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  • Need some constructive criticism on my SSE/Assembly attempt

    - by Brett
    Hello, I'm working on converting a bit of code to SSE, and while I have the correct output it turns out to be slower than standard c++ code. The bit of code that I need to do this for is: float ox = p2x - (px * c - py * s)*m; float oy = p2y - (px * s - py * c)*m; What I've got for SSE code is: void assemblycalc(vector4 &p, vector4 &sc, float &m, vector4 &xy) { vector4 r; __m128 scale = _mm_set1_ps(m); __asm { mov eax, p //Load into CPU reg mov ebx, sc movups xmm0, [eax] //move vectors to SSE regs movups xmm1, [ebx] mulps xmm0, xmm1 //Multiply the Elements movaps xmm2, xmm0 //make a copy of the array shufps xmm2, xmm0, 0x1B //shuffle the array subps xmm0, xmm2 //subtract the elements mulps xmm0, scale //multiply the vector by the scale mov ecx, xy //load the variable into cpu reg movups xmm3, [ecx] //move the vector to the SSE regs subps xmm3, xmm0 //subtract xmm3 - xmm0 movups [r], xmm3 //Save the retun vector, and use elements 0 and 3 } } Since its very difficult to read the code, I'll explain what I did: loaded vector4 , xmm0 _ p = [px , py , px , py ] mult. by vector4, xmm1 _ cs = [c , c , s , s ] _____________mult---------------------------- result,______ xmm0 = [px*c, py*c, px*s, py*s] reuse result, xmm0 = [px*c, py*c, px*s, py*s] shuffle result, xmm2 = [py*s, px*s, py*c, px*c] ___________subtract---------------------------- result, xmm0 = [px*c-py*s, py*c-px*s, px*s-py*c, py*s-px*c] reuse result, xmm0 = [px*c-py*s, py*c-px*s, px*s-py*c, py*s-px*c] load m vector4, scale = [m, m, m, m] ______________mult---------------------------- result, xmm0 = [(px*c-py*s)*m, (py*c-px*s)*m, (px*s-py*c)*m, (py*s-px*c)*m] load xy vector4, xmm3 = [p2x, p2x, p2y, p2y] reuse, xmm0 = [(px*c-py*s)*m, (py*c-px*s)*m, (px*s-py*c)*m, (py*s-px*c)*m] ___________subtract---------------------------- result, xmm3 = [p2x-(px*c-py*s)*m, p2x-(py*c-px*s)*m, p2y-(px*s-py*c)*m, p2y-(py*s-px*c)*m] then ox = xmm3[0] and oy = xmm3[3], so I essentially don't use xmm3[1] or xmm3[4] I apologize for the difficulty reading this, but I'm hoping someone might be able to provide some guidance for me, as the standard c++ code runs in 0.001444ms and the SSE code runs in 0.00198ms. Let me know if there is anything I can do to further explain/clean this up a bit. The reason I'm trying to use SSE is because I run this calculation millions of times, and it is a part of what is slowing down my current code. Thanks in advance for any help! Brett

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  • iPhone Image Resources, ICO vs PNG, app bundle filesize

    - by Jasarien
    My application has a collection of around 1940 icons that are used throughout. They're currently in ICO and new images provided to me come in ICO format too. I have noticed that they contain a 16x16 and 32x32 representation of each icon in one file. Each file is roughly 4KB in filesize (as reported by finder, but ls reports that they vary from being ~1000 bytes to 5000 bytes) A very small number of these icons only contain the 32x32 representation, and as a result are only around 700 bytes in size. Currently I am bundling these icons with my application and they are inflating the size of the app a bit more than I would like. Altogether, the images total just about 25.5MB. Xcode must do some kind of compression because the resulting app bundle is about 12.4MB. Compressing this further into a ZIP (as it would be when submitted to the App Store), results in a final file of 5.8MB. I'm aware that the maximum limit for over the air App Store downloads has been raised to 20MB since the introduction of the iPad (I'm not sure if that extends to iPhone apps as well as iPad apps though, if not the limit would be 10MB). My worry is that new icons are going to be added (sometimes up to 10 icons per week), and will continue to inflate the app bundle over time. What is the best way to distribute these icons with my app? Things I've tried and not had much success with: Converting the icons from ICO to PNG: I tried this in the hopes that the pngcrush utility would help out with the filesize. But it appears that it doesn't make much of a difference between a normal PNG and a crushed png (I believe it just optimises the image for display on the iPhone's GPU rather than compress it's size). Also in going from ICO to PNG actually increased the size of the icon file... Zipping the images, and then uncompressing them on first run. While this did reduce the overall image sizes, I found that the effort needed to unzip them, copy them to the documents folder and ensure that duplication doesn't happen on upgrades was too much hassle to be worth the benefit. Also, on original and 3G iPhones unzipping and copying around 25MB of images takes too long and creates a bad experience... Things I've considered but not yet tried: Instead of distributing the icons within the app bundle, host them online, and download each icon on demand (it depends on the user's data as to which icons will actually be displayed and when). Issues with this is that bandwidth costs money, and image downloads will be bandwidth intensive. However, my app currently has a small userbase of around 5,500 users (of which I estimate around 1500 to be active based on Flurry stats), and I have a huge unused bandwidth allowance with my current hosting package. So I'm open to thoughts on how to solve this tricky issue.

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  • Looping through all attributes of a XML element in XSLT

    - by TheGNUGuy
    Hey everyone, I am trying to use <xsl:for-each select="@*"> to grab all the attributes of a given element but when i do that my <xsl:choose> statement doesn't execute. Here is the element that I'm working with: <textBox id="Airfare" value="" label="text 1"/> Here is the XSLT template I'm using: <xsl:template match="textBox"> <div> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="@label"> <xsl:value-of select="@label"/> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:text>No Label Defined</xsl:text> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> <xsl:element name="input"> <xsl:attribute name="type">text</xsl:attribute> <xsl:for-each select="@*"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="@id"> <xsl:attribute name="name">form_<xsl:value-of select="@id"/></xsl:attribute> <xsl:attribute name="id">form_<xsl:value-of select="@id"/></xsl:attribute> </xsl:when> <xsl:when test="@label"> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:copy-of select="current()"/> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:element> </div> And when I generate the HTML using PHP I get this: <div>text 1<input type="text" id="Airfare" value="" label="text 1"></div> As you can see it didn't add form_ to the id attribute it didn't generate a name attribute and it didn't skip over the label attribute. Thanks for your help!

