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  • Circular database relationships. Good, Bad, Exceptions?

    - by jim
    I have been putting off developing this part of my app for sometime purely because I want to do this in a circular way but get the feeling its a bad idea from what I remember my lecturers telling me back in school. I have a design for an order system, ignoring the everything that doesn't pertain to this example I'm left with: CreditCard Customer Order I want it so that, Customers can have credit cards (0-n) Customers have orders (1-n) Orders have one customer(1-1) Orders have one credit card(1-1) Credit cards can have one customer(1-1) (unique ids so we can ignore uniqueness of cc number, husband/wife may share cc instances ect) Basically the last part is where the issue shows up, sometimes credit cards are declined and they wish to use a different one, this needs to update which their 'current' card is but this can only change the current card used for that order, not the other orders the customer may have on disk. Effectively this creates a circular design between the three tables. Possible solutions: Either Create the circular design, give references: cc ref to order, customer ref to cc customer ref to order or customer ref to cc customer ref to order create new table that references all three table ids and put unique on the order so that only one cc may be current to that order at any time Essentially both model the same design but translate differently, I am liking the latter option best at this point in time because it seems less circular and more central. (If that even makes sense) My questions are, What if any are the pros and cons of each? What is the pitfalls of circular relationships/dependancies? Is this a valid exception to the rule? Is there any reason I should pick the former over the latter? Thanks and let me know if there is anything you need clarified/explained. --Update/Edit-- I have noticed an error in the requirements I stated. Basically dropped the ball when trying to simplify things for SO. There is another table there for Payments which adds another layer. The catch, Orders can have multiple payments, with the possibility of using different credit cards. (if you really want to know even other forms of payment). Stating this here because I think the underlying issue is still the same and this only really adds another layer of complexity.

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  • Ruby/Rails - Add records to an object with each loop iteration / Object vs Arrays

    - by ChrisWesAllen
    I'm trying to figure out how to add records to an existing object for each iteration of a loop. I'm having a hard time discovering the difference between an object and an array. I have this @events = Event.find(1) @loops = Choices.find(:all, :limit => 5) #so loop for 5 instances of choice model for loop in @loops @events = Event.find(:all,:conditions => ["event.id = ?", loop.event_id ]) end I'm trying to add a new events to the existing @events object based on the id of whatever the loop variable is. But the ( = ) operator just creates a new instance of the @events object. I tried ( += ) and ( << ) as operators but got the error "You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil" I tried created an array events = [] events << Event.find(1) @loops = Choices.find(:all, :limit => 5) #so loop for 5 instances of choice model for loop in @loops events << Event.find(:all,:conditions => ["event.id = ?", loop.event_id ]) end But I dont know how to call that arrays attributes within the view With objects I was able do create a loop within the view and call all the attributes of that object as well... <table> <% for event in @events %> <tr> <td><%= link_to event.title, event %></td> <td><%= event.start_date %></td> <td><%= event.price %></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> How could i do this with an array set? So the questions are 1) Whats the difference between arrays and objects? 2) Is there a way to add into the existing object for each iteration? 3) If I use an array, is there a way to call the attributes for each array record within the view?

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  • HTTP Handlers in Win2008/IIS7

    - by Keith Barrows
    We are migrating our web sites from Win2003/IIS6 to Win2008/IIS7. Our .NET code is in a WAP form with compiled binaries. I do dev work on a Win7/IIS7 box so had to learn early how to set up HTTP Handlers in this newer environment. What I have that has worked fine on my box is: <system.webServer> <handlers> <remove name="WebServiceHandlerFactory-Integrated" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactory" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" /> <remove name="ScriptResource" /> <add name="RivWorks" path="*.riv" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="RivWorks2" path="*.riv2" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactory" verb="*" path="*.asmx" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptResource" verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </handlers> All I am getting on the new web site when I try to call into the *.riv handler is: 404 - File or directory not found. The resource you are looking for might have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. OK. You see interesting things when writing out these questions. Our server is setup in integrated mode and runs on a x64 system. So, I changed the precondition clause to: preCondition="integratedMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness64" Now I get this instead: 500 - Internal server error. There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. Any ideas of what I should be doing, where I should be looking? TIA

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  • thread management in nbody code of cuda-sdk

