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• Hudson fails to use unix user/group to do authentication

  - by Kane

  I'm trying to use unix user/group database as security realm of hudson. The linux server is using NIS for user management. My account could login the hudson server via ssh. And the hudson server is running by user 'hudson' that is also a member of group 'shadow', so hudson could read /etc/shadow. And I tested the configuration using 'test' button, hudson tells me it works well. But I can't use my unix account and password to login the hudson sever. And I found below java exception in the log of hudson, Jan 12, 2011 8:23:42 AM hudson.security.AuthenticationProcessingFilter2 onUnsuccessfulAuthentication INFO: Login attempt failed org.acegisecurity.BadCredentialsException: pam_authenticate failed : Authentication failure; nested exception is org.jvnet.libpam.PAMException: pam_authenticate failed : Authentication failure at hudson.security.PAMSecurityRealm$PAMAuthenticationProvider.authenticate(PAMSecurityRealm.java:100) at org.acegisecurity.providers.ProviderManager.doAuthentication(ProviderManager.java:195) at org.acegisecurity.AbstractAuthenticationManager.authenticate(AbstractAuthenticationManager.java:45) at org.acegisecurity.ui.webapp.AuthenticationProcessingFilter.attemptAuthentication(AuthenticationProcessingFilter.java:71) at org.acegisecurity.ui.AbstractProcessingFilter.doFilter(AbstractProcessingFilter.java:252) at hudson.security.ChainedServletFilter$1.doFilter(ChainedServletFilter.java:87) at org.acegisecurity.ui.basicauth.BasicProcessingFilter.doFilter(BasicProcessingFilter.java:173) at hudson.security.ChainedServletFilter$1.doFilter(ChainedServletFilter.java:87) at org.acegisecurity.context.HttpSessionContextIntegrationFilter.doFilter(HttpSessionContextIntegrationFilter.java:249) at hudson.security.HttpSessionContextIntegrationFilter2.doFilter(HttpSessionContextIntegrationFilter2.java:66) at hudson.security.ChainedServletFilter$1.doFilter(ChainedServletFilter.java:87) at hudson.security.ChainedServletFilter.doFilter(ChainedServletFilter.java:76) at hudson.security.HudsonFilter.doFilter(HudsonFilter.java:164) at winstone.FilterConfiguration.execute(FilterConfiguration.java:195) at winstone.RequestDispatcher.doFilter(RequestDispatcher.java:368) at winstone.RequestDispatcher.forward(RequestDispatcher.java:333) at winstone.RequestHandlerThread.processRequest(RequestHandlerThread.java:244) at winstone.RequestHandlerThread.run(RequestHandlerThread.java:150) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) Caused by: org.jvnet.libpam.PAMException: pam_authenticate failed : Authentication failure at org.jvnet.libpam.PAM.check(PAM.java:105) at org.jvnet.libpam.PAM.authenticate(PAM.java:123) at hudson.security.PAMSecurityRealm$PAMAuthenticationProvider.authenticate(PAMSecurityRealm.java:90) ... 18 more

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• jQuery Validation error...

  - by Povylas

  Hi, I have been struggling with this jQuery Validation Plugin. Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var validator = $('#signup').validate({ errorElement: 'span', rules: { username: { required: true, minlenght: 6 //remote: "check-username.php" }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, confirm_password: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, email: { required: true, email: true }, agree: "required" }, messages: { username: { required: "Please enter a username", minlength: "Your username must consist of at least 6 characters" //remote: "Somenoe have already chosen nick like this." }, password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long" }, confirm_password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long", equalTo: "Please enter the same password as above" }, email: "Please enter a valid email address", agree: "Please accept our policy" } }); var root = $("#wizard").scrollable({size: 1, clickable: false}); // some variables that we need var api = root.scrollable(); $("#data").click(function() { validator.form(); }); // validation logic is done inside the onBeforeSeek callback api.onBeforeSeek(function(event, i) { if($("#signup").valid() == false){ return false; }else{ return true; } $("#status li").removeClass("active").eq(i).addClass("active"); }); //if tab is pressed on the next button seek to next page root.find("button.next").keydown(function(e) { if (e.keyCode == 9) { // seeks to next tab by executing our validation routine api.next(); e.preventDefault(); } }); $('button.fin').click(function(){ parent.$.fn.fancybox.close() }); }); </script> And here is the error: $.validator.methods[method] is undefined http://www.vvv.vhost.lt/js/jquery-validate/jquery.validate.min.js Line 15 I am completely confused... Maybe some kind of handler is needed? I would be grateful for any kind of answer.

