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• 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

  - by BlazingFrog

  I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

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• How can I bind a simple Javascript array to an MVC3 controller action method?

  - by Sergio Tapia

  Here is the javascript code I use to create the array and send it on it's way: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#update-cart-btn").click(function() { var items = []; $(".item").each(function () { var productKey = $(this).find("input[name='item.ProductId']").val(); var productQuantity = $(this).find("input[type='text']").val(); items[productKey] = productQuantity; }); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "@Url.Action("UpdateCart", "Cart")", data: items, success: function () { alert("Successfully updated your cart!"); } }); }); }); </script> The items object is properly constructed with the values I need. What data type must my object be on the backend of my controller? I tried this but the variable remains null and is not bound. [Authorize] [HttpPost] public ActionResult UpdateCart(object[] items) // items remains null. { // Some magic here. return RedirectToAction("Index"); }

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• how to Solve the "Digg" problem in MongoDB

  - by user193116

  A while back,a Digg developer had posted this blog ,"http://about.digg.com/blog/looking-future-cassandra", where the he described one of the issues that were not optimally solved in MySQL. This was cited as one of the reasons for their move to Cassandra. I have been playing with MongoDB and I would like to understand how to implement the MongoDB collections for this problem From the article, the schema for this information in MySQL : CREATE TABLE Diggs ( id INT(11), itemid INT(11), userid INT(11), digdate DATETIME, PRIMARY KEY (id), KEY user (userid), KEY item (itemid) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; CREATE TABLE Friends ( id INT(10) AUTO_INCREMENT, userid INT(10), username VARCHAR(15), friendid INT(10), friendname VARCHAR(15), mutual TINYINT(1), date_created DATETIME, PRIMARY KEY (id), UNIQUE KEY Friend_unique (userid,friendid), KEY Friend_friend (friendid) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; This problem is ubiquitous in social networking scenario implementation. People befriend a lot of people and they in turn digg a lot of things. Quickly showing a user what his/her friends are up to is very critical. I understand that several blogs have since then provided a pure RDBMs solution with indexes for this issue; however I am curious as to how this could be solved in MongoDB.

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• "Access is denied" by executing .hta file with JScript on Windows XP x64

  - by mem64k

  I have a simple HTML (as HTA) application that shows strange behavior on Windows XP x64 machine. I getting periodically (not every time) error message "Access is denied." when i start the application. The same application on Windows XP 32bit runs just fine... Does somebody has any idea or explanation? Error message: Line: 18 Char: 6 Error: Access is denied. Code: 0 URL: file:///D:/test_j.hta Here is the code of my "test_j.hta": <html> <head> <title>Test J</title> <HTA:APPLICATION ID="objTestJ" APPLICATIONNAME="TestJ" SCROLL="no" SINGLEINSTANCE="yes" WINDOWSTATE="normal" > <script language="JScript"> function main() { //window.alert("test"); window.resizeTo(500, 300); } function OnExit() { window.close(); } </script> </head> <body onload="main()"> <input type="button" value="Exit" name="Exit" onClick="OnExit()" title="Exit"> </body> </html>

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• Reversible numerical calculations in Prolog

  - by user8472

  While reading SICP I came across logic programming chapter 4.4. Then I started looking into the Prolog programming language and tried to understand some simple assignments in Prolog. I found that Prolog seems to have troubles with numerical calculations. Here is the computation of a factorial in standard Prolog: f(0, 1). f(A, B) :- A > 0, C is A-1, f(C, D), B is A*D. The issues I find is that I need to introduce two auxiliary variables (C and D), a new syntax (is) and that the problem is non-reversible (i.e., f(5,X) works as expected, but f(X,120) does not). Naively, I expect that at the very least C is A-1, f(C, D) above may be replaced by f(A-1,D), but even that does not work. My question is: Why do I need to do this extra "stuff" in numerical calculations but not in other queries? I do understand (and SICP is quite clear about it) that in general information on "what to do" is insufficient to answer the question of "how to do it". So the declarative knowledge in (at least some) math problems is insufficient to actually solve these problems. But that begs the next question: How does this extra "stuff" in Prolog help me to restrict the formulation to just those problems where "what to do" is sufficient to answer "how to do it"?