    - by xnov
    When I read the nbody code in Cuda-SDK, I went through some lines in the code and I found that it is a little bit different than their paper in GPUGems3 "Fast N-Body Simulation with CUDA". My questions are: First, why the blockIdx.x is still involved in loading memory from global to share memory as written in the following code? for (int tile = blockIdx.y; tile < numTiles + blockIdx.y; tile++) { sharedPos[threadIdx.x+blockDim.x*threadIdx.y] = multithreadBodies ? positions[WRAP(blockIdx.x + q * tile + threadIdx.y, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x] : //this line positions[WRAP(blockIdx.x + tile, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x]; //this line __syncthreads(); // This is the "tile_calculation" function from the GPUG3 article. acc = gravitation(bodyPos, acc); __syncthreads(); } isn't it supposed to be like this according to paper? I wonder why sharedPos[threadIdx.x+blockDim.x*threadIdx.y] = multithreadBodies ? positions[WRAP(q * tile + threadIdx.y, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x] : positions[WRAP(tile, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x]; Second, in the multiple threads per body why the threadIdx.x is still involved? Isn't it supposed to be a fix value or not involving at all because the sum only due to threadIdx.y if (multithreadBodies) { SX_SUM(threadIdx.x, threadIdx.y).x = acc.x; //this line SX_SUM(threadIdx.x, threadIdx.y).y = acc.y; //this line SX_SUM(threadIdx.x, threadIdx.y).z = acc.z; //this line __syncthreads(); // Save the result in global memory for the integration step if (threadIdx.y == 0) { for (int i = 1; i < blockDim.y; i++) { acc.x += SX_SUM(threadIdx.x,i).x; //this line acc.y += SX_SUM(threadIdx.x,i).y; //this line acc.z += SX_SUM(threadIdx.x,i).z; //this line } } } Can anyone explain this to me? Is it some kind of optimization for faster code?

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  • Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

    - by Akash Kava
    Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

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  • Linked lists in Java - help with assignment

    - by user368241
    Representation of a string in linked lists In every intersection in the list there will be 3 fields : The letter itself. The number of times it appears consecutively. A pointer to the next intersection in the list. The following class CharNode represents a intersection in the list : public class CharNode { private char _data; private int _value; private charNode _next; public CharNode (char c, int val, charNode n) { _data = c; _value = val; _next = n; } public charNode getNext() { return _next; } public void setNext (charNode node) { _next = node; } public int getValue() { return _value; } public void setValue (int v) { value = v; } public char getData() { return _data; } public void setData (char c) { _data = c; } } The class StringList represents the whole list : public class StringList { private charNode _head; public StringList() { _head = null; } public StringList (CharNode node) { _head = node; } } Add methods to the class StringList according to the details : (I will add methods gradually according to my specific questions) (Pay attention, these are methods from the class String and we want to fulfill them by the representation of a string by a list as explained above) public int indexOf (int ch) - returns the index in the string it is operated on of the first appeareance of the char "ch". If the char "ch" doesn't appear in the string, returns -1. If the value of fromIndex isn't in the range, returns -1. Pay attention to all the possible error cases. Write what is the time complexity and space complexity of every method that you wrote. Make sure the methods you wrote are effective. It is NOT allowed to use ready classes of Java. It is NOT allowed to move to string and use string operations. Here is my try to write the method indexOf (int ch). Kindly assist me with fixing the bugs so I can move on. public int indexOf (int ch) { int count = 0; charNode pose = _head; if (pose == null ) { return -1; } for (pose = _head; pose!=null && pose.getNext()!='ch'; pose = pose.getNext()) { count++; } if (pose!=null) return count; else return -1; }

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  • Refactoring Singleton Overuse

    - by drharris
    Today I had an epiphany, and it was that I was doing everything wrong. Some history: I inherited a C# application, which was really just a collection of static methods, a completely procedural mess of C# code. I refactored this the best I knew at the time, bringing in lots of post-college OOP knowledge. To make a long story short, many of the entities in code have turned out to be Singletons. Today I realized I needed 3 new classes, which would each follow the same Singleton pattern to match the rest of the software. If I keep tumbling down this slippery slope, eventually every class in my application will be Singleton, which will really be no logically different from the original group of static methods. I need help on rethinking this. I know about Dependency Injection, and that would generally be the strategy to use in breaking the Singleton curse. However, I have a few specific questions related to this refactoring, and all about best practices for doing so. How acceptable is the use of static variables to encapsulate configuration information? I have a brain block on using static, and I think it is due to an early OO class in college where the professor said static was bad. But, should I have to reconfigure the class every time I access it? When accessing hardware, is it ok to leave a static pointer to the addresses and variables needed, or should I continually perform Open() and Close() operations? Right now I have a single method acting as the controller. Specifically, I continually poll several external instruments (via hardware drivers) for data. Should this type of controller be the way to go, or should I spawn separate threads for each instrument at the program's startup? If the latter, how do I make this object oriented? Should I create classes called InstrumentAListener and InstrumentBListener? Or is there some standard way to approach this? Is there a better way to do global configuration? Right now I simply have Configuration.Instance.Foo sprinkled liberally throughout the code. Almost every class uses it, so perhaps keeping it as a Singleton makes sense. Any thoughts? A lot of my classes are things like SerialPortWriter or DataFileWriter, which must sit around waiting for this data to stream in. Since they are active the entire time, how should I arrange these in order to listen for the events generated when data comes in? Any other resources, books, or comments about how to get away from Singletons and other pattern overuse would be helpful.

