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  • Running daemon through rsh

    - by Max
    I want to run program as daemon in remote machine in Unix. I have rsh connection and I want the program to be running after disconnection. Suppose I have two programs: util.cpp and forker.cpp. util.cpp is some utility, for our purpose let it be just infinite root. util.cpp int main() { while (true) {}; return 0; } forker.cpp takes some program and run it in separe process through fork() and execve(): forker.cpp #include <stdio.h> #include <errno.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <unistd.h> int main(int argc, char** argv) { if (argc != 2) { printf("./a.out <program_to_fork>\n"); exit(1); } pid_t pid; if ((pid = fork()) < 0) { perror("fork error."); exit(1); } else if (!pid) { // Child. if (execve(argv[1], &(argv[1]), NULL) == -1) { perror("execve error."); exit(1); } } else { // Parent: do nothing. } return 0; } If I run: ./forker util forker is finished very quickly, and bash 'is not paused', and util is running as daemon. But if I run: scp forker remote_server://some_path/ scp program remote_server://some_path/ rsh remote_server 'cd /some_path; ./forker program' then it is all the same (i.e. at the remote_sever forker is finishing quickly, util is running) but my bash in local machine is paused. It is waiting for util stopping (I checked it. If util.cpp is returning than it is ok.), but I don't understand why?! There are two questions: 1) Why is it paused when I run it through rsh? I am sure that I chose some stupid way to run daemon. So 2) How to run some program as daemon in C/C++ in unix-like platforms. Tnx!

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  • How do I Print a dynamically created Flex component/chart that is not being displayed on the screen?

    - by Adam Jones
    I have a several chart components that I have created in Flex. Basically I have set up a special UI that allows the user to select which of these charts they want to print. When they press the print button each of the selected charts is created dynamically then added to a container. Then I send this container off to FlexPrintJob. i.e. private function prePrint():void { var printSelection:Box = new Box(); printSelection.percentHeight = 100; printSelection.percentWidth = 100; printSelection.visible = true; if (this.chkMyChart1.selected) { var rptMyChart1:Chart1Panel = new Chart1Panel(); rptMyChart1.percentHeight = 100; rptMyChart1.percentWidth = 100; rptMyChart1.visible = true; printSelection.addChild(rptMyChart1); } print(printSelection); } private function print(container:Box):void { var job:FlexPrintJob; job = new FlexPrintJob(); if (job.start()) { job.addObject(container, FlexPrintJobScaleType.MATCH_WIDTH); job.send(); } } This code works fine if the chart is actually displayed somewhere on the page but adding it dynamically as shown above does not. The print dialog will appear but nothing happens when I press OK. So I really have two questions: Is it possible to print flex components/charts when they are not visible on the screen? If so, how do I do it / what am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Well, at least one thing wrong is my use of the percentages in the width and height. Using percentages doesn't really make sense when the Box is not contained in another object. Changing the height and width to fixed values actually allows the printing to progress and solves my initial problem. printSelection.height = 100; printSelection.width = 100; But a new problem arises in that instead of seeing my chart, I see a black box instead. I have previously resolved this issue by setting the background colour of the chart to #FFFFFF but this doesn't seem to be working this time. UPDATE 2: I have seen some examples on the adobe site that add the container to the application but don't include it in the layout. This looks like the way to go. i.e. printSelection.includeInLayout = false; addChild(printSelection);

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  • Correct usage of socket_select().

    - by Mark Tomlin
    What is the correct way to use socket_select within PHP to send and receive data? I have a connection to the server that allows for both TCP & UDP packet connections, I am utilizing both. Within these connections I'm both sending and receiving packets on the same port, but the TCP packet will be sent on one port (29999) and UDP will be sent on another port (30000). The transmission type will be that of AF_INET. The IP address will be loopback 127.0.0.1. I have many questions on how to create a socket connection within this scenario. For example, is it better to use socket_create_pair to make the connection, or use just socket_create followed by socket_connect, and then implement socket_select? There is a chance that no data will be sent from the server to the client, and it is up to the client to maintain the connection. This will be done by utilizing the time out function within the socket_select call. Should no data be sent within the time limit, the socket_select function will break and a keep alive packet can then be sent. The following script is of the client. // Create $TCP = socket_create(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, SOL_TCP); $UDP = socket_create(AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, SOL_UDP); // Misc $isAlive = TRUE; $UDPPort = 30000; define('ISP_ISI', 1); // Connect socket_connect($TCP, '127.0.0.1', 29999); socket_connect($UDP, '127.0.0.1', $UDPPort); // Construct Parameters $recv = array($TCP, $UDP); $null = NULL; // Make The Packet to Send. $packet = pack('CCCxSSxCSa16a16', 44, ISP_ISI, 1, $UDPPort, 0, '!', 0, 'AdminPass', 'SocketSelect'); // Send ISI (InSim Init) Packet socket_write($TCP, $packet); /* Main Program Loop */ while ($isAlive == TRUE) { // Socket Select $sock = socket_select($recv, $null, $null, 5); // Check Status if ($sock === FALSE) $isAlive = FALSE; # Error else if ($sock > 0) # How does one check to find what socket changed? else # Something else happed, don't know what as it's not in the documentation, Could this be our timeout getting tripped? }

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  • template pass by const reference