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• How do php apps identify a user after the session has timed out?

  - by Bill Zimmerman

  I am trying to understand how PHP apps check to see if a user is logged in. I am specifically looking at mediawiki's code to try to help me understand, but these cases should be fairly common in all php apps. From what I gather, the main cases are: A user just logged in or was created, every time they visit the page PHP knows its them by checking data common to the $_SESSION variable and the cookie. A user had the 'remember me' option checked on the login page a long time ago. They have a cookie on there computer with a tokenID, which is checked with a token on the server to authenticate them. In this case, there is no session variable, because the time between accesses could be weeks. My question is, what happens when a user is logged in, but the PHP session times out and he wants to access a page? I would have assumed that there is no easy way for the server to know who the person is - and that they would have to be redirected to the login page. However, mediawiki does just that. I've verified that the session files are deleted after X minutes, but when I hit refresh in mediawiki, it knows which user I am, and the 'token' variable is not included in the cookie.

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• VS2008 DataSet Wizard doesn't match tables for updating

  - by James H

  Hi all, first question ever on this site. I've been having a real stubborn problem using Visual Studio 2008 and I'm hoping someone has figured this out before. I have 2 libraries and 1 project that use strongly typed datasets (MSSQL backend) that I generated using the "Configure DataSet with Wizard" option on in Data Sources. I've had them working just fine for awhile and I've written a lot of code in the non-designer file for the row classes. I've also specified a lot of custom queries using the dataset designer. This is all work I can't afford to loose. I've recently made some changes to re-organize my libraries which included changing the names of the libraries themselves. I also changed the connection string to point to a different database which is a development copy (same exact schema). Problem is now when I open up "Configure DataSet with Wizard" to pickup a new column I've added to one of the tables it no longer matches the tables correctly in the wizard. The wizard displays all of the tables in the database and none of them have check boxes next to them (ie: are not part of this dataset). Below those it shows all of the tables again but with red Xs and these are checked. Basically meaning that Visual Studio sees all of the tables it currently has in the DataSet and sees all of the tables in the database, but believes they are no longer the same and thus do not match! I've had this same thing happen quite awhile back and I think I just re-built the xsd from scratch and manually copied the code over and then had to redefine all of the custom queries I built in the dataset designer. That's not a good solution. I'm looking for 2 answers: 1. What causes this to happen and how to prevent it. 2. How do I fix this so that the wizard once again believes the tables in its xsd are the same tables that are in the database (yes, they have the exact same names still). Thanks.

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• Why do I have to unserialize this serialized value twice? (wordpress/bbpress maybe_serialize)

  - by 55skidoo

  What am I doing wrong here? I'm serializing a value, storing it in a database (table bb_meta), retrieving it... OK so far... but then I have to unserialize it twice. Shouldn't I be able to just unserialize once? This seems to work, but I'm wondering what point about serialization I'm missing here. //check database to see if user has ever visited before. $querystring = $bbdb->prepare( "SELECT `meta_value` FROM `$bbdb->meta` WHERE `object_type` = %s AND `object_id` = %s AND `meta_key` = %s LIMIT 1", $bbtype, $bb_this_thread, $bbuser ); $bb_last_visits = $bbdb->get_row($querystring, OBJECT); //if $bb_last_visits is empty, add time() as the metavalue using bb_update_meta if (empty($bb_last_visits)) { $first_visit = time(); echo 'serialized first visit: ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized = serialize(array($bb_this_thread => $first_visit)); bb_update_meta( $bb_this_thread, $bbuser, $bb_this_visit_time_serialized, $bbtype ); //add to database, bb_meta table echo '$bb_last_visits was empty. Setting first visit time as ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized . '<br>'; } else { //else, test by unserializing the data for use. echo 'last visit time already set: '; echo $bb_last_visits->meta_value; echo '<br>'; //fatal error - echo 'unserialized: ' . $bb_last_visits_unserialized = unserialize($bb_last_visits[0]->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'unserialize: ' . $unserialized_visits = unserialize($bb_last_visits->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'hmm, need to unserialize again??: '; echo $unserialized_unserialized_visits = unserialize($unserialized_visits); echo '<br>'; echo 'hey look, it\'s an array value I can finally use now. phew: ' . $unserialized_unserialized_visits[$bb_this_thread]; }