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  • Multiple layouts in rails [Newbie Q]

    - by BriteLite
    Hi. As a newb, I decided to build a "home inventory" application. I am now stuck on how to programmatically select a layout based on what type of item it is when viewing it in a browser. According to my planning, so far I should have created a few models to represent types of items I can find in my home: Furniture, Electronics and Books. class Book < ActiveRecord::Base end class Furniture < ActiveRecord::Base end class Electronic < ActiveRecord::Base end Now the Books model has things like isbn, pages, address, and category. Furniture model has things like color, price, address, and category. Electronics has things like name, voltage, address, and category. Here is where I got confused. I know the property address is going to be the same for all of them. I also know that, I will need to create multiple "layouts" for 3 different types of items to show the different properties of said items with appropriate graphics and stylesheets. But how will I go about deciding which category the item is so I can determine which layout to render. According to me, this is how I will do it: class DisplayController < ApplicationController def display @item = Params[:item] if @item.category = "electronics" render :layout => 'electronics' end end In my routes.rb map.display ':item', :controller => 'display', :action => 'display' I only seem to have one concern with this, I probably will add a lot of categories later on and think there should be a more DRY-esque way of dealing, rather than hardcoding them. I understand that I need to add into my layout html tags to display relevant information for that particular category. ----Questions---- Is this the right way to approach this type of problem. Will this approach be compatible when I decide to add a gem like *thinking_sphinx* to run search. What issues do you see with my approach and how can I make it better. I was reading something about "Polymorphic Assoc", does that apply in this case, since category exist for all items? Also, I was trying to get a routes to render a URL like "http://localhost/living-room-tv"

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  • template pass by const reference

    - by 7vies
    Hi, I've looked over a few similar questions, but I'm still confused. I'm trying to figure out how to explicitly (not by compiler optimization etc) and C++03-compatible avoid copying of an object when passing it to a template function. Here is my test code: #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct C { C() { cout << "C()" << endl; } C(const C&) { cout << "C(C)" << endl; } ~C() { cout << "~C()" << endl; } }; template<class T> void f(T) { cout << "f<T>" << endl; } template<> void f(C c) { cout << "f<C>" << endl; } // (1) template<> void f(const C& c) { cout << "f<C&>" << endl; } // (2) int main() { C c; f(c); return 0; } (1) accepts the object of type C, and makes a copy. Here is the output: C() C(C) f<C> ~C() ~C() So I've tried to specialize with a const C& parameter (2) to avoid this, but this simply doesn't work (apparently the reason is explained in this question). Well, I could "pass by pointer", but that's kind of ugly. So is there some trick that would allow to do that somehow nicely? EDIT: Oh, probably I wasn't clear. I already have a templated function template<class T> void f(T) {...} But now I want to specialize this function to accept a const& to another object: template<> void f(const SpecificObject&) {...} But it only gets called if I define it as template<> void f(SpecificObject) {...}

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  • Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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  • Methodology for a Rails app

    - by Aaron Vegh
    I'm undertaking a rather large conversion from a legacy database-driven Windows app to a Rails app. Because of the large number of forms and database tables involved, I want to make sure I've got the right methodology before getting too far. My chief concern is minimizing the amount of code I have to write. There are many models that interact together, and I want to make sure I'm using them correctly. Here's a simplified set of models: class Patient < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :PatientAddresses has_many :PatientFileStatuses end class PatientAddress < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end class PatientFileStatus < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end The controller determines if there's a Patient selected; everything else is based on that. In the view, I will be needing data from each of these models. But it seems like I have to write an instance variable in my controller for every attribute that I want to use. So I start writing code like this: @patient = Patient.find(session[:patient]) @patient_addresses = @patient.PatientAddresses @patient_file_statuses = @patient.PatientFileStatuses @enrollment_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].EnrollmentReceivedWhen @consent_received = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceived @consent_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceivedWhen The first three lines grab the Patient model and its relations. The next three lines are examples of my providing values to the view from one of those relations. The view has a combination of text fields and select fields to show the data above. For example: <%= select("patientfilestatus", "ConsentReceived", {"val1"="val1", "val2"="val2", "Written"="Written"}, :include_blank=true )% <%= calendar_date_select_tag "patient_file_statuses[EnrollmentReceivedWhen]", @enrollment_complete_when, :popup=:force % (BTW, the select tag isn't really working; I think I have to use collection_select?) My questions are: Do I have to manually declare the value of every instance variable in the controller, or can/should I do it within the view? What is the proper technique for displaying a select tag for data that's not the primary model? When I go to save changes to this form, will I have to manually pick out the attributes for each model and save them individually? Or is there a way to name the fields such that ActiveRecord does the right thing? Thanks in advance, Aaron.

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  • Which is the "best" data access framework/approach for C# and .NET?

