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  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

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  • BITS client fails to specify HTTP Range header

    - by user256890
    Our system is designed to deploy to regions with unreliable and/or insufficient network connections. We build our own fault tolerating data replication services that uses BITS. Due to some security and maintenance requirements, we implemented our own ASP.NET file download service on the server side, instead of just letting IIS serving up the files. When BITS client makes an HTTP download request with the specified range of the file, our ASP.NET page pulls the demanded file segment into memory and serve that up as the HTTP response. That is the theory. ;) This theory fails in artificial lab scenarios but I would not let the system deploy in real life scenarios unless we can overcome that. Lab scenario: I have BITS client and the IIS on the same developer machine, so practically I have enormous network "bandwidth" and BITS is intelligent enough to detect that. As BITS client discovers the unlimited bandwidth, it gets more and more "greedy". At each HTTP request, BITS wants to grasp greater and greater file ranges (we are talking about downloading CD iso files, videos), demanding 20-40MB inside a single HTTP request, a size that I am not comfortable to pull into memory on the server side as one go. I can overcome that simply by giving less than demanded. It is OK. However, BITS gets really "confident" and "arrogant" demanding files WITHOUT specifying the download range, i.e., it wants the entire file in a single request, and this is where things go wrong. I do not know how to answer that response in the case of a 600MB file. If I just provide the starting 1MB range of the file, BITS client keeps sending HTTP requests for the same file without download range to continue, it hammers its point that it wants the entire file in one go. Since I am reluctant to provide the entire file, BITS gives up after several trials and reports error. Any thoughts?

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  • Ruby metaclass madness

    - by t6d
    I'm stuck. I'm trying to dynamically define a class method and I can't wrap my head around the ruby metaclass model. Consider the following class: class Example def self.meta; (class << self; self; end); end def self.class_instance; self; end end Example.class_instance.class # => Class Example.meta.class # => Class Example.class_instance == Example # => true Example.class_instance == Example.meta # => false Obviously both methods return an instance of Class. But these two instances are not the same. They also have different ancestors: Example.meta.ancestors # => [Class, Module, Object, Kernel] Example.class_instance.ancestors # => [Example, Object, Kernel] Whats the point in making a difference between the metaclass and the class instance? I figured out, that I can send :define_method to the metaclass to dynamically define a method, but if I try to send it to the class instance it won't work. At least I could solve my problem, but I still want to understand why it is working this way.

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  • Multiple undo managers for a text view

    - by Rui Pacheco
    Hi, I've a text view that gets its content from an attributed string stored in a model object. I list several of these model objects in a drawer and when the user clicks on one the text view swaps its content. I now need to also swap the undo manager for the text view. I initialise an undo manager on my model object and use undoManagerForTextView to return it to the text view, but something's not quite right. Strategically placed logging statements show me that everything's working as planned: on startup a new model object is initialised correctly and a non-null undo manager is always pulled by the text view. But when it comes to actually doing undo, I just can't get the behaviour I want. I open a window, type something and press cmd+z, and undo works. I open a window, type something, select a new model on the table, type something, go back to the first model and try to undo and all I get is a beep. Something on the documentation made me raise an eyebrow, as it would mean that I can't have undo with several model objects: The default undo and redo behavior applies to text fields and text in cells as long as the field or cell is the first responder (that is, the focus of keyboard actions). Once the insertion point leaves the field or cell, prior operations cannot be undone.