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• jQuery - Could use a little help with a content loader

  - by Kenny Bones

  Hi, I'm not very elite when it comes to JavaScript, especially the syntax. So I'm trying to learn. And in this process I'm trying to implement a content loader that basically removes all content from a div and inserts content from another div from a different document. I've tried to do this on this site: www.matkalenderen.no - Check the butt ugly link there. See what happens? I've taken the example from this site: http://nettuts.s3.cdn.plus.org/011_jQuerySite/sample/index.html#index But I'm not sure this example actually works the way I think it does. I mean, if the code just wipes out existing content from a div and inserts content from another div, why does the other webpages in this example include doctype and heading etc etc? Wouldn't you just need the div and it's content? Without all the other stuff "around"? Maybe I don't get how this works though. Thought it worked mosly like include really. This is my code however: $(document).ready(function() { var hash = window.location.hash.substr(1); var href = $('#dynloader a').each(function(){ var href = $(this).attr('href'); if(hash==href.substr(0,href.length-5)){ var toLoad = hash+'.html #container'; $('#container').load(toLoad) } }); $('#dynloader a').click(function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #container'; $('#container').hide('fast',loadcontainer); $('#load').remove(); $('#wrapper').append('<span id="load">LOADING...</span>'); $('#load').fadeIn('normal'); window.location.hash = $(this).attr('href').substr(0,$(this).attr('href').length-5); function loadcontainer() { $('#container').load(toLoad,'',showNewcontainer()) } function showNewcontainer() { $('#container').show('normal',hideLoader()); } function hideLoader() { $('#load').fadeOut('normal'); } return false; }); });

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• Why do I have to unserialize this serialized value twice?

  - by 55skidoo

  What am I doing wrong here? I'm serializing a value, storing it in a database (table bb_meta), retrieving it... OK so far... but then I have to unserialize it twice. Shouldn't I be able to just unserialize once? This seems to work, but I'm wondering what point about serialization I'm missing here. //check database to see if user has ever visited before. $querystring = $bbdb->prepare( "SELECT `meta_value` FROM `$bbdb->meta` WHERE `object_type` = %s AND `object_id` = %s AND `meta_key` = %s LIMIT 1", $bbtype, $bb_this_thread, $bbuser ); $bb_last_visits = $bbdb->get_row($querystring, OBJECT); //if $bb_last_visits is empty, add time() as the metavalue using bb_update_meta if (empty($bb_last_visits)) { $first_visit = time(); echo 'serialized first visit: ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized = serialize(array($bb_this_thread => $first_visit)); bb_update_meta( $bb_this_thread, $bbuser, $bb_this_visit_time_serialized, $bbtype ); //add to database, bb_meta table echo '$bb_last_visits was empty. Setting first visit time as ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized . '<br>'; } else { //else, test by unserializing the data for use. echo 'last visit time already set: '; echo $bb_last_visits->meta_value; echo '<br>'; //fatal error - echo 'unserialized: ' . $bb_last_visits_unserialized = unserialize($bb_last_visits[0]->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'unserialize: ' . $unserialized_visits = unserialize($bb_last_visits->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'hmm, need to unserialize again??: '; echo $unserialized_unserialized_visits = unserialize($unserialized_visits); echo '<br>'; echo 'hey look, it\'s an array value I can finally use now. phew: ' . $unserialized_unserialized_visits[$bb_this_thread]; }

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• Efficient algorithm to find first available name

  - by Avrahamshuk

  I have an array containing names of items. I want to give the user the option to create items without specifying their name, so my program will have to supply a unique default name, like "Item 1". The challenge is that the name has to be unique so i have to check all the array for that default name, and if there is an item with the same name i have to change the name to be "Item 2" and so on until i find an available name. The obvious solution will be something like that: String name; for (int i = 0 , name = "Item " + i ; !isAvailable(name) ; i++); My problem with that algorithm is that it runs at O(N^2). I wonder if there is a known (or new) more efficient algorithm to solve this case. In other words my question is this: Is there any algorithm that finds the first greater-than-zero number that dose NOT exist in a given array, and runs at less that N^2? Thanks!