    - by Frans
    (EDIT: I made it a community wiki as it is more suited to a collaborative format.) There are a plethora of ways to access SQL Server and other databases from .NET. All have their pros and cons and it will never be a simple question of which is "best" - the answer will always be "it depends". However, I am looking for a comparison at a high level of the different approaches and frameworks in the context of different levels of systems. For example, I would imagine that for a quick-and-dirty Web 2.0 application the answer would be very different from an in-house Enterprise-level CRUD application. I am aware that there are numerous questions on Stack Overflow dealing with subsets of this question, but I think it would be useful to try to build a summary comparison. I will endeavour to update the question with corrections and clarifications as we go. So far, this is my understanding at a high level - but I am sure it is wrong... I am primarily focusing on the Microsoft approaches to keep this focused. ADO.NET Entity Framework Database agnostic Good because it allows swapping backends in and out Bad because it can hit performance and database vendors are not too happy about it Seems to be MS's preferred route for the future Complicated to learn (though, see 267357) It is accessed through LINQ to Entities so provides ORM, thus allowing abstraction in your code LINQ to SQL Uncertain future (see Is LINQ to SQL truly dead?) Easy to learn (?) Only works with MS SQL Server See also Pros and cons of LINQ "Standard" ADO.NET No ORM No abstraction so you are back to "roll your own" and play with dynamically generated SQL Direct access, allows potentially better performance This ties in to the age-old debate of whether to focus on objects or relational data, to which the answer of course is "it depends on where the bulk of the work is" and since that is an unanswerable question hopefully we don't have to go in to that too much. IMHO, if your application is primarily manipulating large amounts of data, it does not make sense to abstract it too much into objects in the front-end code, you are better off using stored procedures and dynamic SQL to do as much of the work as possible on the back-end. Whereas, if you primarily have user interaction which causes database interaction at the level of tens or hundreds of rows then ORM makes complete sense. So, I guess my argument for good old-fashioned ADO.NET would be in the case where you manipulate and modify large datasets, in which case you will benefit from the direct access to the backend. Another case, of course, is where you have to access a legacy database that is already guarded by stored procedures. ASP.NET Data Source Controls Are these something altogether different or just a layer over standard ADO.NET? - Would you really use these if you had a DAL or if you implemented LINQ or Entities? NHibernate Seems to be a very powerful and powerful ORM? Open source Some other relevant links; NHibernate or LINQ to SQL Entity Framework vs LINQ to SQL

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  • MySQL Split Time Ranges into Smaller Chunks

    - by Neren
    Hello all, I've recently been tasked with finishing a PHP/MySQL web app when the developer quit last week. I'm no MySQL expert, so I apologize if this is an intensely simple question. I've searched SO for the better part of two days trying to find a relatively easy solution to my problem, which is as follows. Problem in a Nutshell: I have a MySQL table full of start and end datetime (GMT -5) & UNIX Timestamp values covering durations of irregular length and need to break/split/divide them into more-regular time chunks (5 minutes). I'm not after a count of row entries per time chunk/bucket/period, if that makes any sense. Data Example: started, ended, started_UNIX, ended_UNIX 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288033953, 1288036029 What I'm hoping to get: 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 1288033953, 1288037700 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 1288037700, 1288038000 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 1288038000, 1288038300 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 1288038300, 1288038600 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 1288038600, 1288038900 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 1288038900, 1288039200 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 1288039200, 1288039500 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288039500, 1288039629 If you're interested, here's the quick & dirty on the app and why I need the data: App overview: The application receives very simple POST requests generated by a basic sensor device when its input pins go to ground, which submits an INSERT query to the database where MySQL records a timestamp (as started). When the input pins return from a grounded state, the device submits a different POST request, which causes the PHP app to submit an UPDATE query, where a modification time timestamp is inserted (as ended). My employer recently changed the periodic reporting unit of measure from Seconds "On" Per Day to Seconds "On" Per 5 Minute Interval. I had formulated what I thought would be a workable solution, but when I looked at it on paper, it looked like Rube Goldberg's nightmare constructed in MySQL, so that was out. Any suggestions as to how to break these spans into 5 minute blocks? Keeping it all in MySQL would be my preference, though I'll take any suggestions. Thank you for any suggestions you may have. Again, I apologize if this is a no-brainer. If I ask any additional questions of the SO collective consciousness in the future, I'll try to word them a bit better. Any help will be happily welcomed. Thanks, Neren

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  • Using ImageMagick to create an image from a PDF...efficiently