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  • Wysiwyg with image copy/paste

    - by jW
    First, I understand that an image cannot be "copied" from a local machine into a website. I understand that it must be uploaded. I am a web programmer, and am familiar with common web wysiwyg tools such as TinyMCE and FCKEditor. My question is if there exists a program or web module or something of the sort that works will perform an automatic upload of images for a wysiwyg. I have a client that is constantly complaining about not being able to copy/paste documents with images from MS Word into a wysiwyg to create content on their website. I have looked into TX Text Control (http://labs.textcontrol.com/) and was looking into a possibly flash wysiwyg that could upload the file automatically behind the scenes. I don't know if this exists, and google did not much help me in my search, so I thought I would ask other coders. I am open to any sort of server technology, or browser requirements. I am looking for some browser based tool instead of an application tool such as Dreamweaver or otherwise. If no good solution to the problem exists, I am willing to accept that at this point. Note: This was a request from a client, and to me it seemed rather unreasonable. I decided to gather community advice instead of just tell the client 'No' and the options here have been extremely helpful and informative in presenting possible solutions.

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  • Problems with native Win32api RichEdit control and its IRichEditOle interface

    - by Michael
    Hi All! As part of writing custom command (dll with class that implements Interwoven command interface) for one of Interwoven Worksite dialog boxes,I need to extract information from RichEdit textbox. The only connection to the existing dialog box is its HWND handle; Seemingly trivial task , but I got stuck : Using standard win32 api functions (like GetDlgItemText) returns empty string. After using Spy++ I noticed that the dialog box gets IRichEditOle interface and seems to encapsulate the string into OLE object. Here is what I tried to do: IRichEditOle richEditOleObj = null; IntPtr ppv = IntPtr.Zero; Guid guid = new Guid("00020D00-0000-0000-c000-000000000046"); Marshal.QueryInterface(pRichEdit, ref guid, out ppv); richEditOleObj = (IRichEditOle)Marshal.GetTypedObjectForIUnknown(ppv,typeof(IRichEditOle)); judging by GetObjectCount() method of the interface there is exactly one object in the textbox - most likely the string I need to extract. I used GetObject() method and got IOleObject interface via QueryInterface : if (richEditOleObj.GetObject(0, reObject, GetObjectOptions.REO_GETOBJ_ALL_INTERFACES) == 0) //S_OK { IntPtr oleObjPpv = IntPtr.Zero; try { IOleObject oleObject = null; Guid objGuid = new Guid("00000112-0000-0000-C000-000000000046"); Marshal.QueryInterface(reObject.poleobj, ref objGuid, out oleObjPpv); oleObject = (IOleObject)Marshal.GetTypedObjectForIUnknown(oleObjPpv, typeof(IOleObject)); To negate other possibilites I tried to QueryInteface IRichEditOle to ITextDocument but this also returned empty string; tried to send EM_STREAMOUT message and read buffer returned from callback - returned empty buffer. And on this point I got stuck. Googling didn't help much - couldn't find anything that was relevant to my issue - it seems that vast majority of examples on the net about IRichEditOle and RichEdit revolve around inserting bitmap into RichEdit control... Now since I know only basic stuff about COM and OLE , I guess I am missing something important here. I would appreciate any thoughts suggestions or remarks.

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  • ASP.NET MVC and WCF

    - by Michael Stum
    I'm working my way into MVC at the moment, but on my "To learn at some point" list, I also have WCF. I just wonder if WCF is something that should/could be used in an MVC Application or not? The Background is that I want a Desktop Application (.NET 3.5, WPF) interact with my MVC Web Site, and I wonder what the best way to transfer data between the two is. Should I just use special Views/have the controllers return JSON or XML (using the ContentResult)? And maybe even more important, for the other way round, could I just call special controllers? Not sure how Authorization would work in such a context. I can either use Windows Authentication or (if the Site is running forms authentication) have the user store his/her credentials in the application, but I would then essentially create a HTTP Client in my Application. So while MVC = Application seems really easy, Application = MVC does seem to be somewhat tricky and a possible use for WCF? I'm not trying to brute-force WCF in this, but I just wonder if there is indeed a good use case for WCF in an MVC application.

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  • Linq PredicateBuilder with conditional AND, OR and NOT filters.