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• Setup SSL (self signed cert) with tomcat

  - by Danny

  I am mostly following this page: http://tomcat.apache.org/tomcat-6.0-doc/ssl-howto.html I used this command to create the keystore keytool -genkey -alias tomcat -keyalg RSA -keystore /etc/tomcat6/keystore and answered the prompts Then i edited my server.xml file and uncommented/edited this line <Connector port="8443" protocol="HTTP/1.1" SSLEnabled="true" maxThreads="150" scheme="https" secure="true" clientAuth="false" sslProtocol="TLS" keystoreFile="/etc/tomcat6/keystore" keystorePass="tomcat" /> then I go to the web.xml file for my project and add this into the file <security-constraint> <web-resource-collection> <web-resource-name>Security</web-resource-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </web-resource-collection> <user-data-constraint> <transport-guarantee>CONFIDENTIAL</transport-guarantee> </user-data-constraint> </security-constraint> When I try to run my webapp I am met with this: Unable to connect Firefox can't establish a connection to the server at localhost:8443. * The site could be temporarily unavailable or too busy. Try again in a few moments. * If you are unable to load any pages, check your computer's network connection. If I comment out the lines I've added to my web.xml file, the webapp works fine. My log file in /var/lib/tomcat6/logs says nothing. I can't figure out if this is a problem with my keystore file, my server.xml file or my web.xml file.... Any assistance is appreciated I am using tomcat 6 on ubuntu.

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• Efficient cron job utilizing Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap.

  - by fireeyedboy

  I'm new to the IMAP protocol and Zend_Mail_Storage and I'm writing a small php script for a cron job that should regularly poll an IMAP account and check for new messages, and send an e-mail if new messages have arrived. As you can imagine, I want to only poll the IMAP account for relevant messages, and I only want to send a new e-mail if new messages have arrived since the last polled new message. So I thought of keeping track of the last message I polled with some unique identifier for a message. But I'm a bit uncertain about whether the methods I want to utilize for this do what I expect them to do though. So my questions are: Does the iterator position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap actually resemble some IMAP unique identifier for messages, or is it simply only and internal position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? For instance, if I tell it to seek() to message 5 (which I stored from an earlier session) will it indeed seek to the appropriate message on the IMAP server, even if for instance messages have been deleted since last session? Would keeping track of this latest polled message id in a file suffice for a cron job that, say, polls the account every 5 or 10 minutes? Or is this too naive, and should I be using a database for instance. Or is there maybe a much easier way to keep track of such state with Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? Also, do I need to poll every IMAP folder? Or is everything accumulated when I poll INBOX? If you could shed some light on any of these matters, I'ld appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

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• When onblur occurs, how can I find out which element focus went *to*?

  - by Michiel Borkent

  Suppose I attach an onblur function to an html input box like this: <input id="myInput" onblur="function() { ... }"></input> Is there a way to get the ID of the element which caused the onblur event to fire (the element which was clicked) inside the function? How? For example, suppose I have a span like this: <span id="mySpan">Hello World</span> If I click the span right after the input element has focus, the input element will lose its focus. How does the function know that it was mySpan that was clicked? PS: If the onclick event of the span would occur before the onblur event of the input element my problem would be solved, because I could set some status value indicating a specific element had been clicked. PPS: The background of this problem is that I want to trigger an Ajax.AutoCompleter control externally (from a clickable element) to show its suggestions, without the suggestions disappearing immediately because of the onblur event on the input element. So I want to check in the OnBlur function if one specific element has been clicked, and if so, ignore the blur event.