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  • Symfony2 Entity to array

    - by Adriano Pedro
    I'm trying to migrate my flat php project to Symfony2, but its coming to be very hard. For instance, I have a table of Products specification that have several specifications and are distinguishables by its "cat" attribute in that Extraspecs DB table. Therefore I've created a Entity for that table and want to make an array of just the specifications with "cat" = 0... I supose the code is this one.. right? $typeavailable = $this->getDoctrine() ->getRepository('LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs') ->findBy(array('cat' => '0')); Now how can i put this in an array to work with a form like this?: form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('specs', 'choice', array('choices' => $typeavailableArray), 'multiple' => true) Thank you in advance :) # Thank you all.. But now I've came across with another problem.. In fact i'm building a form from an existing object: $form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('name', 'text') ->add('genspec', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'None', '1' => 'General', '2' => 'Specific'))) ->add('isReg', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'Material', '1' => 'Reagent', '2' => 'Antibody', '3' => 'Growth Factors', '4' => 'Rodents', '5' => 'Lagomorphs'))) So.. in that case my current value is named "extraspecs", so i've added this like: ->add('extraspecs', 'entity', array( 'label' => 'desc', 'empty_value' => ' --- ', 'class' => 'LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs', 'property' => 'specsid', 'query_builder' => function(EntityRepository $er) { return $er ->createQueryBuilder('e'); But "extraspecs" come from a relationship of oneToMany where every product has several extraspecs... Here is the ORM: Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\Product: type: entity table: orders__regmat id: id: type: integer generator: { strategy: AUTO } fields: name: type: string length: 100 catnumber: type: string scale: 100 brand: type: integer scale: 10 company: type: integer scale: 10 size: type: decimal scale: 10 units: type: integer scale: 10 price: type: decimal scale: 10 reqcert: type: integer scale: 1 isReg: type: integer scale: 1 genspec: type: integer scale: 1 oneToMany: extraspecs: targetEntity: ProductExtraspecs mappedBy: product Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\ProductExtraspecs: type: entity table: orders__regmat__extraspecs fields: extraspecid: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false generator: strategy: IDENTITY regmatid: type: integer scale: 11 spec: type: integer scale: 11 attrib: type: string length: 20 value: type: string length: 200 lifecycleCallbacks: { } manyToOne: product: targetEntity: Product inversedBy: extraspecs joinColumn: name: regmatid referencedColumnName: id HOw should I do this? Thank you!!!

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  • Smoke testing a .NET web application

    - by pdr
    I cannot believe I'm the first person to go through this thought process, so I'm wondering if anyone can help me out with it. Current situation: developers write a web site, operations deploy it. Once deployed, a developer Smoke Tests it, to make sure the deployment went smoothly. To me this feels wrong, it essentially means it takes two people to deploy an application; in our case those two people are on opposite sides of the planet and timezones come into play, causing havoc. But the fact remains that developers know what the minimum set of tests is and that may change over time (particularly for the web service portion of our app). Operations, with all due respect to them (and they would say this themselves), are button-pushers who need a set of instructions to follow. The manual solution is that we document the test cases and operations follow that document each time they deploy. That sounds painful, plus they may be deploying different versions to different environments (specifically UAT and Production) and may need a different set of instructions for each. On top of this, one of our near-future plans is to have an automated daily deploy environment, so then we'll have to instruct a computer as to how to deploy a given version of our app. I would dearly like to add to that instructions for how to smoke test the app. Now developers are better at documenting instructions for computers than they are for people, so the obvious solution seems to be to use a combination of nUnit (I know these aren't unit tests per se, but it is a built-for-purpose test runner) and either the Watin or Selenium APIs to run through the obvious browser steps and call to the web service and explain to the Operations guys how to run those unit tests. I can do that; I have mostly done it already. But wouldn't it be nice if I could make that process simpler still? At this point, the Operations guys and the computer are going to have to know which set of tests relate to which version of the app and tell the nUnit runner which base URL it should point to (say, www.example.com = v3.2 or test.example.com = v3.3). Wouldn't it be nicer if the test runner itself had a way of giving it a base URL and letting it download say a zip file, unpack it and edit a configuration file automatically before running any test fixtures it found in there? Is there an open source app that would do that? Is there a need for one? Is there a solution using something other than nUnit, maybe Fitnesse? For the record, I'm looking at .NET-based tools first because most of the developers are primarily .NET developers, but we're not married to it. If such a tool exists using other languages to write the tests, we'll happily adapt, as long as there is a test runner that works on Windows.

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  • How to match multiple substrings in jQuery combobox autocomplete

    - by John R
    I found more than a couple examples of this with a plain jquery autocomplete but not in a way that will work with the autocomplete included in the combobox code from the demo because the structure of the code is structured so differently. I want to match every item that has all of the search tokens anywhere in any word. I don't need to match the start of any word, any part of it is fine. I don't care if the search strings are highlighted in the autocomplete list if that makes things too complicated. Desired search/result combos: (please excuse the spacing) "fi th" "fi rst second th ird" "rs on" "fi rs t sec on d third" "ec rd" "first s ec ond thi rd" but not limited to any max/min length or number of tokens. EDIT I figured part of it out using the code structure from the other autocorrect I had working. source: function( requestObj, responseFunc ) { var matchArry = $("select > option").map(function(){return this.innerHTML;}).get(); var srchTerms = $.trim(requestObj.term).split(/\s+/); // For each search term, remove non-matches $.each (srchTerms, function (J, term) { var regX = new RegExp (term, "i"); matchArry = $.map (matchArry, function (item) { if( regX.test(item) ){ return{ label: item, value: item, option: HTMLOptionElement } ? item :null; } } ); }); // Return the match results responseFunc (matchArry); }, and select: function( event, ui ) { ui.item.option.selected = true; self._trigger( "selected", event, { item: ui.item.option }); $("destination").val(ui.item.value); // I added this line }, but I can't get both multiple words AND being able to click to select working at the same time. If I remove the } ? item :null; on the return in the map function I can click to select an item. If I leave it I can type multiple words, but I can't click any of the items... Is that the problem or the option: this? I've tried replacing it with HTMLOptionElement and null and I'm stuck. I am able to set the value of another field with ui.item.value within the select label but that doesn't put the value in the search box or close the dropdown menu. Fiddle of current code: http://jsfiddle.net/eY3hM/

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  • A* algorithm works OK, but not perfectly. What's wrong?