    - by richeym
    We have a project using LINQ to SQL, for which I need to rewrite a couple of search pages to allow the client to select whether they wish to perform an and or an or search. I though about redoing the LINQ queries using PredicateBuilder and have got this working pretty well I think. I effectively have a class containing my predicates, e.g.: internal static Expression<Func<Job, bool>> Description(string term) { return p => p.Description.Contains(term); } To perform the search i'm doing this (some code omitted for brevity): public Expression<Func<Job, bool>> ToLinqExpression() { var predicates = new List<Expression<Func<Job, bool>>>(); // build up predicates here if (SearchType == SearchType.And) { query = PredicateBuilder.True<Job>(); } else { query = PredicateBuilder.False<Job>(); } foreach (var predicate in predicates) { if (SearchType == SearchType.And) { query = query.And(predicate); } else { query = query.Or(predicate); } } return query; } While i'm reasonably happy with this, I have two concerns: The if/else blocks that evaluate a SearchType property feel like they could be a potential code smell. The client is now insisting on being able to perform 'and not' / 'or not' searches. To address point 2, I think I could do this by simply rewriting my expressions, e.g.: internal static Expression<Func<Job, bool>> Description(string term, bool invert) { if (invert) { return p => !p.Description.Contains(term); } else { return p => p.Description.Contains(term); } } However this feels like a bit of a kludge, which usually means there's a better solution out there. Can anyone recommend how this could be improved? I'm aware of dynamic LINQ, but I don't really want to lose LINQ's strong typing.

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  • Positioning SVG Elements

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    In the course of toying with SVG for the first time (using the Raphael library), I've run into a problem positioning dynamic elements on the canvas in such a way that they're completely contained within the canvas. What I'm trying to do is randomly position n words/short phrases. Since the text is variable, its position needs to be variable as well so what I'm doing is: Initially creating the text at point 0,0 with no opacity. Checking the width of the drawn text element using text.getBBox().width. Setting a new x coordinate as Math.random() * (canvas_width - ( text_width/2 ) - pad). Altering the x coordinate of the text to the newly set value (text.attr( 'x', x ) ). Setting the opacity attribute of the text to 1. I'll be the first to admit that my math acumen is limited, but this seems pretty straightforward. Somehow, I still end up with text running off beyond the right edge of my canvas. For simplicity above, I removed the bit that also sets a minimum x value by adding it to the Math.random() result. It is there, though, and I see the same problem on the leading edge of the canvas. My understanding (such as it is), is that the Math.random() bits would generate a number between 0 and 1 which could then be multiplied by some number (in my case, the canvas width - half of the text width - some arbitrary padding) to get the outer bound. I'm dividing the width of the text in half because its position on the grid is set at its center. I hope I've just been staring at this for too long, but is my math that rusty or am I misunderstanding something about the behavior of Math.random(), SVG, text or anything else that's under the hood of this solution?

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  • Using HttpClient with SSL and certificates

    - by ChrisCM
    While I've been familiar with HTTPS and the concept of SSL, I have recently begun some development and found I am a little confused. The requirement was that I write a small Java application that runs on a machine attached to a scanner. When a document is scanned this is picked up and the file (usually PDF) sent over the internet to our application server that will then process it. I've written the application using Apache Commons libraries and HTTPClient. The second requirement was to connect over SSL, requiring a certificate. Following guidance on the HTTPclient page I am using AuthSSLProtocolSocketFactory from the contributions page. The constructor can take a keystore, keystore password, truststore and truststore password. As an initial test our DBA enabled SSL on one of our development webservers and provided me with a .p12 file which when I imported into IE allows me to connect successfully. I am a bit confused between keystores and truststores and what steps I need to take using the keytool. I tried importing the p12 into a keystore file but get the error: keytool error: java.lang.Exception: Input not an X.509 certificate I followed a suggestion of importing the p12 into Internet Explorer and exporting as a .cer which I can then successfully import into a keystore. When I supply this as a keystore argument of the AuthSSLProtocolSocketFactory I get a meaningless errror, but if I try it as a truststore it seems like it reads it fine but ultimately I get Caused by: javax.net.ssl.SSLHandshakeException: Received fatal alert: bad_certificate I am unsure if I have missed some steps, I am misunderstanding SSL and mutual authentication altogether or this is mis-configuration on the server side. Can anyone provide suggestions or point me towards resources that might help me figure this out please?