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• List.Sort in C#: comparer being called with null object

  - by cbp

  I am getting strange behaviour using the built-in C# List.Sort function with a custom comparer. For some reason it sometimes calls the comparer class's Compare method with a null object as one of the parameters. But if I check the list with the debugger there are no null objects in the collection. My comparer class looks like this: public class DelegateToComparer<T> : IComparer<T> { private readonly Func<T,T,int> _comparer; public int Compare(T x, T y) { return _comparer(x, y); } public DelegateToComparer(Func<T, T, int> comparer) { _comparer = comparer; } } This allows a delegate to be passed to the List.Sort method, like this: mylist.Sort(new DelegateToComparer<MyClass>( (x, y) => { return x.SomeProp.CompareTo(y.SomeProp); }); So the above delegate will throw a null reference exception for the x parameter, even though no elements of mylist are null. UPDATE: Yes I am absolutely sure that it is parameter x throwing the null reference exception! UPDATE: Instead of using the framework's List.Sort method, I tried a custom sort method (i.e. new BubbleSort().Sort(mylist)) and the problem went away. As I suspected, the List.Sort method passes null to the comparer for some reason.

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• SD card initialization using SPI interface

  - by Tobias

  I get invalid response Codes from my SD Card(CMD8, CMD55, CMD41) Init routine: SDCS = 1; // MMC deaktiviert SPI1CON1bits.SMP = 0; SPI1CON1bits.CKE = 1; SPI1CON1bits.MSTEN = 1; SPI1CON1bits.CKP = 0; SPI1STATbits.SPIEN = 1; for(i=0;i<10;i++) SPI(0xFF); // RESET unsigned char rr=Command(CMD0,0); SDCS=1; // MMC deactivated /*OK response == 1*/ r=Command(CMD8,0); // check voltage SDCS=1; /* response == 0xC1 ?!? */ r = Command(CMD58,0); // READ_OCR unsigned char ocr1 = SPI(0xFF); unsigned char ocr2 = SPI(0xFF); unsigned char ocr3 = SPI(0xFF); unsigned char ocr4 = SPI(0xFF); unsigned char ocr5 = SPI(0xFF); /* r = 0xF8; ?!? ocr1 = 0x0F; ocr2 = 0xFF; ocr3 = 0xFF; ocr4 = 0xFF; ocr5 = 0xFF; */ SDCS=1; // INIT unsigned char rrr = 0; i=10000; do { rrr=Command(55,0); // Next is APP CMD SDCS=1; if(r) break; }while(--i>0); /* OK response == 1 */ // APP CMD 41 with OCR = 0x0F?? You can read the response codes in the comments. Is it possible the response code to CMD8 is 0xC1? Bit 7 should be 0, right? Is it a hardware error?

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• Mocking View with RhinoMocks

  - by blu

  We are using MVP (Supervising Controller) for ASP.NET WebForms with 3.5 SP1. What is the preferred way to check the value of a view property that only has the a set operation with RhinoMocks? Here is what we have so far: var service = MockRepository.GenerateStub<IFooService>(); // stub some data for the method used in OnLoad in the presenter var view = MockRepository.GenerateMock<IFooView>(); var presenter = new FooPresenter(view, service); view.Raise(v => v.Load += null, this, EventArgs.Empty); Assert.IsTrue(view.Bars.Count == 10); // there is no get on Bars Should we use Expects or another way, any input would be great. Thanks Update based on Darin Dimitrov's reply. var bars = new List<Bar>() { new Bar() { BarId = 1 } }; var fooService = MockRepository.GenerateStub<IFooService>(); // this is called in OnLoad in the Presenter fooService.Stub(x => x.GetBars()).Return(bars); var view = MockRepository.GenerateMock<IFooView>(); var presenter = new FooPresenter(view, fooService); view.Raise(v => v.Load += null, this, EventArgs.Empty); view.AssertWasCalled(x => x.Bars = bars); // this does not pass This doesn't work. Should I be testing it this way or is there a better way?

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• Java EE6 App + EJB in Glassfish 3.0/Netbeans 6.8?

  - by egbokul

  Has anyone got this configuration working? Latest Netbeans, latest Glassfish, I created an EJB project, also an EE Application. The EJB in itself builds & deploys to Glassfish OK. Now when I want to reference the EJB, I have to add the EJB jar to the EE Application path, if I don't do this the code does not compile. But, the EJB jar gets packaged in the App jar and as a result when I try to deploy the app to Glassfish it says: "java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Sniffers with type [ejb] and type [appclient] should not claim the archive at the same time. Please check the packaging of your archive" How do I tell Netbeans NOT TO package the EJB in the App jar? Or is the problem somewhere else? btw. if I remove the EJB manually from the JAR then the app deploys successfully (with asadmin deploy), but when I try to run it with appclient, I get a NullPointerException. Surely there must be a solution to this, I thought Netbeans was for web application development after all...