    - by Bart van Heukelom
    This is my grid of nodes: I'm moving an object around on it using the A* pathfinding algorithm. It generally works OK, but it sometimes acts wrongly: When moving from 3 to 1, it correctly goes via 2. When going from 1 to 3 however, it goes via 4. When moving between 3 and 5, it goes via 4 in either direction instead of the shorter way via 6 What can be wrong? Here's my code (AS3): public static function getPath(from:Point, to:Point, grid:NodeGrid):PointLine { // get target node var target:NodeGridNode = grid.getClosestNodeObj(to.x, to.y); var backtrace:Map = new Map(); var openList:LinkedSet = new LinkedSet(); var closedList:LinkedSet = new LinkedSet(); // begin with first node openList.add(grid.getClosestNodeObj(from.x, from.y)); // start A* var curNode:NodeGridNode; while (openList.size != 0) { // pick a new current node if (openList.size == 1) { curNode = NodeGridNode(openList.first); } else { // find cheapest node in open list var minScore:Number = Number.MAX_VALUE; var minNext:NodeGridNode; openList.iterate(function(next:NodeGridNode, i:int):int { var score:Number = curNode.distanceTo(next) + next.distanceTo(target); if (score < minScore) { minScore = score; minNext = next; return LinkedSet.BREAK; } return 0; }); curNode = minNext; } // have not reached if (curNode == target) break; else { // move to closed openList.remove(curNode); closedList.add(curNode); // put connected nodes on open list for each (var adjNode:NodeGridNode in curNode.connects) { if (!openList.contains(adjNode) && !closedList.contains(adjNode)) { openList.add(adjNode); backtrace.put(adjNode, curNode); } } } } // make path var pathPoints:Vector.<Point> = new Vector.<Point>(); pathPoints.push(to); while(curNode != null) { pathPoints.unshift(curNode.location); curNode = backtrace.read(curNode); } pathPoints.unshift(from); return new PointLine(pathPoints); } NodeGridNode::distanceTo() public function distanceTo(o:NodeGridNode):Number { var dx:Number = location.x - o.location.x; var dy:Number = location.y - o.location.y; return Math.sqrt(dx*dx + dy*dy); }

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  • how to create a system-wide independent universal counter object primarily for Database keys?

    - by andora
    I would like to create/use a system-wide independent universal 'counter object' that can be called via COM in a thread-safe manner. The counter object will be passed an ID to identify which counter to return, handle the counting, 'persist' the count (occasionally), have reasonable performance (as fast as possible) perhaps capable of 1000 counts per second or better (1mS) and be accessible cross-process/out-of-process. The current count status must be persisted between object restarts/shutdowns. The counter object is liklely to be a 'singleton' type object implemented in some form of free-threaded dictionary, containing maybe 10 counters (perhaps 50 max). The count needs to be monotonic and consistent, (ie: guaranteed unique sequential values). Each counter should have a few methods, like reset, inc, dec, set, clear, remove. As a luxury, I would like to have a variable-increment (ie: 'step by' value). To support thread-safefty, perhaps some sorm of critical-section or mutex call. It just needs to return a long/4byte signed integer. I really want something that can be called from anywhere, including VBScript, so I figure COM is my preferred solution. The primary use of this is for database keys. I am unable to use autoinc or guid type keys and have ruled out database-generated counting systems at this point. I've spent days researching this and I have really struggled to find a solution. The best I can find is a free-threaded dictionary object that can be instantiated using COM+ from Motobit - it seems to offer all the 'basics' and I guess I could create some form of wrapper for this. So, here are my questions: Does such a 'general purpose counter-object already exist? Can you direct me to it? (MS did do an IIS/ASP object called 'MSWC.Counter' but this isn't 'cross-process'/ out-of-process component and isn't thread-safe. (but if it was, it would do!) What is the best way of creating such a Component? (I'd prefer VB6 right-now, [don't ask!] but can do in VB.NET2005 if I had to). I don't have the skills/knowledge/tools to use anything else. I am desparate for a workable solution. I need specific guidance! If anybody can code something up for me I am prepared to pay for it.

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  • How to return the date value from DatePickerDialog in Android?

    - by user1855222
    I am new to android . I ve created a Date picker in android using following guide .http://developer.android.com/guide/topics/ui/controls/pickers.html public class DatePickerFragment extends DialogFragment implements DatePickerDialog.OnDateSetListener { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); public static String date; @Override public Dialog onCreateDialog(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // Use the current date as the default date in the picker final Calendar c = Calendar.getInstance(); int year = c.get(Calendar.YEAR); int month = c.get(Calendar.MONTH); int day = c.get(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH); // Create a new instance of DatePickerDialog and return it return new DatePickerDialog(getActivity(), this, year, month, day); } public void onDateSet(DatePicker view, int year, int month, int day) { // Do something with the date chosen by the user sb.append(year); sb.append('-'); sb.append(month+1); sb.append('-'); sb.append(day); date = sb.toString(); System.out.println("The date is "+date); } I need to return this date value (date = sb.toString()) to my MainActivity . Since the onDateSet method is void what should I do ? Additional Information - DatePickerDialog Triggers at the MainActivity class ,But not with single button click . There are several processes happens in side a single button , Date picker will triggers only when certain condition is met . I do not want to display the date value either . Just want it returned for further processing. Appreciate any kind of guidance Changed onDataset method and justshow() public void onDateSet(DatePicker view, int year, int month, int day) { // Do something with the date chosen by the user sb.append(year); sb.append('-'); sb.append(month+1); sb.append('-'); sb.append(day); date = sb.toString(); MainActivity.newdate=sb.toString(); System.out.println("The date is "+MainActivity.newdate); } public void justShow(){ System.out.println("The date is "+MainActivity.newdate); } This is the relevant Part From Main(After making changes suggested in first reply ) DateToken mydate=new DateToken(); String test=dayvals.get(0); DialogFragment df=new DatePickerFragment(); if(test.equalsIgnoreCase("day")){ df.show(getSupportFragmentManager(), "DatePik"); } System.out.println("Date is on Main"+newdate); DatePickerFragment dpf=new DatePickerFragment(); dpf.justShow(); newdate is the static String , but still outputs null. In both MainActivity and justShow methods . But in onDataSet method date outputs correctly