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  • Making Firefox render canvas text the same as CSS text

    - by Dan Forys
    I've been experimenting with the canvas tag and Javascript. I've made a page that takes Tweets from the Twitter public timeline and animates them into view. It works by using a canvas element in the background for the animation. When the animation is complete, it creates a div element with the same text over the top. I do this so that the tweet text is selectable and links are clickable. Now, in Safari, Chrome and even Opera, the canvas text and div text look almost exactly the same. Yet in Firefox, the size of the text is different enough to make it 'jump' at the point it changes into the div. Does anyone know how to make Firefox render the text the same on the canvas element and the div using CSS? Or is this a rendering inconsistency with the engine. I have put the page on my website if you want to see what I mean. Now for the code: The CSS I'm using for rendering the div contains: line-height: 21px; font-weight: 100; font-family: Georgia, "New Century Schoolbook", "Nimbus Roman No9 L", serif; font-size: 20px; For rendering on the canvas I'm using: this.context.font = this.scale + 'px Georgia'; this.context.fillStyle = "white"; this.context.strokeStyle = 'white'; this.context.fillText(this.text, 0, 0); this.context.strokeText(this.text, 0, 0); where this.scale is an animated scale factor that finishes at 20px exactly. So, to recap, I'm using the same font and ending up at the same px size, yet Firefox renders the text differently between Canvas and CSS. (edit) Here's a screenshot example: First line is the text animating in using canvas, second line is the resulting div.

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  • iPhone UI addSubview causing concurrency exception

    - by Eli
    This is really odd... I run my app, and while it is opening and the views are constructing I get: Collection <CALayerArray: 0x124650> was mutated while being enumerated. The code trace goes through the following: main UIApplicationMain -[UIApplication _run] CFRunLoopRunInMode CFRunLoopRunSpecific _UIApplicationHandleEvent -[UIApplication sendEvent:] -[UIApplication handleEvent:withNewEvent:] -[UIApplication _runWithURL:sourceBundleID:] -[UIApplication _performInitilizationWithURL:sourceBundleID:] -[AppDelegate applicationDidFinishLaunching:] +[Controller initializeController] //This is my own function [window addSubview: pauseMenuController.view] //This is the last point of my code it goes through -[UIView(Hierarchy) addSubview:] -[UIView(Internal) _addSubview:positioned:relativeTo:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:withObject:copySublayers:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:withObject:copySublayers:] _NSFastEnumerationMutationHandler objc_exception_throw I've run the game lots and lots and lots of times and I've never seen this, then suddenly it popped up. The weird thing is that I'm not creating any other threads (that I know of) until after this code all gets called. It'll be easier for me to debug this if someone can give me some explanation of what might be getting modified while it's being accessed in a UIView. Does it have something to do with adding something to the view while it's already adding something, maybe? Any ideas?

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  • Using the MVVM Light Toolkit to make Blendable applications