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• Validation for Alert dialog

  - by Hossam

  Hi Everyone, Im working in a game and when the player finished the level , Im asking the Player to enter his name on EditText in Alert Dialog : AlertDialog.Builder builder = new Builder(this); LayoutInflater inflater = getLayoutInflater(); // Inflate and set the layout for the dialog // Pass null as the parent view because its going in the dialog layout builder.setView(inflater.inflate(R.layout.dialog_name, null)) // Add action buttons .setPositiveButton(R.string.alertName, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { playerText = (EditText) ((AlertDialog)dialog).findViewById(R.id.username); if(playerText.getText() != null && playerText.getText().length() != 0) Helper.currentPlayer.setName(playerText.getText().toString()); //calculate the score // save in data base PlayerDataSource playerDS = new PlayerDataSource(getApplicationContext()); playerDS.open(); Helper.currentPlayer = playerDS.createPlayer(Helper.currentPlayer.getName(), Helper.currentPlayer.getScore(), Helper.currentPlayer.levels, Helper.currentPlayer.times, LanguageHelper.div); playerDS.close(); saveStmc(); mainScene.setChildScene(choicesMenu, false, true, true); } }) .setTitle("Please Enter Your name") .setNegativeButton(R.string.cancel, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { } }); alert = builder.create(); When the Player enters his name and press OK (Positive button) I will check in database if the name exists or not, if the name is exist : show Toast and not dismiss the alert to write another name. How to do that?

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• Is it possible to update old database from dbml file ? (C#, .Net 4, Linq, SQL Server)

  - by Emil

  Hi all, I began recently a new job, a very interesting project (C#,.Net 4, Linq, VS 2010 and SQL Server). And immediately I got a very exciting challenge: I must implement either a new tool or integrate the logic when program start, or whatever, but what must happen is the following: the customers have previous application and database (full with their specific data). Now a new version is ready and the customer gets the update. In the mean time we made some modification on DB (new table, columns, maybe an old column deleted, or whatever). I’m pretty new in Linq and also SQL databases and my first solution can be: I check the applications/databases version and implement all the changes step by step comparing all tables, columns, keys, constrains, etc. (all this new information I have in my dbml and the old I asked from the existing DB). And I’ll do this each time the version changed. But somehow I feel, this is NOT a smart solution so I look for a general solution of this problem. Is there a way to update customers DB from the dbml file? To create a new one is not a problem (CreateDatabase with DataContext), is there any update/alter database methods? I guess I’m not the only one who search for such a solution (I found nothing in internet – or I looked for bad keywords). How did you solve this problem? I look also for an external tool, but first for a solution with C#, Linq or something similar. For any idea thank you in advance! Best regards, Emil

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• Object oriented design of game in Java: How to handle a party of NPCs?

  - by Arvanem

  Hi folks, I'm making a very simple 2D RPG in Java. My goal is to do this in as simple code as possible. Stripped down to basics, my class structure at the moment is like this: Physical objects have an x and y dimension. Roaming objects are physical objects that can move(). Humanoid objects are roaming objects that have inventories of GameItems. The Player is a singleton humanoid object that can hire up to 4 NPC Humanoids to join his or her party, and do other actions, such as fight non-humanoid objects. NPC Humanoids can be hired by the Player object to join his or her party, and once hired can fight for the Player. So far I have given the Player class a "party" ArrayList of NPC Humanoids, and the NPC Humanoids class a "hired" Boolean. However, my fight method is clunky, using an if to check the party size before implementing combat, e.g. public class Player extends Humanoids { private ArrayList<Humanoids> party; // GETTERS AND SETTERS for party here //... public void fightEnemy(Enemy eneObj) { if (this.getParty().size() == 0) // Do combat without party issues else if (this.getParty().size() == 1) // Do combat with party of 1 else if (this.getParty().size() == 2) // Do combat with party of 2 // etc. My question is, thinking in object oriented design, am I on the right track to do this in as simple code as possible? Is there a better way?

