo, szczesliwego nowego roku ...) Regards, /T

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  • Linq Select: Using a value from a list if available

    - by musefan
    I am going to use some basic stripped down examples to illustrate my problem. I have a class: class Item { int ID; bool Selected; } Now lets say I have two lists of the Item class: List<Item> ListA = GetListA(); List<Item> ListB = GetListB(); Now I want to create a third list that has all the items from ListB. The important thing is that if a match (same ID) if found in ListA then I want to use that Selected value, otherwise I want to keep the Selected value of the item that is in ListB. I am creating the third list as follows: List<Item> ListC = from item in ListB select new Item { ID = item.ID, Selected = item.Selected// <-- should use value form ListA if available }; Important: I don't want to seem ignorant, but I do not want to change the way ListC is created. By that I mean I want to use the "linq select" method, and I want to use a "one liner" that assigns the Selected value... I know there are other ways to create the list which will work just fine, but then I won't learn anything new. I have tried a couple of things so far... I know this will work, but I don't want to query ListA twice: Selected = ListA.Any(x => x.ID == item.ID) ? ListA.First(x => x.ID == item.ID).Selected : item.Selected and I also tried using DeafultIfEmpty but I don't think that is the right think for this situation... because it didn't work, and it seems it is more use if ListA was empty (which I don't care about)

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  • How to Avoid Server Error 414 for Very Long QueryString Values

    - by Registered User
    I had a project that required posting a 2.5 million character QueryString to a web page. The server itself only parsed URI's that were 5,400 characters or less. After trying several different sets of code for WebRequest/WebResponse, WebClient, and Sockets, I finally found the following code that solved my problem: HttpWebRequest webReq; HttpWebResponse webResp = null; string Response = ""; Stream reqStream = null; webReq = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(strURL); Byte[] bytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("xml_doc=" + HttpUtility.UrlEncode(strQueryString)); webReq.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; webReq.Method = "POST"; webReq.ContentLength = bytes.Length; reqStream = webReq.GetRequestStream(); reqStream.Write(bytes, 0, bytes.Length); reqStream.Close(); webResp = (HttpWebResponse)webReq.GetResponse(); if (webResp.StatusCode == HttpStatusCode.OK) { StreamReader loResponseStream = new StreamReader(webResp.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.UTF8); Response = loResponseStream.ReadToEnd(); } webResp.Close(); reqStream = null; webResp = null; webReq = null;

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  • Can I write a .NETCF Partial Class to extend System.Windows.Forms.UserControl?

    - by eidylon
    Okay... I'm writing a .NET CF (VBNET 2008 3.5 SP1) application, which has one master form, and it dynamically loads specific UserControls based on menu click, in a sort of framework idea. There are certain methods and properties these controls all need to work within the app. Right now I am doing this as an Interface, but this is aggravating as all get up, because some of the methods are optional, and yet I MUST implement them by the nature of interfaces. I would prefer to use inheritance, so that I can have certain code be inherited with overridability, but if I write a class which inherits System.Windows.Forms.UserControl and then inherit my control from that, it squiggles, and tells me that UserControls MUST inherit directly from System.Windows.Forms.UserControl. (Talk about a design flaw!) So next I thought, well, let me use a partial class to extend System.Windows.Forms.UserControl, but when I do that, even though it all seems to compile fine, none of my new properties/methods show up on my controls. Is there any way I can use partial classes to 'extend' System.Windows.Forms.UserControl? For example, can anyone give me a code sample of a partial class which simply adds a MyCount As Integer readonly property to the System.Windows.Forms.UserControl class? If I can just see how to get this going, I can take it from there and add the rest of my functionality. Thanks in advance! I've been searching google, but can't find anything that seems to work for UserControl extension on .NET CF. And the Interface method is driving me crazy as even a small change means updating ALL the controls whether they need to 'override' the method or not.

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  • a question of javascript DOM functions in IE 6

    - by CunruiLi
    <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Test</title> </head> <body> <div id="test"> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> var check = function(){ alert(document.examsys); } var _form = document.createElement("form"); _form.name = "examsys"; _form.action="javascript:;" for(var i=0 ; i<5; i++){ _form.innerHTML += "<input type='radio' name='answer' value='ccc' />&nbsp;abc<br />"; } var submit = document.createElement("input"); submit.type = "image"; submit.src = "tijiao.gif"; submit.alt = "Submit"; if(submit.attachEvent){ submit.attachEvent("onclick",check); } else if(submit.addEventListener){ submit.addEventListener("click",check,false); } _form.appendChild(submit); document.getElementById("test").appendChild(_form); </script> </body> </html> why in IE6 the document.examsys returns "undefined".

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  • Call event from original thread ??

    - by user311883
    Hi all, Here is my problem, I have a class which have a object who throw an event and in this event I throw a custom event from my class. But unfortunately the original object throw the event from another thread and so my event is also throw on another thread. This cause a exception when my custom event try to access from controls. Here is a code sample to better understand : class MyClass { // Original object private OriginalObject myObject; // My event public delegate void StatsUpdatedDelegate(object sender, StatsArgs args); public event StatsUpdatedDelegate StatsUpdated; public MyClass() { // Original object event myObject.AnEvent += new EventHandler(myObject_AnEvent); } // This event is called on another thread private void myObject_AnEvent(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Throw my custom event here StatsArgs args = new StatsArgs(..........); StatsUpdated(this, args); } } So when on my windows form I call try to update a control from the event StatsUpdated I get a cross thread exception cause it has been called on another thread. What I want to do is throw my custom event on the original class thread, so control can be used within it. Anyone can help me ?

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