    - by Dave
    A while ago, I posted a question regarding switching between a Blend-authored GUI and a Visual Studio-authored one. I got it to work okay by adding my Blend project to my VS2008 project and then changing the Startup Application and recompiling. This would result in two applications that had completely different GUIs, yet used the exact same ViewModel and Model code. I was pretty happy with that. Now that I've learned about the Laurent Bugnion's MVVM Light Toolkit, I would really like to leverage his efforts to make this process of supporting multiple GUIs for the same backend code possible. The question is, does the toolkit facilate this, or am I stuck doing it my previous way? I've watched his video from MIX10 and have read some of the articles about it online. However, I've yet to see something that indicates that there is a clean way to allow a user to either dynamically switch GUIs on the fly by loading a different DLL. There are MVVM templates for VS2008 and Blend 3, but am I supposed to create both types of projects for my application and then reference specific files from my VS2008 solution? UPDATE I re-read some information on Laurent's site, and seemed to have forgotten that the whole point of the template was to allow the same solution to be opened in VS2008 and Blend. So anyhow, with this new perspective it looks like the templates are actually intended to use a single GUI, most likely designed entirely in Blend (with the convenience of debugging through VS2008), and then be able to use two different ViewModels -- one for design-time, and one for runtime. So it seems to me like the answer to my question is that I want to use a combination of my previous solution, along with the MVVM Light Toolkit. The former will allow me to make multiple, distinct GUIs around my core code, while the latter will make designing fancy GUIs in Blend easier with the usage of a design-time ViewModel. Can anyone comment on this?

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  • Are SharePoint site templates really less performant than site definitions?

    - by Jim
    So, it seems in the SharePoint blogosphere that everybody just copies and pastes the same bullet points from other blogs. One bullet point I've seen is that SharePoint site templates are less performant than site definitions because site definitions are stored on the file system. Is that true? It seems odd that site templates would be less performant. It's my understanding that all site content lives in a database, whether you use a site template or a site definition. A site template is applied once to the database, and from then on the site should not care if the content was created using a site template or not. So, does anybody have an architectural reason why a site template would be less performant than a site definition? Edit: Links to the blogs that say there is a performance difference: From MSDN: Because it is slow to store templates in and retrieve them from the database, site templates can result in slower performance. From DevX: However, user templates in SharePoint can lead to performance problems and may not be the best approach if you're trying to create a set of reusable templates for an entire organization. From IT Footprint: Because it is slow to store templates in and retrieve them from the database, site templates can result in slower performance. Templates in the database are compiled and executed every time a page is rendered. From Branding SharePoint:Custom site definitions hold the following advantages over custom templates: Data is stored directly on the Web servers, so performance is typically better. At a minimum, I think the above articles are incomplete, and I think several are misleading based on what I know of SharePoints architecture. I read another blog post that argued against the performance differences, but I can't find the link.

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  • What is the correct way to pass an object to WebApi RC controller

    - by Diver Dan
    I have a webapi project running rc I have a very basic controlller like [System.Web.Http.HttpPost] public void Update(Business business) { //if (business.Id == Guid.Empty) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business ID not provided", HttpStatusCode.BadRequest); //} _repository.Update(business); //if (!isUpdated) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business not found", HttpStatusCode.NotFound); //} } I found an example using HttpClient however it doesnt work with rc using (var client = new HttpClient()) { try { string url = string.Format("{0}{1}", ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ApiBaseUrl"].ToString(),apiMethod); HttpRequestMessage request = new HttpRequestMessage(); MediaTypeFormatter[] formatter = new MediaTypeFormatter[] { new JsonMediaTypeFormatter() }; var content = request.CreateContent<Business>( business, MediaTypeHeaderValue.Parse("application/json"), formatter, new FormatterSelector()); HttpResponseMessage response = client.PostAsync(url, content).Result; return response.Content.ToString(); } catch (Exception ex) { return null; } } I get an error Method not found: 'Void System.Net.Http.Headers.HttpHeaders.AddWithoutValidation(System.String, System.String)'. Passing the data from jquery is a piece of cake however I need call the api from code behind vs client side. Can someone point me in the right direction for calling the webapi? Thank you

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  • WCF Double Hop questions about Security and Binding.

