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  • Excel VBA: Error Handling with Case Statement

    - by AME
    I am trying to validate a file that is uploaded by the user using the code below. The error handler checks the top row of the uploaded file for three specific column names. If one or more of the column names is not present, the program should return a prompt to the user notifying them which column(s) are missing from the file that they uploaded and then close the file. There are a couple issues with my current VBA code that I am seeking help with: The prompt doesn't specify which column(s) are missing to the user. The error handler is triggered even when all required columns are present in the uploaded file. Code: Sub getworkbook() ' Get workbook... Dim ws As Worksheet Dim filter As String Dim targetWorkbook As Workbook, wb As Workbook Dim Ret As Variant Set targetWorkbook = Application.ActiveWorkbook ' get the customer workbook filter = ".xlsx,.xls" caption = "Please select an input file " Ret = Application.GetOpenFilename(filter, , caption) If Ret = False Then Exit Sub Set wb = Workbooks.Open(Ret) On Error GoTo ErrorLine: 'Check for columns var1 = ActiveSheet.Range("1:1").Find("variable1", LookIn:=xlValues, LookAt:=xlWhole, MatchCase:=True).Column var2 = ActiveSheet.Range("1:1").Find("variable2", LookIn:=xlValues, LookAt:=xlWhole, MatchCase:=True).Column var3 = ActiveSheet.Range("1:1").Find("variable3", LookIn:=xlValues, LookAt:=xlWhole, MatchCase:=True).Column ErrorLine: MsgBox ("The selected file is missing a key data column, please upload a correctly formated file.") If Error = True Then ActiveWorkSheet.Close wb.Sheets(1).Move Before:=targetWorkbook.Sheets("Worksheet2") ActiveSheet.Name = "DATA" End Sub

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  • Is there a Visual Studio (or freeware) equivalent for Expression Blend's "Edit Template" feature?

    - by DanM
    In Expression Blend, you can view and edit the control template of objects in the "Objects and Timeline" panel. I'm wondering if there's an equivalent feature in Visual Studio or if there's something free (or very inexpensive) I can download that will allow me to do this. Here's a screen cap from Expression Blend that shows what I'm talking about: Doing this for DataGrid results in the following: <Style x:Key="DataGridStyle1" TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsGrouping" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll" Value="False"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> (The ... is of course replaced with setters and the contents of the control template.) This is a very useful starting point if you want to create a custom style and template for a control. It seems like you can do pretty much anything you can do in Blend in Studio, but this one is eluding me. Any ideas? Edit I'm also curious if this feature will be in Visual Studio 2010. Anyone know?

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  • How to Check Authenticity of an AJAX Request

    - by Alex Reisner
    I am designing a web site in which users solve puzzles as quickly as they can. JavaScript is used to time each puzzle, and the number of milliseconds is sent to the server via AJAX when the puzzle is completed. How can I ensure that the time received by the server was not forged by the user? I don't think a session-based authenticity token (the kind used for forms in Rails) is sufficient because I need to authenticate the source of a value, not just the legitimacy of the request. Is there a way to cryptographically sign the request? I can't think of anything that couldn't be duplicated by a hacker. Is any JavaScript, by its exposed, client-side nature, subject to tampering? Am I going to have to use something that gets compiled, like Flash? (Yikes.) Or is there some way to hide a secret key? Or something else I haven't thought of? Update: To clarify, I don't want to penalize people with slow network connections (and network speed should be considered inconsistent), so the timing needs to be 100% client-side (the timer starts only when we know the user can see the puzzle). Also, there is money involved so no amount of "trusting the user" is acceptable.

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  • How can I serialize functions using JSON or some other serialization library?

    - by Oragamster
    I am trying to create a program that uses javascript to write a simple textadventure that I can then post on my blog and run on my iphone. I have run into a problem though. I was trying to make it so that my program would save it's state into cookies using JSON to convert it into strings and then post it into a cookie but then I realised that I couldn't serialize the functions that are on my item object. I was trying to make it so that my item would have an associative array that would contain the name of the use as the key and the function as the value. This worked well untill I tried to serialize it. I learned that I could create a JSON like serialization for functions by storing the body into a string and using escape charectors for the double quotes but for some reason I was unable to make my cookie with the function as the string stored. When I posted the cookie and then tried to get it back the string wasn't there. My code and the over all project are on my site if you want to look at that, though my full code including the item actions are not posted yet.