    - by 7vies
    Hi, I've looked over a few similar questions, but I'm still confused. I'm trying to figure out how to explicitly (not by compiler optimization etc) and C++03-compatible avoid copying of an object when passing it to a template function. Here is my test code: #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct C { C() { cout << "C()" << endl; } C(const C&) { cout << "C(C)" << endl; } ~C() { cout << "~C()" << endl; } }; template<class T> void f(T) { cout << "f<T>" << endl; } template<> void f(C c) { cout << "f<C>" << endl; } // (1) template<> void f(const C& c) { cout << "f<C&>" << endl; } // (2) int main() { C c; f(c); return 0; } (1) accepts the object of type C, and makes a copy. Here is the output: C() C(C) f<C> ~C() ~C() So I've tried to specialize with a const C& parameter (2) to avoid this, but this simply doesn't work (apparently the reason is explained in this question). Well, I could "pass by pointer", but that's kind of ugly. So is there some trick that would allow to do that somehow nicely? EDIT: Oh, probably I wasn't clear. I already have a templated function template<class T> void f(T) {...} But now I want to specialize this function to accept a const& to another object: template<> void f(const SpecificObject&) {...} But it only gets called if I define it as template<> void f(SpecificObject) {...}

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  • What is the best practice to segment c#.net projects based on a single base project

    - by Anthony
    Honestly, I can't word my question any better without describing it. I have a base project (with all its glory, dlls, resources etc) which is a CMS. I need to use this project as a base for othe custom bake projects. This base project is to be maintained and updated among all custom bake projects. I use subversion (Collabnet and Tortise SVN) I have two questions: 1 - Can I use subversion to share the base project among other projects What I mean here is can I "Checkout" the base project into another "Checked Out" project and have both update and commit seperatley. So, to paint a picture, let's say I am working on a custom project and I modify the core/base prject in some way (which I know will suit the others) can I then commit those changes and upon doing so when I update the base project in the other "Checked out" resources will it pull the changes? In short, I would like not to have to manually deploy updated core files whenever I make changes into each seperate project. 2 - If I create a custom file (let's say an webcontrol or aspx page etc) can I have it compile seperatley from the base project Another tricky one to explain. When I publish my web application it creates DLLs based on the namespaces of projects attached to it. So I may have a number of DLLs including the "Website's" namespace DLL, which could simply be website. I want to be able to make a seperate, custom, control which does not compile into those DLLs as the custom files should not rely on those DLLS to run. Is it as simple to set a seperate namespace for those files like CustomFiles.ProjectName for example? Think of the whole idea as adding modules to the .NET project, I don't want the module's code in any of the core DLLs but I do need for module to be able to access the core dlls. (There is no need for the core project to access the module code as it should be one way only in theory, though I reckon it woould not be possible anyway without using JSON/SOAP or something like that, maybe I am wrong.) I want to create a pluggable environment much like that of Joomla/Wordpress as since PHP generally doesn't have to be compiled first I see this is the reason why all this is possible/easy. The idea is to allow pluggable themes, modules etc etc. (I haven't tried simply adding .NET themes after compile/publish but I am assuming this is possible anyway? OR does the compiler need to reference items in the files?)

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  • WPF: Improving Performance for Running on Older PCs

    - by Phil Sandler
    So, I'm building a WPF app and did a test deployment today, and found that it performed pretty poorly. I was surprised, as we are really not doing much in the way of visual effects or animations. I deployed on two machines: the fastest and the slowest that will need to run the application (the slowest PC has an Intel Celeron 1.80GHz with 2GB RAM). The application ran pretty well on the faster machine, but was choppy on the slower machine. And when I say "choppy", I mean the cursor jumped even just passing it over any open window of the app that had focus. I opened the Task Manager Performance window, and could see that the CPU usage jumped whenever the app had focus and the cursor was moving over it. If I gave focus to another (e.g. Excel), the CPU usage went back down after a second. This happened on both machines, but the choppiness was only noticeable on the slower machine. I had very limited time to tinker on the deployment machines, so didn't do a lot of detailed testing. The app runs fine on my development machine, but I also see the CPU spiking up to 10% there, just running the cursor over the window. I downloaded the WPF performance tool from MS and have been tinkering with it (on my dev machine). The docs say this about the "Frame Rate" metric in the Perforator tool: For applications without animation, this value should be near 0. The app is not doing any heavy animation, but the frame rate stays near 50 when the cursor is over any window. The screens I tested on have column headers in a grid that "highlight" and buttons that change color and appearance when scrolled over. Even moving the mouse on blank areas of the windows cause the same Frame rate and CPU usage (doesn't seem to be related to these minor animations). (Also, I am unable to figure out how to get anything but the two default tools--Perforator and Visual Profiler--installed into the WPF performance tool. That is probably a separate question). I also have Redgate's profiling tool, but I'm not sure if that can shed any light on rendering performance. So, I realize this is not an easy thing to troubleshoot without specifics or sample code (which I can't post). My questions are: What are some general things to look for (or avoid) in the code to improve performance? What steps can I take using the WPF performance tool to narrow down the problem? Is the PC spec listed above (Intel Celeron 1.80GHz with 2GB RAM) too slow to be running even vanilla WPF applications?

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  • How to adjust microphone gain from C# (needs to work on XP & W7)...