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  • jQuery post request is not sent until first post request is compleated

    - by Champ
    I have a function which have a long execution time. public void updateCampaign() { context.Session[processId] = "0|Fetching Lead360 Campaign"; Lead360 objLead360 = new Lead360(); string campaignXML = objLead360.getCampaigns(); string todayDate = DateTime.Now.ToString("dd-MMMM-yyyy"); context.Session[processId] = "1|Creating File for Lead360 Campaign on " + todayDate; string fileName = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("campaigns") + todayDate + ".xml"; objLead360.createFile(fileName, campaignXML); context.Session[processId] = "2|Reading The latest Lead360 Campaign"; string file = File.ReadAllText(fileName); context.Session[processId] = "3|Updating Lead360 Campaign"; string updateStatus = objLead360.updateCampaign(fileName); string[] statusArr = updateStatus.Split('|'); context.Session[processId] = "99|" + statusArr[0] + " New Inserted , " + statusArr[1] + " Updated , With " + statusArr[2] + " Error , "; } So to track the Progress of the function I wrote a another function public void getProgress() { if (context.Session[processId] == null) { string json = "{\"error\":true}"; Response.Write(json); Response.End(); }else{ string[] status = context.Session[processId].ToString().Split('|'); if (status[0] == "99") context.Session.Remove(processId); string json = "{\"error\":false,\"statuscode\":" + status[0] + ",\"statusmsz\":\"" + status[1] + "\" }"; Response.Write(json); Response.End(); } } To call this by jQuery post request is used reqUrl = "AjaxPages/lead360Campaign.aspx?processid=" + progressID + "&action=updatecampaign"; $.post(reqUrl); setTimeout(getProgress, 500); get getProgress is : function getProgress() { reqUrl = "AjaxPages/lead360Campaign.aspx?processid=" + progressID + "&action=getProgress"; $.post(reqUrl, function (response) { var progress = jQuery.parseJSON(response); console.log(progress) if (progress.error) { $("#fetchedCampaign .waitingMsz").html("Some error occured. Please try again later."); $("#fetchedCampaign .waitingMsz").css({ "background": "url(common/images/ajax_error.jpg) no-repeat center 6px" }); return; } if (progress.statuscode == 99) { $("#fetchedCampaign .waitingMsz").html("Update Status :"+ progress.statusmsz ); $("#fetchedCampaign .waitingMsz").css({ "background": "url(common/images/ajax_loded.jpg) no-repeat center 6px" }); return; } $("#fetchedCampaign .waitingMsz").html("Please Wait... " + progress.statusmsz); setTimeout(getProgress, 500); }); } But the problem is that I can't see the intermediate message. Only the last message is been displayed after a long lime of ajax loading message Also on the browser console I just see that after a long time first requested is completed and after that the second request is completed. but there should be for getProgress ? I have checked jquery.doc and it says that $post is an asynchronous request. Can anyone please explain what is wrong with the code or logic?

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  • how do i scroll through 100 photos in UIScrollView in IPhone

    - by mwangima
    I'm trying to scroll through images being downloaded from a users online album (like in the facebook iphone app) since i can't load all images into memory, i'm loading 3 at a time (prev,current & next). then removing image(prev-1) & image (next +1) from the uiscroller subviews. my logic works fine in the simulator but fails in the device with this error: [CALayer retain]: message sent to deallocated instance what could be the problem below is my code sample - (void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)_scrollView { pageControlIsChangingPage = NO; CGFloat pageWidth = _scrollView.frame.size.width; int page = floor((_scrollView.contentOffset.x - pageWidth / 2) / pageWidth) + 1; if (page1 && page<=(pageControl.numberOfPages-3)) { [self removeThisView:(page-2)]; [self removeThisView:(page+2)]; } if(page0) { NSLog(@"<< PREVIOUS"); [self showPhoto:(page-1)]; } [self showPhoto:page]; if(page<(pageControl.numberOfPages-1)) { //NSLog(@"NEXT "); [self showPhoto:page+1]; NSLog(@"FINISHED LOADING NEXT "); } } -(void) showPhoto:(NSInteger)index { CGFloat cx = scrollView.frame.size.width*index; CGFloat cy = 40; CGRect rect=CGRectMake( 0, 0,320, 480); rect.origin.x = cx; rect.origin.y = cy; AsyncImageView* asyncImage = [[AsyncImageView alloc] initWithFrame:rect]; asyncImage.tag = 999; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:[pics objectAtIndex:index]]; [asyncImage loadImageFromURL:url place:CGRectMake(150, 190, 30, 30) member:memberid isSlide:@"Yes" picId:[picsIds objectAtIndex:index]]; [scrollView addSubview:asyncImage]; [asyncImage release]; } -(void) removeThisView:(NSInteger)index { if(index<[[scrollView subviews] count] && [[scrollView subviews] objectAtIndex:index]!=nil){ if ([[[scrollView subviews] objectAtIndex:index] isKindOfClass:[AsyncImageView class]] || [[[scrollView subviews] objectAtIndex:index] isKindOfClass:[UIImageView class]]) { [[[scrollView subviews] objectAtIndex:index] removeFromSuperview]; } } } For the record it works OK in the simulator, but not the iphone device itself. any ideas will be appreciated. cheers, fred.