    - by bigsweater
    I'm using ImageMagick to create a tiny JPG thumbnail image of an already-uploaded PDF. The code works fine. It's a WordPress widget, though this isn't necessarily WordPress specific. I'm unfamiliar with ImageMagick, so I was hoping somebody could tell me if this looks terrible or isn't following some best practices of some sort, or if I'm risking crashing the server. My questions, specifically, are: Is that image cached, or does the server have to re-generate the image every time somebody views the page? If it isn't cached, what's the best way to make sure the server doesn't have to regenerate the thumbnail? I tried to create a separate folder (/thumbs) for ImageMagick to put all the images in, instead of cluttering up the WP upload folders with images of PDFs. It kept throwing a permission error, despite 777 permissions on the folder in my testing environment. Why? Do the source/destination directories have to be the same? Am I doing anything incorrectly/inefficiently here that needs to be improved? The whole widget is on Pastebin: http://pastebin.com/WnSTEDm7 Relevant code: <?php if ( $url ) { $pdf = $url; $info = pathinfo($pdf); $filename = basename($pdf,'.'.$info['extension']); $uploads = wp_upload_dir(); $file_path = str_replace( $uploads['baseurl'], $uploads['basedir'], $url ); $dest_path = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $file_path ); $dest_url = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $pdf ); exec("convert \"{$file_path}[0]\" -colorspace RGB -geometry 60 $dest_path"); ?> <div class="entry"> <div class="widgetImg"> <p><a href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>"><?php echo "<img src='".$dest_url."' alt='".$filename."' class='blueBorder' />"; ?></a></p> </div> <div class="widgetText"> <?php echo wpautop( $desc ); ?> <p><a class="downloadLink" href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>">Download</a></p> </div> </div> <?php } ?> As you can see, the widget grabs whatever PDF is attached to the current page being viewed, creates an image of the first page of the PDF, stores it, then links to it in HTML. Thanks for any and all help!

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  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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  • How to refresh a fragment in a viewpager?

    - by aut_silvia
    I know there are already some questions to this problem. But I am really new in Android and ecspecially to Fragments and Viewpager. Pls have passion with me. I didn't found a answer which fits to my code. I dont know how to refresh a fragment or reload it when it's "active" again. TabsPagerAdapter.java: public class TabsPagerAdapter extends FragmentPagerAdapter{ public TabsPagerAdapter(FragmentManager fm){ super(fm); } @Override public Fragment getItem(int index) { switch (index) { case 0: return new KFZFragment(); case 1: return new LogFragment(); case 2: return new TrackFragment(); } return null; } @Override public int getCount() { // get item count - equal to number of tabs return 3; } } I have this 3 Fragments (KFZFragment,LogFragment,TrackFragment) and on the TrackFragment I calculate some data and this data should be display in a ListView in LogFragment. But when I change to LogFragment it's not the latest data. So it doesnt refresh. Now how should I modify my code to refresh the fragments when it's "active"? MainActivityFragment.java: public class MainActivityFragment extends FragmentActivity implements ActionBar.TabListener{ private ViewPager viewPager; private TabsPagerAdapter mAdapter; private ActionBar actionBar; List<Fragment> fragments; private String[] tabs = { "KFZ", "Fahrten Log", "Kosten Track" }; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main_fragment); // Initilization viewPager = (ViewPager) findViewById(R.id.pager); actionBar = getActionBar(); mAdapter = new TabsPagerAdapter(getSupportFragmentManager()); fragments = new Vector<Fragment>(); fragments.add(Fragment.instantiate(this, KFZFragment.class.getName(),savedInstanceState)); fragments.add(Fragment.instantiate(this, LogFragment.class.getName(),savedInstanceState)); viewPager.setAdapter(mAdapter); actionBar.setHomeButtonEnabled(false); actionBar.setNavigationMode(ActionBar.NAVIGATION_MODE_TABS); // Adding Tabs for (String tab_name : tabs) { actionBar.addTab(actionBar.newTab().setText(tab_name) .setTabListener(this)); } viewPager.setOnPageChangeListener(new ViewPager.OnPageChangeListener() { @Override public void onPageSelected(int position) { // on changing the page // make respected tab selected actionBar.setSelectedNavigationItem(position); } @Override public void onPageScrolled(int arg0, float arg1, int arg2) { } @Override public void onPageScrollStateChanged(int arg0) { } }); } @Override public void onTabReselected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onTabSelected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { viewPager.setCurrentItem(tab.getPosition()); } @Override public void onTabUnselected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK) { } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); } } Pls help me out.

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  • ANSI C as core of a C# project? Is this possible?