    - by Ed
    First, note that I know there are a few questions like this already posted; however they don't seem to address the problem adequately. I have a C# application, with all the pInvoke hooks to talk to the waveXXX API, and I'm able to do capture and play back of audio with that. I'm also able to adjust speaker (WaveOut) volume with that API. The problem is that for whatever reason, that API does not allow me to adjust microphone (WaveIn) volume. So, I managed to find some mixer code that I've also pulled in and access through pInvoke and that allows me to adjust microphone volume, but only on my W7 PC. The mixer code I started with comes from here: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/isvvba/thread/05dc2d35-1d45-4837-8e16-562ee919da85 and it works, but is written to adjust speaker volume. I added the SetMicVolume method shown here... public static void SetMicVolume(int mxid, int percentage) { bool rc; int mixer, vVolume; MIXERCONTROL volCtrl = new MIXERCONTROL(); int currentVol; mixerOpen(out mixer, mxid, 0, 0, MIXER_OBJECTF_WAVEIN); int type = MIXERCONTROL_CONTROLTYPE_VOLUME; rc = GetVolumeControl(mixer, MIXERLINE_COMPONENTTYPE_SRC_MICROPHONE, type, out volCtrl, out currentVol); if (rc == false) { mixerClose(mixer); mixerOpen(out mixer, 0, 0, 0, 0); rc = GetVolumeControl(mixer, MIXERLINE_COMPONENTTYPE_SRC_MICROPHONE, type, out volCtrl, out currentVol); if (rc == false) throw new Exception("SetMicVolume/GetVolumeControl() failed"); } vVolume = ((int)((float)(volCtrl.lMaximum - volCtrl.lMinimum) / 100.0F) * percentage); rc = SetVolumeControl(mixer, volCtrl, vVolume); if (rc == false) throw new Exception("SetMicVolume/SetVolumeControl() failed"); mixerClose(mixer); } Note the "second attempt" to call GetVolumeControl(). This is done because on XP, in the first call to GetVolumeControl (refer to site above for that code), the call to mixerGetLineControlsA() fails with XP systems returning MIXERR_INVALCONTROL. Then, with this second attempt using mixerOpen(out mixer, 0, 0, 0, 0), the code doesn't return a failure but the mic gain is unaffected. Note, as I said above, this works on W7 (the second attempt is never executed because it doesn't fail using mixerOpen(out mixer, mxid, 0, 0, MIXER_OBJECTF_WAVEIN)). I admit to not having a good grasp on the mixer API, so that's what I'm looking into now; however if anyone has a clue why this would work on W7, but not XP, I'd sure like to hear it. Meanwhile, if I figure it out before I get a response, I'll post my own answer...

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  • JQuery Ajax Updating MySQL Database, But Not Running Success Function

    - by myrmidon16
    I am currently using the JQuery ajax function to call an exterior PHP file, in which I select and add data in a database. Once this is done, I run a success function in JavaScript. What's weird is that the database is updating successfully when ajax is called, however the success function is not running. Here is my code: <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.6.4.js"></script> </head> <body> <div onclick="addtask();" style="width:400px; height:200px; background:#000000;"></div> <script> function addtask() { var tid = (Math.floor(Math.random() * 3)) + 1; var tsk = (Math.floor(Math.random() * 10)) + 1; if(tsk !== 1) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "taskcheck.php", dataType: "json", data: {taskid:tid}, success: function(task) {alert(task.name);} }); } } </script> </body> </html> And the PHP file: session_start(); $connect = mysql_connect('x', 'x', 'x') or die('Not Connecting'); mysql_select_db('x') or die ('No Database Selected'); $task = $_REQUEST['taskid']; $uid = $_SESSION['user_id']; $q = "SELECT task_id, taskname FROM tasks WHERE task_id=" .$task. " LIMIT 1"; $gettask = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query($q)); $q = "INSERT INTO user_tasks (ut_id, user_id, task_id, taskstatus, taskactive) VALUES (null, " .$uid. ", '{$gettask['task_id']}', 0, 1)"; $puttask = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query($q)); $json = array( "name" => $gettask['taskname'] ); $output = json_encode($json); echo $output; Let me know if you have any questions or comments, thanks.

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  • [N]Hibernate: view-like fetching properties of associated class

    - by chiccodoro
    (Felt quite helpless in formulating an appropriate title...) In my C# app I display a list of "A" objects, along with some properties of their associated "B" objects and properties of B's associated "C" objects: A.Name B.Name B.SomeValue C.Name Foo Bar 123 HelloWorld Bar Hello 432 World ... To clarify: A has an FK to B, B has an FK to C. (Such as, e.g. BankAccount - Person - Company). I have tried two approaches to load these properties from the database (using NHibernate): A fast approach and a clean approach. My eventual question is how to do a fast & clean approach. Fast approach: Define a view in the database which joins A, B, C and provides all these fields. In the A class, define properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" Define a hibernate mapping between A and the View, whereas the needed B and C properties are mapped with update="false" insert="false" and do actually stem from B and C tables, but Hibernate is not aware of that since it uses the view. This way, the listing only loads one object per "A" record, which is quite fast. If the code tries to access the actual associated property, "A.B", I issue another HQL query to get B, set the property and update the faked BName and BSomeValue properties as well. Clean approach: There is no view. Class A is mapped to table A, B to B, C to C. When loading the list of A, I do a double left-join-fetch to get B and C as well: from A a left join fetch a.B left join fetch a.B.C B.Name, B.SomeValue and C.Name are accessed through the eagerly loaded associations. The disadvantage of this approach is that it gets slower and takes more memory, since it needs to created and map 3 objects per "A" record: An A, B, and C object each. Fast and clean approach: I feel somehow uncomfortable using a database view that hides a join and treat that in NHibernate as if it was a table. So I would like to do something like: Have no views in the database. Declare properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" in class "A". Define the mapping for A such that NHibernate fetches A and these properties together using a join SQL query as a database view would do. The mapping should still allow for defining lazy many-to-one associations for getting A.B.C My questions: Is this possible? Is it [un]artful? Is there a better way?