    - by Ken Maglio
    Background information: .Net Website which calls a service (aka external service) facade on an app server in the DMZ. This external service then calls the internal service which is on our internal app server. From there that internal service calls a stored procedure (Linq to SQL Classes), and passes the serialized data back though to the external service, and from there back to the website. We've done this so any communication goes through an external layer (our external app server) and allows interoperability; we access our data just like our clients consuming our services. We've gotten to the point in our development where we have completed the system and it all works, the double hop acts as it should. However now we are working on securing the entire process. We are looking at using TransportWithMessageCredentials. We want to have WS2007HttpBinding for the external for interoperability, but then netTCPBinding for the bridge through the firewall for security and speed. Questions: If we choose WS2007HttpBinding as the external services binding, and netTCPBinding for the internal service is this possible? I know WS-* supports this as does netTCP, however do they play nice when passing credential information like user/pass? If we go to Kerberos, will this impact anything? We may want to do impersonation in the future. If you can when you answer post any reference links about why you're answering the way you are, that would be very helpful to us. Thanks!

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  • iPhone offline reading

    - by Andy
    Hi, first of all - I am quite new to iPhone App development (3 months). I am working for a software company that offers a content management system. Our customers are for the main part publishing houses for magazines. They use our software to write articles to their homepages. Now we want to offer iPhone Applications to go with our cms. What I have accomplished so far is an RSS reader that shows newly published articles in a list view. The user selects one article and is redirected to a specially formatted detail view of this article. The next step is to add offline reading capabilities. I have searched the internet up and down but couldn't find anything like a best practice for that. I get it that there are two possibilities in general: Store the contents of the uiwebview locally on the iPhone/iPad (including css, images, js and so on). There would be the need to rework the basic html to use the downloaded css, images and js. Also I would have to somehow edit hyperlinks to following pages in multipage articles - Sounds like a lot of work ;) Create a PDF on the server side and download that to the mobile device. Rework the RSS Source to point to the locally saved pdf instead of the website on the server. My question is - what is the better way to go? Are there any downsides for either of the possibilities? Are there other (simple ;)) ways to implement offline reading features? Are there possibly any howto's that I could've missed? Thanks y'all!

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  • object_getInstanceVariable works for float, int, bool, but not for double?

    - by Russel West
    I've got object_getInstanceVariable to work as here however it seems to only work for floats, bools and ints not doubles. I do suspect I'm doing something wrong but I've been going in circles with this. float myFloatValue; float someFloat = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someFloat", (void*)&myFloatValue); works, and myFloatValue = 2.123 but when I try double myDoubleValue; double someDouble = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); i get myDoubleValue = 0. If I try to set myDoubleValue before the function eg. double myDoubleValue = 1.2f, the value is unchanged when I read it after the object_getInstanceVariable call. setting myIntValue to some other value before the getinstancevar function above returns 2 as it should, ie. it has been changed. then I tried Ivar tmpIvar = object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); if i do ivar_getName(tmpIvar) i get "someDouble", but myDoubuleValue = 0 still! then i try ivar_getTypeEncoding(tmpIvar) and i get "d" as it should be. So to summarize, if typeEncoding = float, it works, if it is a double, the result is not set but it correctly reads the variable and the return value (Ivar) is also correct. I must be doing something basic wrong that I cant see so I'd appreciate if someone could point it out.

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  • PerformancePoint dashboard permissions problem in MOSS

    - by Nathan DeWitt
    I have a PerformancePoint dashboard running in MOSS 2007 portal. The dashboard consists of one SSRS 2005 report, running in SharePoint Integrated mode. NT Authority\Authenticated Users have read permissions to the report library containing the SSRS report, the dashboard, and the report library containing the dashboard. Users that attempt to access the dashboard receive the following error message: The permissions granted to user 'DOMAIN\firstname.lastname' are insufficient for performing this operation. (rsAccessDenied) Users that then click on the direct link to the report in MOSS will see the report with no problem. Subsequent visits to the dashboard show the report with no problem. The report is using a data source that is located one folder up from the report location. The report has been updated to point to the correct shared data source after deployment. Both the report and the data source have been published. The data source is using stored credentials, with a domain service account that has been set to Use as Windows credentials. This service account is serving other reports in other areas with no problem. Edit: Ok, I've gotten a lot more information on this problem. The request is never actually being made to the data source. The user comes in to the dashboard and requests a report for the first time using their kerberos token identifying themselves. The report looks in the Report Server database and finds that they are not listed in the users table and generates this rsAccessDenied error. Once they view the report directly their name is in this table and they never have the problem again. Unfortunately, removing the user from the Users table in the RS database doesn't actually cause this error to happen again. Everything I've read says that when you run a Report Server in MOSS integrated mode all your permissions are handled at the MOSS report library level, and all Auth users have permissions to the report library, as stated earlier. Any ideas?