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  • Separate specific #ifdef branches

    - by detly
    In short: I want to generate two different source trees from the current one, based only on one preprocessor macro being defined and another being undefined, with no other changes to the source. If you are interested, here is my story... In the beginning, my code was clean. Then we made a new product, and yea, it was better. But the code saw only the same peripheral devices, so we could keep the same code. Well, almost. There was one little condition that needed to be changed, so I added: #if defined(PRODUCT_A) condition = checkCat(); #elif defined(PRODUCT_B) condition = checkCat() && checkHat(); #endif ...to one and only one source file. In the general all-source-files-include-this header file, I had: #if !(defined(PRODUCT_A)||defined(PRODUCT_B)) #error "Don't make me replace you with a small shell script. RTFM." #endif ...so that people couldn't compile it unless they explicitly defined a product type. All was well. Oh... except that modifications were made, components changed, and since the new hardware worked better we could significantly re-write the control systems. Now when I look upon the face of the code, there are more than 60 separate areas delineated by either: #ifdef PRODUCT_A ... #else ... #endif ...or the same, but for PRODUCT_B. Or even: #if defined(PRODUCT_A) ... #elif defined(PRODUCT_B) ... #endif And of course, sometimes sanity took a longer holiday and: #ifdef PRODUCT_A ... #endif #ifdef PRODUCT_B ... #endif These conditions wrap anywhere from one to two hundred lines (you'd think that the last one could be done by switching header files, but the function names need to be the same). This is insane. I would be better off maintaining two separate product-based branches in the source repo and porting any common changes. I realise this now. Is there something that can generate the two different source trees I need, based only on PRODUCT_A being defined and PRODUCT_B being undefined (and vice-versa), without touching anything else (ie. no header inclusion, no macro expansion, etc)?

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  • How we can perform Action on Sequence UIButtons?

    - by Prince Shazad
    As My Screen shot show that i am working on word matching game.In this game i assign my words to different UIButtons in Specific sequence on different loctions(my red arrow shows this sequence)and of rest UIButtons i assign a one of random character(A-Z).when i Click on any UIButtons its title will be assign to UILabel which is in Fornt of Current Section:i campare this UILabel text to below UILabels text which is in fornt of timer.when it match to any of my UILabels its will be deleted.i implement all this process already. But my problem is that which is show by black lines.if the player find the first word which is "DOG". he click the Two UIButtons in Sequence,but not press the Third one in Sequence.(as show by black line).so here i want that when player press the any UIButtons which is not in Sequence then remove the previous text(which is "DO") of UILabel and now the Text of UILabel is only "G" . Here is my code to get the UIButtons titles and assign it UILabel. - (void)aMethod:(id)sender { UIButton *button = (UIButton *)sender; NSString *get = (NSString *)[[button titleLabel] text]; NSString *origText = mainlabel.text; mainlabel.text = [origText stringByAppendingString:get]; if ([mainlabel.text length ]== 3) { if([mainlabel.text isEqualToString: a]){ lbl.text=@"Right"; [btn1 removeFromSuperview]; score=score+10; lblscore.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",score]; words=words-1; lblwords.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",words]; mainlabel.text=@""; a=@"tbbb"; } else if([mainlabel.text isEqualToString: c]){ lbl.text=@"Right"; [btn2 removeFromSuperview]; score=score+10; lblscore.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",score]; words=words-1; lblwords.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",words]; mainlabel.text=@""; c=@"yyyy"; } else if([mainlabel.text isEqualToString: d]){ lbl.text=@"Right"; [btn3 removeFromSuperview]; score=score+10; lblscore.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",score]; words=words-1; lblwords.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",words]; mainlabel.text=@""; d=@"yyyy"; } else { lbl.text=@"Wrong"; mainlabel.text=@""; } }} Thanx in advance

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  • Flex: convert VideoPlayer.currentTime to string "00:00:00:000"

    - by numediaweb
    Hi there! what about this one: I want to format the currentTime displayed by a videoPlayer component inside flex, something like : 8230.999 to something like 01:59:59:999 which is "hours:minutes:seconds:milliseconds" I trie different sets of codes but they can't get it to work because currentTime is nor a correct miliseconds time as it adds a floating 3 digit point to seconds; so instead of : 2000ms it outputs 2.000 something people like me just can't understand! thanx for any help :) ### UPDATE I still have problem with milliseconds. here's the current MXML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="955" minHeight="600"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ protected function convert_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { var val:Number = new Number(inPut.text); //inPut.text = 1000.001 //val = val * 1000; outPut.text = timeFormat(val); } public static function timeFormat(value:Number):String { var milliseconds:Number = value % 1000; var seconds:Number = Math.floor((value/1000) % 60); var minutes:Number = Math.floor((value/60000) % 60); var hours:Number = Math.floor((value/3600000) % 24); var s_miliseconds:String = (milliseconds<10 ? "00" : (milliseconds<100 ? "0" : ""))+ String(milliseconds); var s_seconds:String = seconds < 10 ? "0" + String(seconds) : String(seconds); var s_minutes:String = minutes < 10 ? "0" + String(minutes) : String(minutes); var s_hours:String = hours < 10 ? "0" + String(hours) : String(hours); return s_hours + ":" + s_minutes + ":" + s_seconds + '.'+s_miliseconds; // returns 00:00:01.000.0009999999999763531 should return 00:00:01.001 // I still have problem with milliseconds } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <!-- Place non-visual elements (e.g., services, value objects) here --> </fx:Declarations> <s:TextInput x="240" y="72" id="inPut" text="1000.001"/> <s:TextInput x="240" y="140" id="outPut"/> <s:Button x="274" y="107" label="convert" id="convert" click="convert_clickHandler(event)"/> </s:Application>

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  • Is "Systems Designer" the job title that best describes what I do? [closed]