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  • mysql: can't set max_allowed_package to anything grater than 16MB

    - by sas
    I'm not sure if this is the right place to post these kind of questions, if it's not so, please (politely) let me know... :-) I need to save files greater than 16MB on a mysql database from a php site... I've already changed the c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf and set max_allowed_packet to 16 MB, and everything worked fine then I set it to 32 MB but there´s no way I can handle a file bigger than 16 MB I get the following error: 'MySQL server has gone away' (the same error I had when max_allowed_packet was set to 1MB) there must be some other setting that doesn´t allow me to handle files bigger than 16MB maybe the php client, I guess, but I don't know where to edit it this is the code I'm running when file.txt is smaller than 16.776.192 bytes long, it works fine, but if file.txt has 16.777.216 bytes i get the aforementioned error oh, and the field download.content is a longblob... $file = 'file.txt'; $file_handle = fopen( $file, 'r' ); $content = fread( $file_handle, filesize( $file ) ); fclose( $file_handle ); db_execute( 'truncate table download', true ); $sql = "insert into download( code, title, name, description, original_name, mime_type, size, content, user_insert_id, date_insert, user_update_id, date_update ) values ( 'new file', 'new file', 'sas.jpg', 'new file', '$file', 'mime', " . filesize( $file ) . ", '" . addslashes( $content ) . "', 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . ", 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . " )"; db_execute( $sql, true ); (the db_execute funcion just opens the connections and executes the sql stuff) running on windows XP sp2 server version: 5.0.67-community PHP Version 4.4.9 mysql client API version: 3.23.49 using: ApacheFriends XAMPP (Basispaket) version 1.6.8 that comes with + Apache 2.2.9 + MySQL 5.0.67 (Community Server) + PHP 5.2.6 + PHP 4.4.9 + PEAR + phpMyAdmin 2.11.9.2 ... this is part of the content of c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf # The MySQL server [mysqld] port= 3306 socket= "C:/xampp/mysql/mysql.sock" basedir="C:/xampp/mysql" tmpdir="C:/xampp/tmp" datadir="C:/xampp/mysql/data" skip-locking key_buffer = 16M # max_allowed_packet = 1M max_allowed_packet = 32M table_cache = 128 sort_buffer_size = 512K net_buffer_length = 8K read_buffer_size = 256K read_rnd_buffer_size = 512K myisam_sort_buffer_size = 8M

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  • Algorithm: Determine shape of two sectors delineated by an arbitrary path, and then fill one.

    - by Arseniy Banayev
    NOTE: This is a challenging problem for anybody who likes logic problems, etc. Consider a rectangular two-dimensional grid of height H and width W. Every space on the grid has a value, either 0 1 or 2. Initially, every space on the grid is a 0, except for the spaces along each of the four edges, which are initially a 2. Then consider an arbitrary path of adjacent (horizontally or vertically) grid spaces. The path begins on a 2 and ends on a different 2. Every space along the path is a 1. The path divides the grid into two "sectors" of 0 spaces. There is an object that rests on an unspecified 0 space. The "sector" that does NOT contain the object must be filled completely with 2. Define an algorithm that determines the spaces that must become 2 from 0, given an array (list) of values (0, 1, or 2) that correspond to the values in the grid, going from top to bottom and then from left to right. In other words, the element at index 0 in the array contains the value of the top-left space in the grid (initially a 2). The element at index 1 contains the value of the space in the grid that is in the left column, second from the top, and so forth. The element at index H contains the value of the space in the grid that is in the top row but second from the left, and so forth. Once the algorithm finishes and the empty "sector" is filled completely with 2s, the SAME algorithm must be sufficient to do the same process again. The second (and on) time, the path is still drawn from a 2 to a different 2, across spaces of 0, but the "grid" is smaller because the 2s that are surrounded by other 2s cannot be touched by the path (since the path is along spaces of 0). I thank whomever is able to figure this out for me, very very much. This does not have to be in a particular programming language; in fact, pseudo-code or just English is sufficient. Thanks again! If you have any questions, just leave a comment and I'll specify what needs to be specified.

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  • ANSI C as core of a C# project? Is this possible?