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• PHPUnit and autoloaders: Determining whether code is running in test-scope?

  - by pinkgothic

  Premise I know that writing code to act differently when a test is run is hilariously bad practise, but I may've actually come across a scenario in which it may be necessary. Specifically, I'm trying to test a very specific wrapper for HTML Purifier in the Zend framework - a View Helper, to be exact. The HTML Purifier autoloader is necessary because it uses a different logic to the autoloaders we otherwise have. Problem require()-ing the autoloader at the top of my View Helper class, gives me the following in test-scope: HTML Purifier autoloader registrar is not compatible with non-static object methods due to PHP Bug #44144; Please do not use HTMLPurifier.autoload.php (or any file that includes this file); instead, place the code: spl_autoload_register(array('HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap', 'autoload')) after your own autoloaders. Replacing the require() with spl_autoload_register(array('HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap', 'autoload')) as advertised means the test runs fine, but the View Helper dies a terrible death claiming: Zend_Log[3707]: ErrorController caught LogicException "Passed array does not specify an existing static method (class 'HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap' not found)" (Our test folder structure is slightly different to our Zend folder structure by necessity.) Question(s) After tinkering with it, I'm thinking I'll need to pick an autoloader-loading depending on whether things are in the test scope or not. Do I have another option to include HTMLPurifier's autoloading routine in both cases that I'm not seeing due to tunnel vision? If not, do I have to find a means to differentiate between test-environment and production-environment this with my own code (e.g. APPLICATION_ENV) - or does PHPUnit support this godawful hackery of mine natively by setting a constant that I could check whether its been defined(), or similar shenanigans? (My Google-fu here is weak! I'm probably just doing it wrong.)

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• Elegant way to take basename of directory in Python?

  - by user248237

  I have several scripts that take as input a directory name, and my program creates files in those directories. Sometimes I want to take the basename of a directory given to the program and use it to make various files in the directory. For example, # directory name given by user via command-line output_dir = "..." # obtained by OptParser, for example my_filename = output_dir + '/' + os.path.basename(output_dir) + '.my_program_output' # write stuff to my_filename The problem is that if the user gives a directory name with a trailing slash, then os.path.basename will return the empty string, which is not what I want. What is the most elegant way to deal with these slash/trailing slash issues in python? I know I can manually check for the slash at the end of output_dir and remove it if it's there, but there seems like there should be a better way. Is there? Also, is it OK to manually add '/' characters? E.g. output_dir + '/' os.path.basename() or is there a more generic way to build up paths? Thanks.

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• Jquery Date Picker: Append Start Date to End Date and display dates in the future only.

  - by Tim

  Hello, I am using Jquery Date pickers to get Start and End Dates for an application I am building. I have two datepickers, one for a start date and one for an end date. When someone clicks a date in the start date picker I need that date to be appended automatically to the end date picker. I also need the end date picker to select future dates only from the date that has been appended to it. There are two demos on the jquery datepicker site that do what I want, but I am unsure how to combine them to both do what I want. Example One: This example shows how you can tie two date pickers together so that the date selected in one influences the dates that can be selected in the other $(function() { $('.date-pick').datePicker() $('#start-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#end-date').dpSetStartDate(d.addDays(1).asString()); } } ); $('#end-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#start-date').dpSetEndDate(d.addDays(-1).asString()); } } ); }); Example Two: An example showing inline date pickers which are linked together and trigger behaviour in each other... $(function() { $('#date-view1') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date1').val(selectedDate.asString()); $('#date-view2, #date-view3').dpSetSelected(selectedDate.addDays(3).asString()); } ); $('#date-view2') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date2').val(selectedDate.asString()); } ); $('#date-view3').datePicker(); $('#form-check') .bind( 'click', function() { alert('date1=' + $('#date1').val() + '\n' + 'date2=' + $('#date2').val()); } ); }); I have tried many combinations of the codes listed above, but I have not been able to get the desired results. Thanks for all your help, Tim

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• MapKit custom annotations being added to map, but are not visible on the map