    - by Nektarios
    I'm writing a NON-GUI app which I want to be cross platform between OS X and Windows. I'm looking at the following architecture, but I don't know if it will work on the windows side: (Platform specific entry point) - ANSI C main loop = ANSI C model code doing data processing / logic = (Platform specific helpers) So the core stuff I'm planning to write in regular ANSI C, because A) it should be platform independent, B) I'm extremely comfortable with C, C) It can do the job and do it well (Platform specific entry point) can be written in whatever necessary to get the job done, this is a small amount of code, doesn't matter to me. (Platform specific helpers) is the sticky thing. This is stuff like parsing XML, accessing databases, graphics toolkit stuff, whatever. Things that aren't easy in C. Things that modern languages/frameworks will give for free. On OS X this code will be written in Objective-C interfacing with Cocoa. On Windows I'm thinking my best bet is to use C# So on Windows my architecture (simplified) looks like (C# or C?) - ANSI C - C# Is this possible? Some thoughts/suggestions so far.. 1) Compile my C core as a .dll -- this is fine, but seems there's no way to call my C# helpers unless I can somehow get function pointers and pass them to my core, but that seems unlikely 2) Compile a C .exe and a C# .exe and have them talk via shared memory or some kind of IPC. I'm not entirely opposed to this but it obviously introduces a lot of complexity so it doesn't seem ideal 3) Instead of C# use C++, it gets me some nice data management stuff and nice helper code. And I can mix it pretty easily. And the work I do could probably easily port to Linux. But I really don't like C++, and I don't want this to turn in to a 3rd-party-library-fest. Not that it's a huge deal, but it's 2010.. anything for basic data management should be built in. And targetting Linux is really not a priority. Note that no "total" alternatives are OK as suggested in other similar questions on SO I've seen; java, RealBasic, mono.. this is an extremely performance intensive application doing soft realtime for game/simulation purposes, I need C & friends here to do it right (maybe you don't, but I do)

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  • How to Transfer Large File from MS Word Add-In (VBA) to Web Server?

    - by Ian Robinson
    Overview I have a Microsoft Word Add-In, written in VBA (Visual Basic for Applications), that compresses a document and all of it's related contents (embedded media) into a zip archive. After creating the zip archive it then turns the file into a byte array and posts it to an ASMX web service. This mostly works. Issues The main issue I have is transferring large files to the web site. I can successfully upload a file that is around 40MB, but not one that is 140MB (timeout/general failure). A secondary issue is that building the byte array in the VBScript Word Add-In can fail by running out of memory on the client machine if the zip archive is too large. Potential Solutions I am considering the following options and am looking for feedback on either option or any other suggestions. Option One Opening a file stream on the client (MS Word VBA) and reading one "chunk" at a time and transmitting to ASMX web service which assembles the "chunks" into a file on the server. This has the benefit of not adding any additional dependencies or components to the application, I would only be modifying existing functionality. (Fewer dependencies is better as this solution should work in a variety of server environments and be relatively easy to set up.) Question: Are there examples of doing this or any recommended techniques (either on the client in VBA or in the web service in C#/VB.NET)? Option Two I understand WCF may provide a solution to the issue of transferring large files by "chunking" or streaming data. However, I am not very familiar with WCF, and am not sure what exactly it is capable of or if I can communicate with a WCF service from VBA. This has the downside of adding another dependency (.NET 3.0). But if using WCF is definitely a better solution I may not mind taking that dependency. Questions: Does WCF reliably support large file transfers of this nature? If so, what does this involve? Any resources or examples? Are you able to call a WCF service from VBA? Any examples?

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  • change maxlength depending of the option selected

    - by tuner3000
    I've seen similar questions posted and tried to change them to meet my needs but I don't know enough about javascript to do it. I need that when a user change the dropdown select, the "titre text field" maxlength is dynamically changed a, b c and d max maxlength should be 40 and e maxlength should be 2 my code is below, I don't know why but it is not working correctly: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>title page</title> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> function changeValue(dropdown) { var option = dropdown.options[dropdown.selectedIndex].value, field = document.getElementById('titre'); if (option == 'a' || option == 'b' || option == 'c' || option == 'd') { field.maxLength = 40; } else if (option == 'e') { field.value = field.value.substr(0, 2); // before reducing the maxlength, make sure it contains at most two characters; you could also reset the value altogether field.maxLength = 2; } }? </script> <form action="converter.php" method="post"> <h2>Feel all field below:</h2> <div> Title: <input type="texte" name="titre" id="titre" maxLength="40"/> Format: <select id="format" name="format" onchange="changeValue(this);"> <option value="a">A</option> <option value="b">B</option> <option value="c">C</option> <option value="d">D</option> <option value="e">E</option> </select> </div> <div> <textarea name="texte" style="width: 415px; height: 155px;"></textarea> </div> <div> <input type="submit" value="OK" /> </div> </form> </body> </html>

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  • random quote generator with php, ajax and mysql

    - by fusion
    i've tried using this code and this to make a random quote generator, but it doesn't display anything. my questions are: what is wrong with my code? in the above tut, the quote is generated on a button click, i'd like a random quote to be displayed every 30 mins automatically. how do i do this? //////////////////////// quote.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <script src="ajax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <body> <!–create the div for the quotes land–> <div id="quote"><strong>this</strong></div> <div><a style="cursor:pointer" onclick="run_query();">Next quote …</a></div> </body> </html> ///////////////////// quote.php: <?php include 'config.php'; // 'text' is the name of your table that contains // the information you want to pull from $rowcount = mysql_query("select count(*) as rows from quotes"); // Gets the total number of items pulled from database. while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($rowcount)) { $max = $row["rows"]; } // Selects an item's index at random $rand = rand(1,$max)-1; $result = mysql_query("select * from quotes limit $rand, 1"); $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); $randomOutput = $row['storedText']; echo '<p>' . $randomOutput . '</p>'; //////////// ajax.js: var xmlHttp function run_query() { xmlHttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlHttp==null) { alert ("This browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } // end if var url="quote.php"; xmlHttp.onreadystatechange=stateChanged; xmlHttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlHttp.send(null); } //end function function stateChanged(){ if (xmlHttp.readyState==4 || xmlHttp.readyState=="complete"){ document.getElementById("quote").innerHTML=xmlHttp.responseText; } //end if } //end function function GetXmlHttpObject() { var xmlHttp=null; try { // For these browsers: Firefox, Opera 8.0+, Safari xmlHttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); }catch (e){ //For Internet Explorer try{ xmlHttp=new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { xmlHttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } } return xmlHttp; } //end function