    - by Nektarios
    I'm writing a NON-GUI app which I want to be cross platform between OS X and Windows. I'm looking at the following architecture, but I don't know if it will work on the windows side: (Platform specific entry point) - ANSI C main loop = ANSI C model code doing data processing / logic = (Platform specific helpers) So the core stuff I'm planning to write in regular ANSI C, because A) it should be platform independent, B) I'm extremely comfortable with C, C) It can do the job and do it well (Platform specific entry point) can be written in whatever necessary to get the job done, this is a small amount of code, doesn't matter to me. (Platform specific helpers) is the sticky thing. This is stuff like parsing XML, accessing databases, graphics toolkit stuff, whatever. Things that aren't easy in C. Things that modern languages/frameworks will give for free. On OS X this code will be written in Objective-C interfacing with Cocoa. On Windows I'm thinking my best bet is to use C# So on Windows my architecture (simplified) looks like (C# or C?) - ANSI C - C# Is this possible? Some thoughts/suggestions so far.. 1) Compile my C core as a .dll -- this is fine, but seems there's no way to call my C# helpers unless I can somehow get function pointers and pass them to my core, but that seems unlikely 2) Compile a C .exe and a C# .exe and have them talk via shared memory or some kind of IPC. I'm not entirely opposed to this but it obviously introduces a lot of complexity so it doesn't seem ideal 3) Instead of C# use C++, it gets me some nice data management stuff and nice helper code. And I can mix it pretty easily. And the work I do could probably easily port to Linux. But I really don't like C++, and I don't want this to turn in to a 3rd-party-library-fest. Not that it's a huge deal, but it's 2010.. anything for basic data management should be built in. And targetting Linux is really not a priority. Note that no "total" alternatives are OK as suggested in other similar questions on SO I've seen; java, RealBasic, mono.. this is an extremely performance intensive application doing soft realtime for game/simulation purposes, I need C & friends here to do it right (maybe you don't, but I do)

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  • Multiple layouts in rails [Newbie Q]

    - by BriteLite
    Hi. As a newb, I decided to build a "home inventory" application. I am now stuck on how to programmatically select a layout based on what type of item it is when viewing it in a browser. According to my planning, so far I should have created a few models to represent types of items I can find in my home: Furniture, Electronics and Books. class Book < ActiveRecord::Base end class Furniture < ActiveRecord::Base end class Electronic < ActiveRecord::Base end Now the Books model has things like isbn, pages, address, and category. Furniture model has things like color, price, address, and category. Electronics has things like name, voltage, address, and category. Here is where I got confused. I know the property address is going to be the same for all of them. I also know that, I will need to create multiple "layouts" for 3 different types of items to show the different properties of said items with appropriate graphics and stylesheets. But how will I go about deciding which category the item is so I can determine which layout to render. According to me, this is how I will do it: class DisplayController < ApplicationController def display @item = Params[:item] if @item.category = "electronics" render :layout => 'electronics' end end In my routes.rb map.display ':item', :controller => 'display', :action => 'display' I only seem to have one concern with this, I probably will add a lot of categories later on and think there should be a more DRY-esque way of dealing, rather than hardcoding them. I understand that I need to add into my layout html tags to display relevant information for that particular category. ----Questions---- Is this the right way to approach this type of problem. Will this approach be compatible when I decide to add a gem like *thinking_sphinx* to run search. What issues do you see with my approach and how can I make it better. I was reading something about "Polymorphic Assoc", does that apply in this case, since category exist for all items? Also, I was trying to get a routes to render a URL like "http://localhost/living-room-tv"

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  • waiting for 2 different events in a single thread

    - by João Portela
    component A (in C++) - is blocked waiting for alarm signals (not relevant) and IO signals (1 udp socket). has one handler for each of these. component B (java) - has to receive the same information the component A udp socket receives. periodicaly gives instructions that should be sent through component A udp socket. How to join both components? it is strongly desirable that: the changes to attach component B to component A are minimal (its not my code and it is not very pleasent to mess with). the time taken by the new operations (usually communicating with component B) interfere very little with the usual processing time of component A - this means that if the operations are going to take a "some" time I would rather use a thread or something to do them. note: since component A receives udp packets more frequently that it has component B instructions to forward, if necessary, it can only forward the instructions (when available) from the IO handler. my initial ideia was to develop a component C (in C++) that would sit inside the component A code (is this called an adapter?) that when instanciated starts the java process and makes the necessary connections (that not so little overhead in the initialization is not a problem). It would have 2 stacks, one for the data to give component B (lets call it Bstack) and for the data to give component A (lets call it Astack). It would sit on its thread (lets call it new-thread) waiting for data to be available in Bstack to send it over udp, and listen on the udp socket to put data on the Astack. This means that the changes to component A are only: when it receives a new UDP packet put it on the Bstack, and if there is something on the Astack sent it over its UDP socket (I decided for this because this socket would only be used in the main thread). One of the problems is that I don't know how to wait for both of these events at the same time using only one thread. so my questions are: Do I really need to use the main thread to send the data over component A socket or can I do it from the new-thread? (I think the answer is no, but I'm not sure about race conditions on sockets) how to I wait for both events? boost::condition_variable or something similar seems the solution in the case of the stack and boost::asio::io_service io_service.run() seems like the thing to use for the socket. Is there any other alternative solution for this problem that I'm not aware of? Thanks for reading this long text but I really wanted you to understand the problem.

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  • Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

    - by Akash Kava
    Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

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  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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  • gcc optimization? bug? and its practial implication to project