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  • How do I use an SWT Control to render the content of an SWT/JFace table?

    - by jastram
    I have a JFace TableViewer with an SWT Table, and I would like to custom render the content of some cells. I would like to use an SWT Control to render the cell content. I would prefer to have only one instance of the Control doing the rendering, but if I have to instantiate one for each row, that would be acceptable. Next, the solution MUST be compatible with the ContentProvider/LabelProvider approach (I am using EMF). This means that I cannot use the solution described in Sniplet 126 (http://dev.eclipse.org/viewcvs/index.cgi/org.eclipse.swt.snippets). Next, I though about using custom drawing. But here the catch is, that I have to send individual drawing operations to the graphics context. I was trying to have the Control render the content for me by calling redraw() or print(GC) upon SWT.PaintItem, but that just lead to uncontrollable flickering. At this point, my best guess is to use SWT.PaintItem to do the drawing. This will result in duplicate code, as I already have a Control that can render the content the way I'd like it. I'd like to prevent this redundancy. Any help is appreciated!

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  • treeview loses data when page is being refreshed in asp.net

    - by Greg
    Hi, I have a treeview and I written a code for his "treeNodePopulate" event: protected void ycActiveTree_TreeNodePopulate(object sender, TreeNodeEventArgs e) { if (Application["idList"] != null && e.Node.Depth == 0) { string[] words = ((String)Application["idList"]).Split(' '); // Yellow Card details TreeNode child = new TreeNode(""); // Go over all the yellow card details and populate the treeview for (int i = 1; i < words.Length; i++) { child.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.None; // Same yellow card if (words[i] != "*") { // End of details and start of point ip's if (words[i] == "$") { // Add the yellow card node TreeNode yellowCardNode = new TreeNode(child.Text); yellowCardNode.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.Expand; e.Node.ChildNodes.Add(yellowCardNode); child.Text = ""; } // yellow card details else { child.Text = child.Text + words[i] + " "; } } // End of yellow card else { child.PopulateOnDemand = false; child.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.None; // Populate the yellow card node e.Node.ChildNodes[e.Node.ChildNodes.Count - 1].ChildNodes.Add(child); TreeNode moveChild = new TreeNode("Move To Reviewed"); moveChild.PopulateOnDemand = false; moveChild.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.Select; e.Node.ChildNodes[e.Node.ChildNodes.Count - 1].ChildNodes.Add(moveChild); child = new TreeNode(""); } } Application["idList"] = null; } } I want the treenode to get the data from the Application variable and then nullify the Application variable so that the tree will take data from Applcation only if there is something in it (I put data into the application from another page and then redirect to this page) But when I refresh this page the data in the treenode isnt being saved. I mean after the refresh the Application is null so he isnt doing anything. The question is why is the data that I put in the treenode earlier isnt being saved? The "enableViewState" property is set to "true".. Thanks in advance, Greg

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  • UCMA 3.0 How to build a list of recipients and then broadcast an IM call to those recipients