    - by ivo-rossi
    After having worked as Java developer for almost 3 years in the same company that I currently work at, I moved to a new position associated with the development of the same application. I’m in this new position for more than 1 year now. My official job title is Systems Designer, but I’m not sure this is a title that expresses well what I do. So my question here is what would be the most appropriate job title for me? I see this question as important for my career development. After all, I should be able to explain in one word what I do. And it’s no longer “Java Developer”. Well, in more than one word, this is what I do: The business analysts gather requirements / business problems to be solved with the clients and then discuss these requirements with me. Given the requirements, I design the high level solutions to be implemented in our system (e.g. a new screen on the client application, modifications to existing reports, extension to the XML export format of some objects, etc). I base my decision on the current capabilities of the system, the overall impact that the solutions would have on the system and the estimated effort to implement them (as I was a developer of this same application for almost 3 years before I moved to this position, I’m confident in my estimates). The solutions are discussed iteratively with the business analysts until we agree that they are good. The outcome of this analysis is what we call the “requirements design” document, which is written by me, shared with clients for approval and then also with the team that is going to implement the solutions and test them. Note that there are a few problems that I need to find a solution for that are non-functional. If the users are unhappy with the performance of a certain tool, I will investigate what can be done to speed it up. I will do some research – often based in the Java code itself - to identify possibilities of optimizations. But in this new position I no longer code, the main outcome of my work is really the “requirements design”. Is “Systems Designer” really the most appropriate job title?

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  • Browser detection Plugin?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I have a website that I made and I am planning to redo it. The current version of the site used a jquery callout plugin that did not fully work in IE6. This got me thinking about browser detection. At first I was just going to put the supported browsers on the home page but then today on Digg I saw some post about some jquery plugins and wordpress and in the article there was a plugin for detecting IE. So I started to look around for some browser detection plugins. I found a few of them but they where over the top like this one sevenup Its nice but it makes a huge popup and tells them to update. This one is better then another one I found where they basically forced the user to update or they could not continue on the site. So I found this one jquery plugin This one is pretty nice since it looks at the major browsers and does detection on them too expect for chrome which I noticed triggers and an outdated browser with this plugin. So I started to look at the jquery documentation to see if they had a browser detection for chrome this is when I saw that they "Deprecated" and now recommend "Support". So now I am just confused like "Support" seems to be good and I read many posts on this site saying you should use it. But then it does not support stuff like .png detection that might have been useful to me since of that plugin(however I probably will not be using the plugin anymore since I think the author just gave up on it). Plus I don't know if this is something I am looking for at this time. Like I am guessing with "Support" you use it to detect something that is not supported and then do some alternative thing for that browser? For me I am more looking for something to tell the user "Hey look I tested this browser in the these versions of Firefox(3.5+), IE(8+), Opera(9.5+),Chrome(Something), Safari(Something). If your not using these versions you may not being seeing the site how it was intended" Of course I would try to have something shorter then that message but that the gyst. I am also assuming that the site would work in future versions of these browsers. I still check to see if my site works(they usually do) and is half decent in IE 6 but I won't spend hours fixing stuff that might be off in older browsers like IE 6. I won't test my site in older version of other browsers like firefox since I would think the user have to the sense to update so no point testing firefox 2.0 or whatever. So is there a plugin that fits this description? Or can "Support" do what I want? Thanks

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  • Expand and overlap image over a grid of other images

    - by soren121
    I've been fighting with jQuery all night and getting quite frustrated here, so forgive me if the answer was staring me in the face. I have a grid of 15 images contained within a <div>, and when I click on one of them, I want it to expand to three times its original size of 150x105 and overlap the rest. I've got the expanding down, but the overlapping isn't quite working. My current HTML: <div id="image-grid"> <img src="images/after-pictures/1.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/2.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/3.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/4.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/5.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/6.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/7.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/8.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/9.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/10.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/11.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/12.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/13.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/14.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/15.jpg" class="igc5" /> </div> The igc* class denotes the column the image is in. CSS: #image-grid { border: 1px solid #aaa; width: 745px; padding: 5px 2px 2px 5px; } #image-grid img { width: 150px; height: 105px; margin: -2px; } jQuery: $('#image-grid img').click(function() { $(this).animate({ width: '450px', height: '315px', zIndex: '10' }, 200); });

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  • How to fine tune FluentNHibernate's auto mapper?

    - by Venemo
    Okay, so yesterday I managed to get the latest trunk builds of NHibernate and FluentNHibernate to work with my latest little project. (I'm working on a bug tracking application.) I created a nice data access layer using the Repository pattern. I decided that my entities are nothing special, and also that with the current maturity of ORMs, I don't want to hand-craft the database. So, I chose to use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature with NHibernate's "hbm2ddl.auto" property set to "create". It really works like a charm. I put the NHibernate configuration in my app domain's config file, set it up, and started playing with it. (For the time being, I created some unit tests only.) It created all tables in the database, and everything I need for it. It even mapped my many-to-many relationships correctly. However, there are a few small glitches: All of the columns created in the DB allow null. I understand that it can't predict which properties should allow null and which shouldn't, but at least I'd like to tell it that it should allow null only for those types for which null makes sense in .NET (eg. non-nullable value types shouldn't allow null). All of the nvarchar and varbinary columns it created, have a default length of 255. I would prefer to have them on max instead of that. Is there a way to tell the auto mapper about the two simple rules above? If the answer is no, will it work correctly if I modify the tables it created? (So, if I set some columns not to allow null, and change the allowed length for some other, will it correctly work with them?) EDIT: I managed to achieve the above by using Fluent NHibernate's convention API. Thanks to everyone who helped! However, there is one more thing: after checking out the convention API, I really would like my IDs to be calld "ID", not "Id", but it seems to me that the PrimaryKey.Name.Is(x => "ID") is not working at all. If I add it to the conventions collection and rewrite my entities' properties to "ID" instead of "Id", it throws an exception that there is no primary key mapped. Any thoughts on this?