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, My questions are divided into three parts Question 1 Consider the below code, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main( int argc, char *argv[]) { const int v = 50; int i = 0X7FFFFFFF; cout<<(i + v)<<endl; if ( i + v < i ) { cout<<"Number is negative"<<endl; } else { cout<<"Number is positive"<<endl; } return 0; } No specific compiler optimisation options are used or the O's flag is used. It is basic compilation command g++ -o test main.cpp is used to form the executable. The seemingly very simple code, has odd behaviour in SUSE 64 bit OS, gcc version 4.1.2. The expected output is "Number is negative", instead only in SUSE 64 bit OS, the output would be "Number is positive". After some amount of analysis and doing a 'disass' of the code, I find that the compiler optimises in the below format - Since i is same on both sides of comparison, it cannot be changed in the same expression, remove 'i' from the equation. Now, the comparison leads to if ( v < 0 ), where v is a constant positive, So during compilation itself, the else part cout function address is added to the register. No cmp/jmp instructions can be found. I see that the behaviour is only in gcc 4.1.2 SUSE 10. When tried in AIX 5.1/5.3 and HP IA64, the result is as expected. Is the above optimisation valid? Or, is using the overflow mechanism for int not a valid use case? Question 2 Now when I change the conditional statement from if (i + v < i) to if ( (i + v) < i ) even then, the behaviour is same, this atleast I would personally disagree, since additional braces are provided, I expect the compiler to create a temporary built-in type variable and them compare, thus nullify the optimisation. Question 3 Suppose I have a huge code base, an I migrate my compiler version, such bug/optimisation can cause havoc in my system behaviour. Ofcourse from business perspective, it is very ineffective to test all lines of code again just because of compiler upgradation. I think for all practical purpose, these kinds of error are very difficult to catch (during upgradation) and invariably will be leaked to production site. Can anyone suggest any possible way to ensure to ensure that these kind of bug/optimization does not have any impact on my existing system/code base? PS : When the const for v is removed from the code, then optimization is not done by the compiler. I believe, it is perfectly fine to use overflow mechanism to find if the variable is from MAX - 50 value (in my case).

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  • Passing variables, creating instances, self, The mechanics and usage of classes: need explenation

    - by Baf
    I've been sitting over this the whole day and Im a little tired already so please excuse me being brief. Im new to python. I just rewrrote a working program, into a bunch of functions in a class and everzthings messed up. I dont know if its me but Im very surprised i couldn t find a beginners tutorial on how to handle classes on the web so I have a few questions. First of all, in the init section of the class i have declared a bunch of variables with self.variable=something. Is it correct that i should be able to access/modify these variables in every function of the class by using self.variable in that function? In other words by declaring self.variable i have made these variables, global variables in the scope of the class right? If not how do i handle self. ? Secondly how do i correctly pass arguments to the class? some example code would be cool. thirdly how do i call a function of the class outside of the class scope? some example code would be cool. fouthly how do I create an Instance of the class INITIALCLASS in another class OTHERCLASS, passing variables from OTHERCLASS to INITIALCLASS? some example code would be cool. I Want to call a function from OTHERCLASS with arguments from INITIALCLASS. What Ive done so far is. class OTHERCLASS(): def __init__(self,variable1,variable2,variable3): self.variable1=variable1 self.variable2=variable2 self.variable3=variable3 def someotherfunction(self): something=somecode(using self.variable3) self.variable2.append(something) print self.variable2 def somemorefunctions(self): self.variable2.append(variable1) class INITIALCLASS(): def __init__(self): self.variable1=value1 self.variable2=[] self.variable3='' self.DoIt=OTHERCLASS(variable1,variable2,variable3) def somefunction(self): variable3=Somecode #tried this self.DoIt.someotherfunctions() #and this DoIt.someotherfunctions() I clearly havent understood how to pass variables to classes or how to handle self, when to use it and when not, I probably also havent understood how to properly create an isntance of a class. In general i havent udnerstood the mechanics of classes So please help me and explain it to me like i have no Idea( which i dont it seems). Or point me to a thorough video, or readable tutorial. All i find on the web is super simple examples, that didnt help me much. Or just very short definitions of classes and class methods instances etc. I can send you my original code if you guys want, but its quite long. Thanks for the Help Much appreciated!

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  • Circular database relationships. Good, Bad, Exceptions?

    - by jim
    I have been putting off developing this part of my app for sometime purely because I want to do this in a circular way but get the feeling its a bad idea from what I remember my lecturers telling me back in school. I have a design for an order system, ignoring the everything that doesn't pertain to this example I'm left with: CreditCard Customer Order I want it so that, Customers can have credit cards (0-n) Customers have orders (1-n) Orders have one customer(1-1) Orders have one credit card(1-1) Credit cards can have one customer(1-1) (unique ids so we can ignore uniqueness of cc number, husband/wife may share cc instances ect) Basically the last part is where the issue shows up, sometimes credit cards are declined and they wish to use a different one, this needs to update which their 'current' card is but this can only change the current card used for that order, not the other orders the customer may have on disk. Effectively this creates a circular design between the three tables. Possible solutions: Either Create the circular design, give references: cc ref to order, customer ref to cc customer ref to order or customer ref to cc customer ref to order create new table that references all three table ids and put unique on the order so that only one cc may be current to that order at any time Essentially both model the same design but translate differently, I am liking the latter option best at this point in time because it seems less circular and more central. (If that even makes sense) My questions are, What if any are the pros and cons of each? What is the pitfalls of circular relationships/dependancies? Is this a valid exception to the rule? Is there any reason I should pick the former over the latter? Thanks and let me know if there is anything you need clarified/explained. --Update/Edit-- I have noticed an error in the requirements I stated. Basically dropped the ball when trying to simplify things for SO. There is another table there for Payments which adds another layer. The catch, Orders can have multiple payments, with the possibility of using different credit cards. (if you really want to know even other forms of payment). Stating this here because I think the underlying issue is still the same and this only really adds another layer of complexity.