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• Most Elegant Way to write isPrime in java

  - by Anantha Kumaran

  public class Prime { public static boolean isPrime1(int n) { if (n <= 1) { return false; } if (n == 2) { return true; } for (int i = 2; i <= Math.sqrt(n) + 1; i++) { if (n % i == 0) { return false; } } return true; } public static boolean isPrime2(int n) { if (n <= 1) { return false; } if (n == 2) { return true; } if (n % 2 == 0) { return false; } for (int i = 3; i <= Math.sqrt(n) + 1; i = i + 2) { if (n % i == 0) { return false; } } return true; } } public class PrimeTest { public PrimeTest() { } @Test public void testIsPrime() throws IllegalArgumentException, IllegalAccessException, InvocationTargetException { Prime prime = new Prime(); TreeMap<Long, String> methodMap = new TreeMap<Long, String>(); for (Method method : Prime.class.getDeclaredMethods()) { long startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); int primeCount = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 1000000; i++) { if ((Boolean) method.invoke(prime, i)) { primeCount++; } } long endTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); Assert.assertEquals(method.getName() + " failed ", 78498, primeCount); methodMap.put(endTime - startTime, method.getName()); } for (Entry<Long, String> entry : methodMap.entrySet()) { System.out.println(entry.getValue() + " " + entry.getKey() + " Milli seconds "); } } } I am trying to find the fastest way to check whether the given number is prime or not. This is what is finally came up with. Is there any better way than the second implementation(isPrime2).

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• Tagging in Subversion - how do I make the decision about continuing to work on my trunk vs. the new

  - by Howiecamp

  I'm running Tortoise SVN to manage a project. Obviously the principles around tagging apply to any implementation of SVN but in this question I'll be referring to some TortoiseSVN-specific dialog boxes and messages. My working directory and the subversion repository structure both have a Source root directory and the Trunk, Tags and Branches directories underneath. (I couldn't figure out how to do a multilevel indented hierarchy in markdown without using bullets, so if someone could edit and fix this I'd appreciate it.) I'm working out of the Trunk directory in my working copy and it's pointing at the Trunk directory in the repo. I want to apply a Tag "Release1" so I click the "Branch/tag..." menu option and set the repo path as my [repo_path/bla/Source/Tags/Release1" tag. This dialog box gives me the option to "Switch my working copy to new branch/tag". I understand that if this option is left unchecked, the new "Release1" branch under /Tags" will be created but my working copy will remain on the previous "Trunk" path. If I do check this option (or use the Switch command) I understand that my working copy will switch to the new "Release1" branch under "/Tags". Where I'm missing a concept is how to make this decision. It doesn't seem like I want to switch my working directory to the recently created tag since by definition (?) I want that tag to be a snapshot of my code as of a point in time. If I don't switch the working directory, I'll continue working off Trunk and when I'm ready to take another snapshot I'll make another tag. And so on... Am I understanding this right or am I stating something incorrectly in the previous paragraph (e.g. the statement about not wanting to switch to the tag since the tag should represent a point in time snapshot) or otherwise missing something regarding how to make this decision?

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• How to set interface method between two viewController to pass paramter in Navigation Controller

  - by TechFusion

  Hello, I have created Window based application, root controller as Tab Bar controller. One Tab bar has Navigation controller. Navigation controller's ViewControlller implementation, I am pushing Viewcontroller. I am looking to pass parameter from Navigation Controller's View controller to pushed View Controller. I have tried to pass as per below method. //ViewController.h @interface ViewController:UIViewController{ NSString *String; } @property(copy, nonatomic)NSString *String; @end //ViewController.m #import "ViewController1.h" ViewController1 *level1view = [[ViewController alloc]init]; level1view.hideBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; level1view.theString = String; [self.navigationController pushViewController:level1view animated:YES]; [level1view release]; //ViewController1.h NSString *theString; @property(copy, nonatomic)NSString *theString; This is working fine. but I want to pass more than one parameter like Integer and UITextFiled Values so how to do that? Is there any Apple Doc that I can get idea about this? Thanks,

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• Class initialization and synchronized class method

  - by nybon

  Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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• Numerical calculations in Prolog