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  • Normalizing Item Names & Synonyms

    - by RabidFire
    Consider an e-commerce application with multiple stores. Each store owner can edit the item catalog of his store. My current database schema is as follows: item_names: id | name | description | picture | common(BOOL) items: id | item_name_id | picture | price | description | picture item_synonyms: id | item_name_id | name | error(BOOL) Notes: error indicates a wrong spelling (eg. "Ericson"). description and picture of the item_names table are "globals" that can optionally be overridden by "local" description and picture fields of the items table (in case the store owner wants to supply a different picture for an item). common helps separate unique item names ("Jimmy Joe's Cheese Pizza" from "Cheese Pizza") I think the bright side of this schema is: Optimized searching & Handling Synonyms: I can query the item_names & item_synonyms tables using name LIKE %QUERY% and obtain the list of item_name_ids that need to be joined with the items table. (Examples of synonyms: "Sony Ericsson", "Sony Ericson", "X10", "X 10") Autocompletion: Again, a simple query to the item_names table. I can avoid the usage of DISTINCT and it minimizes number of variations ("Sony Ericsson Xperia™ X10", "Sony Ericsson - Xperia X10", "Xperia X10, Sony Ericsson") The down side would be: Overhead: When inserting an item, I query item_names to see if this name already exists. If not, I create a new entry. When deleting an item, I count the number of entries with the same name. If this is the only item with that name, I delete the entry from the item_names table (just to keep things clean; accounts for possible erroneous submissions). And updating is the combination of both. Weird Item Names: Store owners sometimes use sentences like "Harry Potter 1, 2 Books + CDs + Magic Hat". There's something off about having so much overhead to accommodate cases like this. This would perhaps be the prime reason I'm tempted to go for a schema like this: items: id | name | picture | price | description | picture (... with item_names and item_synonyms as utility tables that I could query) Is there a better schema you would suggested? Should item names be normalized for autocomplete? Is this probably what Facebook does for "School", "City" entries? Is the first schema or the second better/optimal for search? Thanks in advance! References: (1) Is normalizing a person's name going too far?, (2) Avoiding DISTINCT

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  • jQuery: form input values turns up undefined

    - by Seerumi
    Having problem with this bit of code qith jQuery. it should pick the values from current form and then submit them, but when I try to get them with jQuery they always turn up undefined. I know the SQL results are fine since they show correctly in HTML table, so it must be my inferior javascript skills. New with jQuery and I'm at loss :( PHP/HTML: echo "<table>\n" while ($row = odbc_fetch_array($query)) { echo "<form class='catForm'>\n"; echo "<input type=hidden class='catID' name='catID' value='".$row['running_id']."'/>\n"; echo "<tr>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['running_id']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['site_id']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['main_category']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['map_name']."</td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=textfield class='bCatID' value='".$row['mapping_id']."' size=6/></td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=submit class='saveCat' value='Save'/></td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=submit class='killCat' value='Delete' /></td>\n"; echo "</tr>\n"; echo "</form>\n"; } echo "</table>"; jQuery: $(".catForm").submit(function () { var id = $(this).find('.catID').val(); var bCatID = $(this).find('.bCatID').val(); var dataString = 'id='+id+'&bCatID='+bCatID; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'adminUI/bin/updateSCategories.php', dataType : 'json', data: dataString, success: function(data) { if (data.error == true) $('.failure').html("Error, save failed.").show().fadeOut(2000); if (data.error == false) $('.success').html("Saved succesfully").show().fadeOut(2000); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('.failure').html("Error, save failed.").show().fadeOut(2000); } }); return false; }); RESULT: id: undefined bCatID: undefined

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  • Alert on gridview edit based on permission

    - by Vicky
    I have a gridview with edit option at the start of the row. Also I maintain a seperate table called Permission where I maintain user permissions. I have three different types of permissions like Admin, Leads, Programmers. These all three will have access to the gridview. Except admin if anyone tries to edit the gridview on clicking the edit option, I need to give an alert like This row has important validation and make sure you make proper changes. When I edit, the action with happen on table called Application. The table has a column called Comments. Also the alert should happen only when they try to edit rows where the Comments column have these values in them. ManLog datas Funding Approved Exported Applications My try so far. public bool IsApplicationUser(string userName) { return CheckUser(userName); } public static bool CheckUser(string userName) { string CS = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString"].ToString(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(CS)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); command.Connection = connection; string strquery = "select * from Permissions where AppCode='Nest' and UserID = '" + userName + "'"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(strquery, connection); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); da.Fill(dt); } if (dt.Rows.Count >= 1) return true; else return true; } protected void Details_RowCommand(object sender, GridViewCommandEventArgs e) { string currentUser = HttpContext.Current.Request.LogonUserIdentity.Name; string str = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString"].ToString(); string[] words = currentUser.Split('\\'); currentUser = words[1]; bool appuser = IsApplicationUser(currentUser); if (appuser) { DataSet ds = new DataSet(); using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(str)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); command.Connection = connection; string strquery = "select Role_Cd from User_Role where AppCode='PM' and UserID = '" + currentUser + "'"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(strquery, connection); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); da.Fill(ds); } if (e.CommandName.Equals("Edit") && ds.Tables[0].Rows[0]["Role_Cd"].ToString().Trim() != "ADMIN") { int index = Convert.ToInt32(e.CommandArgument); GridView gvCurrentGrid = (GridView)sender; GridViewRow row = gvCurrentGrid.Rows[index]; string strID = ((Label)row.FindControl("lblID")).Text; string strAppName = ((Label)row.FindControl("lblAppName")).Text; Response.Redirect("AddApplication.aspx?ID=" + strID + "&AppName=" + strAppName + "&Edit=True"); } } } Kindly let me know if I need to add something. Thanks for any suggestions.