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  • random quote generator with php, ajax and mysql

    - by fusion
    i've tried using this code and this to make a random quote generator, but it doesn't display anything. my questions are: what is wrong with my code? in the above tut, the quote is generated on a button click, i'd like a random quote to be displayed every 30 mins automatically. how do i do this? //////////////////////// quote.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <script src="ajax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <body> <!–create the div for the quotes land–> <div id="quote"><strong>this</strong></div> <div><a style="cursor:pointer" onclick="run_query();">Next quote …</a></div> </body> </html> ///////////////////// quote.php: <?php include 'config.php'; // 'text' is the name of your table that contains // the information you want to pull from $rowcount = mysql_query("select count(*) as rows from quotes"); // Gets the total number of items pulled from database. while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($rowcount)) { $max = $row["rows"]; } // Selects an item's index at random $rand = rand(1,$max)-1; $result = mysql_query("select * from quotes limit $rand, 1"); $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); $randomOutput = $row['storedText']; echo '<p>' . $randomOutput . '</p>'; //////////// ajax.js: var xmlHttp function run_query() { xmlHttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlHttp==null) { alert ("This browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } // end if var url="quote.php"; xmlHttp.onreadystatechange=stateChanged; xmlHttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlHttp.send(null); } //end function function stateChanged(){ if (xmlHttp.readyState==4 || xmlHttp.readyState=="complete"){ document.getElementById("quote").innerHTML=xmlHttp.responseText; } //end if } //end function function GetXmlHttpObject() { var xmlHttp=null; try { // For these browsers: Firefox, Opera 8.0+, Safari xmlHttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); }catch (e){ //For Internet Explorer try{ xmlHttp=new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { xmlHttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } } return xmlHttp; } //end function

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  • Which is the "best" data access framework/approach for C# and .NET?

    - by Frans
    (EDIT: I made it a community wiki as it is more suited to a collaborative format.) There are a plethora of ways to access SQL Server and other databases from .NET. All have their pros and cons and it will never be a simple question of which is "best" - the answer will always be "it depends". However, I am looking for a comparison at a high level of the different approaches and frameworks in the context of different levels of systems. For example, I would imagine that for a quick-and-dirty Web 2.0 application the answer would be very different from an in-house Enterprise-level CRUD application. I am aware that there are numerous questions on Stack Overflow dealing with subsets of this question, but I think it would be useful to try to build a summary comparison. I will endeavour to update the question with corrections and clarifications as we go. So far, this is my understanding at a high level - but I am sure it is wrong... I am primarily focusing on the Microsoft approaches to keep this focused. ADO.NET Entity Framework Database agnostic Good because it allows swapping backends in and out Bad because it can hit performance and database vendors are not too happy about it Seems to be MS's preferred route for the future Complicated to learn (though, see 267357) It is accessed through LINQ to Entities so provides ORM, thus allowing abstraction in your code LINQ to SQL Uncertain future (see Is LINQ to SQL truly dead?) Easy to learn (?) Only works with MS SQL Server See also Pros and cons of LINQ "Standard" ADO.NET No ORM No abstraction so you are back to "roll your own" and play with dynamically generated SQL Direct access, allows potentially better performance This ties in to the age-old debate of whether to focus on objects or relational data, to which the answer of course is "it depends on where the bulk of the work is" and since that is an unanswerable question hopefully we don't have to go in to that too much. IMHO, if your application is primarily manipulating large amounts of data, it does not make sense to abstract it too much into objects in the front-end code, you are better off using stored procedures and dynamic SQL to do as much of the work as possible on the back-end. Whereas, if you primarily have user interaction which causes database interaction at the level of tens or hundreds of rows then ORM makes complete sense. So, I guess my argument for good old-fashioned ADO.NET would be in the case where you manipulate and modify large datasets, in which case you will benefit from the direct access to the backend. Another case, of course, is where you have to access a legacy database that is already guarded by stored procedures. ASP.NET Data Source Controls Are these something altogether different or just a layer over standard ADO.NET? - Would you really use these if you had a DAL or if you implemented LINQ or Entities? NHibernate Seems to be a very powerful and powerful ORM? Open source Some other relevant links; NHibernate or LINQ to SQL Entity Framework vs LINQ to SQL

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  • How can I append and execute a script inside an iframe in a cross browser way (specifically IE!)?

    - by agmin
    Background: I need to load ad scripts after the DOM has loaded. Because many of the scripts use document.write() and other potentially bad functions to run after the DOM has loaded, I want to load the scripts inside an iframe. So when the ad needs to be shown, an event is triggered which does the following: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); iframe.setAttribute('id', 'iframeId'); iframe.setAttribute('src', 'about:blank'); var adContainer = document.getElementById('AdContainer'); adContainer.appendChild(iframe); var val = '<html><head></head><body>'; val += '<scr' + 'ipt type="text/javascript" src="' + url + '"></scr' + 'ipt>'; val += '</body></html>'; If I don't assign the html and body tags to val, the script automatically gets appended to the head of the iframe and fails to execute in FF. In IE, the script doesn't execute with or without the head/body/html tags. var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document){ doc = doc.document } doc.open(); doc.write(val); doc.close(); I found this last bit of code here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1591135/why-does-appending-a-script-to-a-dynamically-created-iframe-seem-to-run-the-s. I do NOT want to load jquery in the iframe though, I just want to append a script and have it execute. My current solution seems to work great in FF and Webkit. However, IE doesn't execute the script. The script is written to the page, but doesn't start running. Is there a better way to append the script to the iframe so it will run cross browser? Or is it possible to tell IE to run the script? I know that I could load an external document with the ad script via the iframe, but I don't want to make the extra call to my server if I can do this dynamically. Also, I've tried using appendChild() on the iframe's body to insert the script, but since the script element is created outside the iframe's DOM this doesn't seem to work.