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  • Why doesn't TextBlock databinding call ToString() on a property whose compile-time type is an interf

    - by Jay
    This started with weird behaviour that I thought was tied to my implementation of ToString(), and I asked this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2916068/why-wont-wpf-databindings-show-text-when-tostring-has-a-collaborating-object It turns out to have nothing to do with collaborators and is reproducible. When I bind Label.Content to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is called on the runtime object and the label displays the result. When I bind TextBlock.Text to the same property, ToString() is never called and nothing is displayed. But, if I change the declared property to a concrete implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Is this somehow by design? If so, any idea why? To reproduce: Create a new WPF Application (.NET 3.5 SP1) Add the following classes: public interface IFoo { string foo_part1 { get; set; } string foo_part2 { get; set; } } public class Foo : IFoo { public string foo_part1 { get; set; } public string foo_part2 { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return foo_part1 + " - " + foo_part2; } } public class Bar { public IFoo foo { get { return new Foo {foo_part1 = "first", foo_part2 = "second"}; } } } Set the XAML of Window1 to: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> in Window1.xaml.cs: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new Bar(); } } When you run this application, you'll see the text only once (at the top, in the label). If you change the type of foo property on Bar class to Foo (instead of IFoo) and run the application again, you'll see the text in both controls.

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  • Vector iterators in for loops, return statements, warning, c++

    - by Crystal
    Had 3 questions regarding a hw assignment for C++. The goal was to create a simple palindrome method. Here is my template for that: #ifndef PALINDROME_H #define PALINDROME_H #include <vector> #include <iostream> #include <cmath> template <class T> static bool palindrome(const std::vector<T> &input) { std::vector<T>::const_iterator it = input.begin(); std::vector<T>::const_reverse_iterator rit = input.rbegin(); for (int i = 0; i < input.size()/2; i++, it++, rit++) { if (!(*it == *rit)) { return false; } } return true; } template <class T> static void showVector(const std::vector<T> &input) { for (std::vector<T>::const_iterator it = input.begin(); it != input.end(); it++) { std::cout << *it << " "; } } #endif Regarding the above code, can you have more than one iterator declared in the first part of the for loop? I tried defining both the "it" and "rit" in the palindrome() method, and I kept on getting an error about needing a "," before rit. But when I cut and paste outside the for loop, no errors from the compiler. (I'm using VS 2008). Second question, I pretty much just brain farted on this one. But is the way I have my return statements in the palindrome() method ok? In my head, I think it works like, once the *it and *rit do not equal each other, then the function returns false, and the method exits at this point. Otherwise if it goes all the way through the for loop, then it returns true at the end. I totally brain farted on how return statements work in if blocks and I tried looking up a good example in my book and I couldn't find one. Finally, I get this warnings: \palindrome.h(14) : warning C4018: '<' : signed/unsigned mismatch Now is that because I run my for loop until (i < input.size()/2) and the compiler is telling me that input can be negative? Thanks!

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  • How can I append and execute a script inside an iframe in a cross browser way (specifically IE!)?

    - by agmin
    Background: I need to load ad scripts after the DOM has loaded. Because many of the scripts use document.write() and other potentially bad functions to run after the DOM has loaded, I want to load the scripts inside an iframe. So when the ad needs to be shown, an event is triggered which does the following: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); iframe.setAttribute('id', 'iframeId'); iframe.setAttribute('src', 'about:blank'); var adContainer = document.getElementById('AdContainer'); adContainer.appendChild(iframe); var val = '<html><head></head><body>'; val += '<scr' + 'ipt type="text/javascript" src="' + url + '"></scr' + 'ipt>'; val += '</body></html>'; If I don't assign the html and body tags to val, the script automatically gets appended to the head of the iframe and fails to execute in FF. In IE, the script doesn't execute with or without the head/body/html tags. var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document){ doc = doc.document } doc.open(); doc.write(val); doc.close(); I found this last bit of code here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1591135/why-does-appending-a-script-to-a-dynamically-created-iframe-seem-to-run-the-s. I do NOT want to load jquery in the iframe though, I just want to append a script and have it execute. My current solution seems to work great in FF and Webkit. However, IE doesn't execute the script. The script is written to the page, but doesn't start running. Is there a better way to append the script to the iframe so it will run cross browser? Or is it possible to tell IE to run the script? I know that I could load an external document with the ad script via the iframe, but I don't want to make the extra call to my server if I can do this dynamically. Also, I've tried using appendChild() on the iframe's body to insert the script, but since the script element is created outside the iframe's DOM this doesn't seem to work.