    - by ficuscr
    I am developing an application using UCMA 3.0 that will run as a service and send out periodic 'broadcasts' in the form of Instant Message calls. I have been using the book "Professional Unified Communications Development with Microsoft Lync Server 2010" and have everything provisioned fine and am able to establish an application endpoint. I am stuck on two aspects though. 1) How to get a list of all users of Lync? Everything the UCMA can do is centered on a single user. For example it allows me to retrieve all contacts/groups present on a given users 'contact list' but does not provide any means to query for a list of available contacts that could be added to one of those contact lists. On the MSDN forum I found this post which leads me to think my best bet is simply to query AD directly. 2) What is the best way to actually send a broadcast style IM? My working premise is to attempt something like what I've found in this code example (specifically the public void SendIM() method). So, get a list of recipients from AD, (looping on each on to check current presence?), and then use Automation to make the IM call for each recipient in the collection. Does that make sense? Do I need to check presence of the recipient or do I just optimistically make the IM calls irregardless of their current presence status? Can anyone point me to some working code demonstrating sending an IM broadcast? You would think this is probably one of the most common use cases however the SDK samples do not cover it. Thanks in advance.

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  • Deriving an HTMLElement Object from jQuery Object

    - by Jasconius
    I'm doing a fairly exhaustive series of DOM manipulations where a few elements (specifically form elements) have some events. I am dynamically creating (actually cloning from a source element) several boxes and assigning a change() event to them. The change event executes, and within the context of the event, "this" is the HTML Element Object. What I need to do at this point however is determine a contact for this HTML Element Object. I have these objects stored already as jQuery entities in assorted arrays, but obviously [HTMLElement Object] != [Object Object] And the trick is that I cannot cast $(this) and make a valid comparison since that would create a new object and the pointer would be different. So... I've been banging my head against this for a while. In the past I've been able to circumvent this problem by doing an innerHTML comparison, but in this case the objects I am comparing are 100% identical, just there's lots of them. Therefore I need a solid comparison. This would be easy if I could somehow derive the HTMLElement object from my originating jQuery object. Thoughts, other ideas? Help. :(

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  • SimpleDOM sortedXPath date sorting works on localhost but not on remote server.

    - by Imminent
    Here's what i'm trying to do: 1) Take a basic XML page (data.xml) 2) Load it with simpleDOM 3) Use simpleDOM sortedXPath to sort all XML items by their pubDate 4) Display sorted output Here is the code I currently have. My code below outputs exactly what I need when run it on my localhost (XAMPP w/PHP 5.3) but on my remote server (which has at least PHP 5.0+) all is lost and a completely blank page is output. It will output the $xml array with print_r though. Here is my code: <?php include('SimpleDOM.php'); $xml = simpledom_load_file('data.xml'); $dateformat = "D j M, g:ia"; /* print_r($xml); <-array will output on remote server if put here, but alas nothing else beyond this point */ /*Output First 5 items sorted by pubDate*/ foreach($xml->channel->sortedXPath('item','pubDate', SORT_DESC) as $i => $item){ if ($i > 4){ break; } print "<p>This Weeks Deal:<strong> ".$item->title."</strong></p>"; print $item->description; print "<p>Date Posted:<strong> ".date($dateformat, strtotime($item->pubDate))."</strong></p>"; } ?> Like I said, this code seems to work great on my localhost... but not being able to run it on my remote server is making me crazy. Any ideas ?? Any help will be far beyond appreciated.

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  • Are there any applications written in the Io programming language? (Or, distributing Io applications

    - by Rayne
    I've recently become interested in prototype-based OOP, and I've been playing with Io and Ioke. Distributing an application with Ioke is simple. It's on the JVM. Need I say more? However, I'm absolutely stumped as to how one would distribute an Io application, especially on Windows. It's not like you can have end-users compile Io to run your application. I was actually shocked the Io has gone for 8 years without forming some sort of standards for things like distribution. Ruby has gems, Java has jars, and so on. The worse thing about it is, I can't find a single application written in Io to maybe steal ideas on distribution from. Maybe I suck at google searching (Io is a horrible search name, by the way ;P). Is there any sort of canonical way to distribute Io applications? Are there even any Io applications in existence, or am I just missing the point? I'm not sure if this should be community wiki or not. If you think it should, comment and let me know.

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