  - by user8472

  While reading SICP I came across logic programming chapter 4.4. Then I started looking into the Prolog programming language and tried to understand some simple assignments in Prolog. I found that Prolog seems to have troubles with numerical calculations. Here is the computation of a factorial in standard Prolog: f(0, 1). f(A, B) :- A > 0, C is A-1, f(C, D), B is A*D. The issues I find is that I need to introduce two auxiliary variables (C and D), a new syntax (is) and that the problem is non-reversible (i.e., f(5,X) works as expected, but f(X,120) does not). Naively, I expect that at the very least C is A-1, f(C, D) above may be replaced by f(A-1,D), but even that does not work. My question is: Why do I need to do this extra "stuff" in numerical calculations but not in other queries? I do understand (and SICP is quite clear about it) that in general information on "what to do" is insufficient to answer the question of "how to do it". So the declarative knowledge in (at least some) math problems is insufficient to actually solve these problems. But that begs the next question: How does this extra "stuff" in Prolog help me to restrict the formulation to just those problems where "what to do" is sufficient to answer "how to do it"?

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• Thread management advice - Is TPL a good idea?

  - by Ian

  I'm hoping to get some advice on the use of thread managment and hopefully the task parallel library, because I'm not sure I've been going down the correct route. Probably best is that I give an outline of what I'm trying to do. Given a Problem I need to generate a Solution using a heuristic based algorithm. I start of by calculating a base solution, this operation I don't think can be parallelised so we don't need to worry about. Once the inital solution has been generated, I want to trigger n threads, which attempt to find a better solution. These threads need to do a couple of things: They need to be initalized with a different 'optimization metric'. In other words they are attempting to optimize different things, with a precedence level set within code. This means they all run slightly different calculation engines. I'm not sure if I can do this with the TPL.. If one of the threads finds a better solution that the currently best known solution (which needs to be shared across all threads) then it needs to update the best solution, and force a number of other threads to restart (again this depends on precedence levels of the optimization metrics). I may also wish to combine certain calculations across threads (e.g. keep a union of probabilities for a certain approach to the problem). This is probably more optional though. The whole system needs to be thread safe obviously and I want it to be running as fast as possible. I tried quite an implementation that involved managing my own threads and shutting them down etc, but it started getting quite complicated, and I'm now wondering if the TPL might be better. I'm wondering if anyone can offer any general guidance? Thanks...

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• Boost's "cstdint" Usage

  - by patt0h

  Boost's C99 stdint implementation is awfully handy. One thing bugs me, though. They dump all of their typedefs into the boost namespace. This leaves me with three choices when using this facility: Use "using namespace boost" Use "using boost::[u]<type><width>_t" Explicitly refer to the target type with the boost:: prefix; e.g., boost::uint32_t foo = 0; Option ? 1 kind of defeats the point of namespaces. Even if used within local scope (e.g., within a function), things like function arguments still have to be prefixed like option ? 3. Option ? 2 is better, but there are a bunch of these types, so it can get noisy. Option ? 3 adds an extreme level of noise; the boost:: prefix is often = to the length of the type in question. My question is: What would be the most elegant way to bring all of these types into the global namespace? Should I just write a wrapper around boost/cstdint.hpp that utilizes option ? 2 and be done with it? Also, wrapping the header like so didn't work on VC++ 10 (problems with standard library headers): namespace Foo { #include <boost/cstdint.hpp> using namespace boost; } using namespace Foo; Even if it did work, I guess it would cause ambiguity problems with the ::boost namespace.

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• Problem with "moveable-only types" in VC++ 2010

  - by Luc Touraille

  I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 Professional RC to try it out and test the few C++0x features that are implemented in VC++ 2010. I instantiated a std::vector of std::unique_ptr, without any problems. However, when I try to populate it by passing temporaries to push_back, the compiler complains that the copy constructor of unique_ptr is private. I tried inserting an lvalue by moving it, and it works just fine. #include <utility> #include <vector> int main() { typedef std::unique_ptr<int> int_ptr; int_ptr pi(new int(1)); std::vector<int_ptr> vec; vec.push_back(std::move(pi)); // OK vec.push_back(int_ptr(new int(2)); // compiler error } As it turns out, the problem is neither unique_ptr nor vector::push_back but the way VC++ resolves overloads when dealing with rvalues, as demonstrated by the following code: struct MoveOnly { MoveOnly() {} MoveOnly(MoveOnly && other) {} private: MoveOnly(const MoveOnly & other); }; void acceptRValue(MoveOnly && mo) {} int main() { acceptRValue(MoveOnly()); // Compiler error } The compiler complains that the copy constructor is not accessible. If I make it public, the program compiles (even though the copy constructor is not defined). Did I misunderstand something about rvalue references, or is it a (possibly known) bug in VC++ 2010 implementation of this feature?