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  • Updating DetailViewController from RootController

    - by Stefano Salmaso
    I'm trying to create an iPad application with a similar user interface to Apple's Mail application, i.e: RootView controller (table view) on the left hand side of the split view for navigation with a multiple view hierarchy. When a table cell is selected a new table view is pushed on the left hand side The new view on the left side can update the detail view. I can accomplish both tasks BUT NOT TOGETHER. I mean I can make a multi-level table view in the RootController.(HERE you can find the working source code). Or I can make a single-level table view in the RootController which can update the detailViewController (here there is the source code:http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D6L0463G). Can anyone tell me how to make a multi-level table in the RootController which can update a detailViewController? There is more source code at the link but below is the method in which I presume I have to declare a new detailViewController (which has to be put in the UISplitViewController): - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)TableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSDictionary *dictionary = [self.tableDataSource objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Get the children of the present item. NSArray *Children = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Children"]; // if([Children count] == 0) { /* Create and configure a new detail view controller appropriate for the selection. */ NSUInteger row = indexPath.row; UIViewController <SubstitutableDetailViewController> *detailViewController = nil; if (row == 0) { FirstDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[FirstDetailViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"FirstDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } if (row == 1) { SecondDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[SecondDetailViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"SecondDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } // Update the split view controller's view controllers array. NSArray *viewControllers = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:self.navigationController, detailViewController, nil]; splitViewController.viewControllers = viewControllers//nothing happens..... [viewControllers release];// } else { //Prepare to tableview. RootViewController *rvController = [[RootViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"RootViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; //Increment the Current View rvController.current_level += 1; //Set the title; rvController.current_title = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Title"]; //Push the new table view on the stack [self.navigationController pushViewController:rvController animated:YES]; rvController.tableDataSource = Children; [rvController.tableView reloadData]; //without this instrucion,items won't be loaded inside the second level of the table [rvController release]; } }

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  • Python/Biomolecular Physics- Trying to code a simple stochastic simulation of a system exhibiting co

    - by user359597
    *edited 6/17/10 I'm trying to understand how to improve my code (make it more pythonic). Also, I'm interested in writing more intuitive 'conditionals' that would describe scenarios that are commonplace in biochemistry. The conditional criteria in the below program is explained in Answer #2, but I am not satisfied with it- it is correct, but isn't obvious and isn't easy to implement for more complicated conditional scenarios. Ideas welcome. Comments/criticisms welcome. First posting experience @ stackoverflow- please comment on etiquette if needed. The code generates a list of values that are the solution to the following exercise: "In a programming language of your choice, implement Gillespie’s First Reaction Algorithm to study the temporal behaviour of the reaction A---B in which the transition from A to B can only take place if another compound, C, is present, and where C dynamically interconverts with D, as modelled in the Petri-net below. Assume that there are 100 molecules of A, 1 of C, and no B or D present at the start of the reaction. Set kAB to 0.1 s-1 and both kCD and kDC to 1.0 s-1. Simulate the behaviour of the system over 100 s." def sim(): # Set the rate constants for all transitions kAB = 0.1 kCD = 1.0 kDC = 1.0 # Set up the initial state A = 100 B = 0 C = 1 D = 0 # Set the start and end times t = 0.0 tEnd = 100.0 print "Time\t", "Transition\t", "A\t", "B\t", "C\t", "D" # Compute the first interval transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) # Loop until the end time is exceded or no transition can fire any more while t <= tEnd and transition >= 0: print t, '\t', transition, '\t', A, '\t', B, '\t', C, '\t', D t += interval if transition == 0: A -= 1 B += 1 if transition == 1: C -= 1 D += 1 if transition == 2: C += 1 D -= 1 transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) def transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC): """ Returns nTransition, the number of the firing transition (0: A->B, 1: C->D, 2: D->C), and interval, the interval between the time of the previous transition and that of the current one. """ RAB = kAB * A * C RCD = kCD * C RDC = kDC * D dt = [-1.0, -1.0, -1.0] if RAB > 0.0: dt[0] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RAB if RCD > 0.0: dt[1] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RCD if RDC > 0.0: dt[2] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RDC interval = 1e36 transition = -1 for n in range(len(dt)): if dt[n] > 0.0 and dt[n] < interval: interval = dt[n] transition = n return transition, interval if __name__ == '__main__': sim()

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  • How can I map a spring controller to a url with .jsp extension?

    - by Matteo Caprari
    Hi. We are in the process of migrating a jsp-only application to Spring-MVC. For various reasons we can't change the extension of the current pages. (calls to login.jsp need to handled by a spring controller that will use a jsp file as view). We are doing this iteratively, so some pages need to stay jsp files (calls to welcome.jsp won't be handled by a controller). To do that I mapped both the DispatcherDervlet and the HandlerMapping to *.jsp, and configured the JstlView in the standard way. Unfortunately, if I browse to //login.jsp I get an error saying <No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/<context>/WEB-INF/jsp/login.jsp] in DispatcherServlet with name 'spring'> It all works if I change .jsp to any other extension in DispatcherServlet and HandlerMapping. web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>*.jsp</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> spring-servlet.xml: <!-- View resolver --> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.UrlBasedViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"/> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/"/> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"/> </bean> <!-- URL Mapping --> <bean id="publicUrlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="urlMap"> <map> <entry key="/login.jsp" value-ref="loginController"/> </map> </property> </bean> Thanks a lot.

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  • Rails has-and-belongs-to-many form question

    - by swilliams
    Sorry for the semi-generic title, but I'm still pretty new at rails and couldn't think of a succinct way to put the question. I have a basic habtm model setup: a Project has many Resources and a Resource can have many Projects. I have the database and models setup properly, and can do everything I need to via the console, but I'm having trouble translating it all into the view. On the show view for the Project, I want to be able to create a Resource and automatically assign it to the current Project. Here's my basic html: <p> <b>Name:</b> <%=h @project.name %> </p> <h2>Equipment</h2> <ul> <% @project.resources.each do |r| %> <li><%=h r.name %></li> <% end %> </ul> <h2>Add A Resource</h2> <% form_for(@project) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> Resource Name:<br /> <%= f.text_field :resources %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> Obviously, that form won't work, but I'm at a loss for what to do next. I've searched around for various examples, but haven't found one for what I'm trying to do here. One thing I've thought of was to change the form to be form_for(Resource.new) and include a hidden input of the @project.id. And then when the resource_controller handles the form, check for that id and go from there. That seems like an ugly kludge though.

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