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  • Visual studio 2010 colourizers, intellisense and the rest. Where to start!!

    - by Owen
    Ok, before I begin I realize that there is a lot of documentation on this subject but I have thus far failed to get even basic colourization working for VS2010. My goal is to simply get to a point where I can open a document and everything is coloured red, from here I can implement the relevant parsing logic. Here's what I have tried/found: 1) Downloaded all the relevent SDK's and such- Found the ook sample (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/ookLanguage) - didn't build, didn't work. 2) Knowing almost nothing about MEF read through "Implementing a Language Service By Using the Managed Package Framework" - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb166533(v=VS.100).aspx This was pretty much a copy and paste of all the basic stuff here, and also updating some references which were out of date with the sample see: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsx/thread/a310fe67-afd2-4592-b295-3fc86fec7996 Now, I have got to a point where when running the package MEF appears to have hooked up correctly (I know this because with the debugger open I can see that the packages initialize and FDoIdle methods are being hit). When I open a file of the extension I have registered with the ProvideLanguageExtensionAttribute everything dies as if in an endless loop, yet no debug symbols hit (though they are loaded). Looking at the ook sample and the MEF examples they seem to be totally different approaches to the same problem. In the ook sample there are notions of Clasifications and Completion controllers which aren't mentioned in the MEF example. Also, they don't seem to create a Package or Language service, so I have no idea how it should work? With the MEF example, my assumption is that I need to hook into the "IScanner.ScanTokenAndProvideInfoAboutIt" to provide syntax highlighting? Which would be fine if I could ever hit this method. So my first question I guess is which approach should I be taking here? Or do they both somehow tie together? My second questions is, where can I find a basic fully working project that implements bog standard basic syntax highlighting and intellisense or VS2010? Thirdly, in the MEF example when I created a Package there were a bunch of test projects created for me. I appears that the integration tests launch the VS2010 test rig somehow, but the test fails. It would be good to write my service with tests but I have no idea what/how I can test each interaction so any references to testing Language services would be helpful. Finally, please throw any resource/book links my way that I may find useful. Cheers, Chris. N.B. Sorry I realize this is part question part rant, but I have never been so confused.

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  • Javascript: Writing a firefox extension with sockets

    - by Johnny Grass
    I need to write a firefox extension that creates a server socket (I think that's what it's called) and returns the browser's current url when a client application (running on the same computer) sends it a request. The thing is that I have no Java/Javascript background at all and I'm pressed for time so I am trying to hack something together from code samples. So far I've been mildly successful. I've been working with code from this question which is used in the open source Firefox exension PolyChrome I have the following code: var reader = { onInputStreamReady : function(input) { var input_stream = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/scriptableinputstream;1"] .createInstance(Components.interfaces.nsIScriptableInputStream); input_stream.init(input); input_stream.available(); var request = ''; while (input_stream.available()) { request = request + input_stream.read(512); } var checkString = "foo" if (request.toString() == checkString.toString()) { output_console('URL: ' + content.location.href); } else output_console("nothing"); var thread_manager = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/thread-manager;1"].getService(); input.asyncWait(reader,0,0,thread_manager.mainThread); } } var listener = { onSocketAccepted: function(serverSocket, clientSocket) { output_console("Accepted connection on "+clientSocket.host+":"+clientSocket.port); input = clientSocket.openInputStream(0, 0, 0).QueryInterface(Components.interfaces.nsIAsyncInputStream); output = clientSocket.openOutputStream(Components.interfaces.nsITransport.OPEN_BLOCKING, 0, 0); var thread_manager = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/thread-manager;1"].getService(); input.asyncWait(reader,0,0,thread_manager.mainThread); } } var serverSocket = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/network/server-socket;1"]. createInstance(Components.interfaces.nsIServerSocket); serverSocket.init(9999, true, 5); output_console("Opened socket on " + serverSocket.port); serverSocket.asyncListen(listener); I have a few questions. So far I can telnet into localhost and get a response, but my string comparison in the reader seems to fail even if I enter "foo". I don't get why. What am I missing? The sample code I'm using opens up a console window and prints output when I telnet into localhost. Ideally I would like the output to be returned as a response when the client sends a request to the server socket with a passphrase. How do I go about doing that? Is doing this a good idea? Does it create security vulnerabilities on the computer? How can I block connections to the socket from other computers? What is a good place to read about javascript sockets? My google searches have been pretty fruitless but then maybe I'm not using the right keywords.

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