  - by culov

  I learned a lot from the screencast at http://icodeblog.com/2009/12/21/introduction-to-mapkit-in-iphone-os-3-0/ , and ive been trying to incorporate the way he creates a custom annotation into my iphone app. He is hardcoding annotations and adding them individually to the map, whereas i want to add them from my data source. So i have an array of objects with a lat and a lng (ive checked that the values are within range and ought to be appearing on the map) that i iterate through and do [mapView addAnnotation:truck] once this process is completed, i check the number of annotations on the map with [[mapView annotations] count] and its equal to the number it ought to be, so all the annotations are getting added onto the mapView, but for some reason I cant see any annotations in the simulator. I've compared my code with his in all the pertinent places many times, but nothing seems to stand out as being incorrect. Ive also reviewed my code for the last several hours trying to find a point where I do something wrong, but nothing is coming to mind. The images are named just as they are assigned in the custom AnnotationView, the loadAnnotation function is done properly, etc... i dont know what it could be. so i suppose if i could have the answer to one question it would be, what are possible causes for a mapView to contain several annotations, but to not show any on the map? Thanks

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• SQL GUID Vs Integer

  - by Dal

  Hi I have recently started a new job and noticed that all the SQL tables use the GUID data type for the primary key. In my previous job we used integers (Auto-Increment) for the primary key and it was a lot more easier to work with in my opinion. For example, say you had two related tables; Product and ProductType - I could easily cross check the 'ProductTypeID' column of both tables for a particular row to quickly map the data in my head because its easy to store the number (2,4,45 etc) as opposed to (E75B92A3-3299-4407-A913-C5CA196B3CAB). The extra frustration comes from me wanting to understand how the tables are related, sadly there is no Database diagram :( A lot of people say that GUID's are better because you can define the unique identifer in your C# code for example using NewID() without requiring SQL SERVER to do it - this also allows you to know provisionally what the ID will be.... but I've seen that it is possible to still retrieve the 'next auto-incremented integer' too. A DBA contractor reported that our queries could be up to 30% faster if we used the Integer type instead of GUIDS... Why does the GUID data type exist, what advantages does it really provide?... Even if its a choice by some professional there must be some good reasons as to why its implemented?

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• How to retrieve value from ViewData when the object is not a string?

  - by Richard77

  Hello, Here's the functionality I'd like to exploit: I've a class myClass and would like to iterate over a collection that contains all the properties of that class. I'd like to send the index of that collection along with the other data so that I can control the each sequence of the iteration. Here's simplified versions of a Action method and View (I'll use the same action-view for that functionality). 1) Action public ActionResult CreateHierarchy(int? index) { if(index < PropertiesOfMyClass.Lenght) { //Other code omitted ViewData["index"] = ((index == null) ? 1 : index++); Return View(); } } 2)View <% Using(Html.BeginForm()){%> //Other Code omitted <% = Html.Hidden("Index", ViewData["index"])%> <input type = "submit" value = "Do someting"/> <%}%> I've also placed this at the bottom of the page so that I can check the value of the index, <% = ViewData["index"]%> Unfortunately, its not working. I'm getting only the number 1. I'm missing something? such as a cast for the Viewdata? Should I write something like this: <% = Html.Hidden("index", (int)ViewData["index"])%> It's not working either Thanks for helping

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• MVC.NET custom validator is not working

  - by IvanMushketyk

  I want to write a custom validator for MVC.NET framework that checks if entered date is in the future. To do it, I wrote the following class: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public sealed class InTheFutureAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private const string DefaultErrorMessage = "{0} should be date in the future"; public InTheFutureAttribute() : base(DefaultErrorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return string.Format(ErrorMessageString, name); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime time = (DateTime)value; if (time < DateTime.Now) { return false; } return true; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var clientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule() { ErrorMessage = FormatErrorMessage(metadata.GetDisplayName()), ValidationType = "wrongvalue" }; return new[] { clientValidationRule }; } } and added attribute to field that I want to check. On the View page I create input field in the following way: <div class="editor-label-search"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> <div class="editor-field-search-date"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.checkIn) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#checkIn').datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/Content/images/calendar.gif', duration: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy' }); }); </script> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> When I submit the form for the controller that requires model with checked attribute code in my validator is called and it returns false, but instead of displaying an error it just call my controller's action and send invalid model to it. Am I doing something wrong? How can I fix it? Thank you in advance.

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