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• Credit Card storage solution

  - by jtnire

  Hi Everyone, I'm developing a solution that is designed to store membership details, as well as credit card details. I'm trying to comply with PCI DSS as much as I can. Here is my design so far: PAN = Primary account number == long number on credit card Server A is a remote server. It stores all membership details (Names, Address etc..) and provides indivudal Key A's for each PAN stored Server B is a local server, and actually holds the encrypted PANs, as well as Key B, and does the decryption. To get a PAN, the client has to authenticate with BOTH servers, ask Server A for the respective Key A, then give Key A to server B, which will return the PAN to the client (provided authentication was sucessful). Server A will only ever encrypt Key A with Server B's public Key, as it will have it beforehand. Server B will probably have to send a salt first though, however I doin't think that has to be encrypted I havn't really thought about any implementation (i.e. coding) specifics yet regarding the above, however the solution is using Java's Cajo framework (wrapper for RMI) so that is how the servers will communicate with each other (Currently, membership details are transfered in this way). The reason why I want Server B to do the decryption, and not the client, is that I am afraid of decryption keys going into the client's RAM, even though it's probably just as bad on the server... Can anyone see anything wrong with the above design? It doesn't matter if the above has to be changed. Thanks jtnire

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• Google Maps API v3 not working

  - by user1496322

  I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

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• CSS style refresh in IE after dynamic removal of style link

  - by rybz

  Hi! I've got a problem with the dynamic style manipulation in IE7 (IE8 is fine). Using javascript I need to add and remove the < link / node with the definition of css file. Adding and removing the node as a child of < head / works fine under Firefox. Unfortunately, after removing it in the IE, although The tag is removed properly, the page style does not refresh. In the example below a simple css (makes background green) is appended and removed. After the removal in FF the background turns default, but in IE stays green. index.html <html> <head> </head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var node; function append(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; node = document.createElement('link'); node.type = 'text/css'; node.rel = 'stylesheet'; node.href = "s.css"; node.media = 'screen'; headID.appendChild(node); } function remove(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; headID.removeChild(node); } </script> <body> <div onClick="append();"> add </div> <div onClick="remove();"> remove </div> </body> </html> And the style sheet: s.css body { background-color:#00CC33 } Here is the live example: http://rlab.pl/dynamic-style/ Is there a way to get it working?

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• Software Company Library

  - by dbemerlin

  Hi. A few days ago i had the idea to create a company library since my company has no training and many developers still develop as they did when they learned it 5 years ago. My hope is that they can lend books, read them and hopefully learn something from them (for example: object oriented programming or unit testing, which noone here knows how to use). After asking around most agreed that it was a good idea, so i brought my books, made a simple printed sheet with "Book A belongs to B" and "Developer A took the Book on dd.mm.yyyy" to get it started. Now i want to get some ideas for Books that i could add to the shelf (sadly from my own money since 100€/month for training is too much money for this multi-million euro company). We develop mostly PHP & MySQL so books specific to this topic would be preferred but i think if people learn other languages they might get ideas on how to develop better with the current language so other books are ok, too. Which books would you recommend? PS: Personally i'd like to add some Project Management books, too, as it's a topic i'm interested in, eventhough i'm just a junior developer (We've got Peopleware already, great book btw).

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• Design Philosophy Question - When to create new functions

  - by Eclyps19

  This is a general design question not relating to any language. I'm a bit torn between going for minimum code or optimum organization. I'll use my current project as an example. I have a bunch of tabs on a form that perform different functions. Lets say Tab 1 reads in a file with a specific layout, tab 2 exports a file to a specific location, etc. The problem I'm running into now is that I need these tabs to do something slightly different based on the contents of a variable. If it contains a 1 I may need to use Layout A and perform some extra concatenation, if it contains a 2 I may need to use Layout B and do no concatenation but add two integer fields, etc. There could be 10+ codes that I will be looking at. Is it more preferable to create an individual path for each code early on, or attempt to create a single path that branches out only when absolutely required. Creating an individual path for each code would allow my code to be extremely easy to follow at a glance, which in turn will help me out later on down the road when debugging or making changes. The downside to this is that I will increase the amount of code written by calling some of the same functions in multiple places (for example, steps 3, 5, and 9 for every single code may be exactly the same. Creating a single path that would branch out only when required will be a bit messier and more difficult to follow at a glance, but I would create less code by placing conditionals only at steps that are unique. I realize that this may be a case-by-case decision, but in general, if you were handed a previously built program to work on, which would you prefer?