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  • MySQL Split Time Ranges into Smaller Chunks

    - by Neren
    Hello all, I've recently been tasked with finishing a PHP/MySQL web app when the developer quit last week. I'm no MySQL expert, so I apologize if this is an intensely simple question. I've searched SO for the better part of two days trying to find a relatively easy solution to my problem, which is as follows. Problem in a Nutshell: I have a MySQL table full of start and end datetime (GMT -5) & UNIX Timestamp values covering durations of irregular length and need to break/split/divide them into more-regular time chunks (5 minutes). I'm not after a count of row entries per time chunk/bucket/period, if that makes any sense. Data Example: started, ended, started_UNIX, ended_UNIX 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288033953, 1288036029 What I'm hoping to get: 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 1288033953, 1288037700 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 1288037700, 1288038000 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 1288038000, 1288038300 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 1288038300, 1288038600 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 1288038600, 1288038900 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 1288038900, 1288039200 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 1288039200, 1288039500 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288039500, 1288039629 If you're interested, here's the quick & dirty on the app and why I need the data: App overview: The application receives very simple POST requests generated by a basic sensor device when its input pins go to ground, which submits an INSERT query to the database where MySQL records a timestamp (as started). When the input pins return from a grounded state, the device submits a different POST request, which causes the PHP app to submit an UPDATE query, where a modification time timestamp is inserted (as ended). My employer recently changed the periodic reporting unit of measure from Seconds "On" Per Day to Seconds "On" Per 5 Minute Interval. I had formulated what I thought would be a workable solution, but when I looked at it on paper, it looked like Rube Goldberg's nightmare constructed in MySQL, so that was out. Any suggestions as to how to break these spans into 5 minute blocks? Keeping it all in MySQL would be my preference, though I'll take any suggestions. Thank you for any suggestions you may have. Again, I apologize if this is a no-brainer. If I ask any additional questions of the SO collective consciousness in the future, I'll try to word them a bit better. Any help will be happily welcomed. Thanks, Neren

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  • HTTP Handlers in Win2008/IIS7

    - by Keith Barrows
    We are migrating our web sites from Win2003/IIS6 to Win2008/IIS7. Our .NET code is in a WAP form with compiled binaries. I do dev work on a Win7/IIS7 box so had to learn early how to set up HTTP Handlers in this newer environment. What I have that has worked fine on my box is: <system.webServer> <handlers> <remove name="WebServiceHandlerFactory-Integrated" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactory" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" /> <remove name="ScriptResource" /> <add name="RivWorks" path="*.riv" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="RivWorks2" path="*.riv2" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactory" verb="*" path="*.asmx" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptResource" verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </handlers> All I am getting on the new web site when I try to call into the *.riv handler is: 404 - File or directory not found. The resource you are looking for might have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. OK. You see interesting things when writing out these questions. Our server is setup in integrated mode and runs on a x64 system. So, I changed the precondition clause to: preCondition="integratedMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness64" Now I get this instead: 500 - Internal server error. There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. Any ideas of what I should be doing, where I should be looking? TIA

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  • Representation of a DateTime as the local to remote user

    - by TwoSecondsBefore
    Hello! I was confused in the problem of time zones. I am writing a web application that will contain some news with dates of publication, and I want the client to see the date of publication of the news in the form of corresponding local time. However, I do not know in which time zone the client is located. I have three questions. I have to ask just in case: does DateTimeOffset.UtcNow always returns the correct UTC date and time, regardless of whether the server is dependent on daylight savings time? For example, if the first time I get the value of this property for two minutes before daylight savings time (or before the transition from daylight saving time back) and the second time in 2 minutes after the transfer, whether the value of properties in all cases differ by only 4 minutes? Or here require any further logic? (Question #1) Please see the following example and tell me what you think. I posted the news on the site. I assume that DateTimeOffset.UtcNow takes into account the time zone of the server and the daylight savings time, and so I immediately get the correct UTC server time when pressing the button "Submit". I write this value to a MS SQL database in the field of type datetime2(0). Then the user opens a page with news and no matter how long after publication. This may occur even after many years. I did not ask him to enter his time zone. Instead, I get the offset of his current local time from UTC using the javascript function following way: function GetUserTimezoneOffset() { var offset = new Date().getTimezoneOffset(); return offset; } Next I make the calculation of the date and time of publication, which will show the user: public static DateTime Get_Publication_Date_In_User_Local_DateTime( DateTime Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, int User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript) { int userTimezoneOffset = User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript; // For // example Javascript returns a value equal to -300, which means the // current user's time differs from UTC to 300 minutes. Ie offset // is UTC +6. In this case, it may be the time zone UTC +5 which // currently operates summer time or UTC +6 which currently operates the // standard time. // Right? (Question #2) DateTimeOffset utcPublicationDateTime = new DateTimeOffset(Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, new TimeSpan(0)); // get an instance of type DateTimeOffset for the // date and time of publication for further calculations DateTimeOffset publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime = utcPublicationDateTime.ToOffset(new TimeSpan(0, - userTimezoneOffset, 0)); return publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime.DateTime;// return to user } Is the value obtained correct? Is this the right approach to solving this problem? (Question #3)

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