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• ASP.NET MVC editor template for property

  - by Idsa

  Usually I render my forms by @Html.RenderModel, but this time I have a complex rendering logic and I render it manually. I decided to create a editor template for one property. Here is the code (copy pasted from default object editor template implementation): <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var modelMetadata = ViewData.ModelMetadata; %> <% if (modelMetadata.HideSurroundingHtml) { %> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <% } else { %> <% if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName).ToHtmlString())) { %> <div class="editor-label"><%= Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %></div> <% } %> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> </div> <% } %> And here is how I use it: @Html.EditorFor(x => x.SomeProperty, "Property") //"Property" is template above But it didn't work: labels are rendered regardless of DisplayName and editors are not rendered at all (in Watches Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName shows empty string). What am I doing wrong?

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• To use the 'I' prefix for interfaces or not to

  - by ng

  That is the question? So how big a sin is it not to use this convention when developing a c# project? This convention is widely used in the .NET class library. However, I am not a fan to say the least, not just for asthetic reasons but I don't think it makes any contribution. For example is IPSec an interface of PSec? Is IIOPConnection An interface of IOPConnection, I usually go to the definition to find out anyway. So would not using this convention cause confusion? Are there any c# projects or libraries of note that drop this convention? Do any c# projects that mix conventions, as unfortunately Apache Wicket does? The Java class libraries have existed without this for many years, I don't feel I have ever struggled to read code without it. Also, should the interface not be the most primitive description? I mean IList<T> as an interface for List<T> in c#, is it not better to have List<T> and LinkedList<T> or ArrayList<T> or even CopyOnWriteArrayList<T>? The classes describe the implementation? I think I get more information here, than I do from List<T> in c#.

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• Warning: cast increases required alignment

  - by dash-tom-bang

  I'm recently working on this platform for which a legacy codebase issues a large number of "cast increases required alignment to N" warnings, where N is the size of the target of the cast. struct Message { int32_t id; int32_t type; int8_t data[16]; }; int32_t GetMessageInt(const Message& m) { return *reinterpret_cast<int32_t*>(&data[0]); } Hopefully it's obvious that a "real" implementation would be a bit more complex, but the basic point is that I've got data coming from somewhere, I know that it's aligned (because I need the id and type to be aligned), and yet I get the message that the cast is increasing the alignment, in the example case, to 4. Now I know that I can suppress the warning with an argument to the compiler, and I know that I can cast the bit inside the parentheses to void* first, but I don't really want to go through every bit of code that needs this sort of manipulation (there's a lot because we load a lot of data off of disk, and that data comes in as char buffers so that we can easily pointer-advance), but can anyone give me any other thoughts on this problem? I mean, to me it seems like such an important and common option that you wouldn't want to warn, and if there is actually the possibility of doing it wrong then suppressing the warning isn't going to help. Finally, can't the compiler know as I do how the object in question is actually aligned in the structure, so it should be able to not worry about the alignment on that particular object unless it got bumped a byte or two?

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• LINQ-SQL Updating Multiple Rows in a single transaction

  - by RPM1984

  Hi guys, I need help re-factoring this legacy LINQ-SQL code which is generating around 100 update statements. I'll keep playing around with the best solution, but would appreciate some ideas/past experience with this issue. Here's my code: List<Foo> foos; int userId = 123; using (DataClassesDataContext db = new FooDatabase()) { foos = (from f in db.FooBars where f.UserId = userId select f).ToList(); foreach (FooBar fooBar in foos) { fooBar.IsFoo = false; } db.SubmitChanges() } Essentially i want to update the IsFoo field to false for all records that have a particular UserId value. Whats happening is the .ToList() is firing off a query to get all the FooBars for a particular user, then for each Foo object, its executing an UPDATE statement updating the IsFoo property. Can the above code be re-factored to one single UPDATE statement? Ideally, the only SQL i want fired is the below: UPDATE FooBars SET IsFoo = FALSE WHERE UserId = 123 EDIT Ok so looks like it cant be done without using db.ExecuteCommand. Grr...! What i'll probably end up doing is creating another extension method for the DLINQ namespace. Still require some hardcoding (ie writing "WHERE" and "UPDATE"), but at least it hides most of the implementation details away from the actual LINQ query syntax.

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• Using WIndows PowerShell 1.0 or 2.0 to evaluate performance of executable files.

  - by Andry

  Hello! I am writing a simple script on Windows PowerShell in order to evaluate performance of executable files. The important hypothesisi is the following: I have an executable file, it can be an application written in any possible language (.net and not, Viual-Prolog, C++, C, everything that can be compiled as an .exe file). I want to profile it getting execution times. I did this: Function Time-It { Param ([string]$ProgramPath, [string]$Arguments) $Watch = New-Object System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch $NsecPerTick = (1000 * 1000 * 1000) / [System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch]::Frequency Write-Output "Stopwatch created! NSecPerTick = $NsecPerTick" $Watch.Start() # Starts the timer [System.Diagnostics.Process]::Start($ProgramPath, $Arguments) $Watch.Stop() # Stops the timer # Collectiong timings $Ticks = $Watch.ElapsedTicks $NSecs = $Watch.ElapsedTicks * $NsecPerTick Write-Output "Program executed: time is: $Nsecs ns ($Ticks ticks)" } This function uses stopwatch. Well, the functoin accepts a program path, the stopwatch is started, the program run and the stopwatch then stopped. Problem: the System.Diagnostics.Process.Start is asynchronous and the next instruction (watch stopped) is not executed when the application finishes. A new process is created... I need to stop the timer once the program ends. I thought about the Process class, thicking it held some info regarding the execution times... not lucky... How to solve this?

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• C++/Win32 : XP Visual Styles - no controls are showing up?

  - by mrl33t

  Okay, so i'm pretty new to C++ & the Windows API and i'm just writing a small application. I wanted my application to make use of visual styles in both XP, Vista and Windows 7 so I added this line to the top of my code: #pragma comment(linker,"\"/manifestdependency:type='win32' name='Microsoft.Windows.Common-Controls' version='6.0.0.0' processorArchitecture='*' publicKeyToken='6595b64144ccf1df' language='*'\"") It seemed to work perfectly on my Windows 7 machine and also Vista machine. But when I tried the application on XP the application wouldn't load any controls (e.g. buttons, labels etc.) - not even messageboxes would display. This image shows a small test application which i've just put together to demonstrate what i'm trying to explain: http://img704.imageshack.us/img704/2250/myapp.png In this test application i'm not using any particularly fancy or complicated code. I've effectively just taken the most basic sample code from the MSDN Library (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff381409.aspx) and added a section to the WM_CREATE message to create a button: MyBtn = CreateWindow(L"Button", L"My Button", BS_PUSHBUTTON | WS_CHILD | WS_VISIBLE, 25, 25, 100, 30, hWnd, NULL, hInst, 0); But I just can't figure out what's going on and why its not working. Any ideas guys? Thank you in advanced. (By the way the application works in XP if i remove the manifest section from the top - obviously without visual styles though. I should also probably mention that the app was built using Visual C++ 2010 Express on a Windows 7 machine - if that makes a difference?)

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• Calling jQuery method from onClick attribute in HTML

  - by Russell

  I am relatively new to implementing JQuery throughout an entire system, and I am enjoying the opportunity. I have come across one issue I would love to find the correct resolve for. Here is a simple case example of what I want to do: I have a button on a page, and on the click event I want to call a jquery function I have defined. Here is the code I have used to define my method (Page.js): (function($) { $.fn.MessageBox = function(msg) { alert(msg); }; }); And here is my HTML page: <HTML> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="C:\Sandpit\jQueryTest\jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script language="javascript" src="Page.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="Title">Welcome!</div> <input type="button" value="ahaha" onclick="$().MessageBox('msg');" /> </body> </HTML> (The above code displays the button, but clicking does nothing.) I am aware I could add the click event in the document ready event, however it seems more maintainable to put events in the HTML element instead. However I have not found a way to do this. Is there a way to call a jquery function on a button element (or any input element)? Or is there a better way to do this? Thanks

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