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  • Basic user authentication with records in AngularFire

    - by ajkochanowicz
    Having spent literally days trying the different, various recommended ways to do this, I've landed on what I think is the most simple and promising. Also thanks to the kind gents from this SO question: Get the index ID of an item in Firebase AngularFire Curent setup Users can log in with email and social networks, so when they create a record, it saves the userId as a sort of foreign key. Good so far. But I want to create a rule so twitter2934392 cannot read facebook63203497's records. Off to the security panel Match the IDs on the backend Unfortunately, the docs are inconsistent with the method from is firebase user id unique per provider (facebook, twitter, password) which suggest appending the social network to the ID. The docs expect you to create a different rule for each of the login method's ids. Why anyone using 1 login method would want to do that is beyond me. (From: https://www.firebase.com/docs/security/rule-expressions/auth.html) So I'll try to match the concatenated auth.provider with auth.id to the record in userId for the respective registry item. According to the API, this should be as easy as In my case using $registry instead of $user of course. { "rules": { ".read": true, ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "$registry == auth.id" } } } } But that won't work, because (see the first image above), AngularFire sets each record under an index value. In the image above, it's 0. Here's where things get complicated. Also, I can't test anything in the simulator, as I cannot edit {some: 'json'} To even authenticate. The input box rejects any input. My best guess is the following. { "rules": { ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "data.child('userId').val() == (auth.provider + auth.id)" } } } } Which both throws authentication errors and simultaneously grants full read access to all users. I'm losing my mind. What am I supposed to do here?

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  • Another php array looping question

    - by Dan
    Been battling with this one for what seems, like forever. I have an array: $url_array It contains this info: Array ( [ppp] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 46660 [entity_id] => 0 [redirect_url] => http://www.google.com [type] => Image ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 52662 [entity_id] => 0 [pixel_redirect_url] => http://www.yahoo.com [type] => Image ) [2] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 53877 [entity_id] => 0 [redirect_url] => http://www.msn.com [pixel_type] => Image ) ) [total_count] => 3 ) I need to loop through it, and do things to each variable. I can get this to work: foreach ($piggies_array as $key => $value) { $id = $value[0]->id; $redirect_url = $value[0]->redirect_url; } Not unsurprisingly, it's only echoing the first value of those variables, but no matter what I try I cannot get it to loop through: $value->redirect_url; $value=>redirect_url; I would appreciate any help.

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  • Linq to Entities Joins

    - by Bob Avallone
    I have a question about joins when using Linq to Entities. According to the documentation the use on the join without a qualifier performs like a left outer join. However when I execute the code below, I get a count returned of zero. But if I comment out the three join lines I get a count of 1. That would indicate that the join are acting as inner join. I have two questions. One which is right inner or outer as the default? Second how do I do the other one i.e. inner or outer? The key words on inner and outer do not work. var nprs = (from n in db.FMCSA_NPR join u in db.FMCSA_USER on n.CREATED_BY equals u.ID join t in db.LKUP_NPR_TYPE on n.NPR_TYPE_ID equals t.ID join s in db.LKUP_AUDIT_STATUS on n.NPR_STATUS_ID equals s.ID where n.ROLE_ID == pRoleId && n.OWNER_ID == pOwnerId && n.NPR_STATUS_ID == pNPRStatusId && n.ACTIVE == pActive select n).ToList(); if (nprs.Count() == 0) return null;

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  • multiple-to-one relationship mysql, submissions

    - by Yulia
    Hello, I have the following problem. Basically I have a form with an option to submit up to 3 images. Right now, after each submission it creates 3 records for album table and 3 records for images. I need it to be one record for album and 3 for images, plus to link images to the album. I hope it all makes sense... Here is my structure. TABLE `albums` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `title` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `fullname` varchar(40) NOT NULL, `email` varchar(100) NOT NULL, `created_at` datetime NOT NULL, `theme_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `description` int(11) NOT NULL, `vote_cache` int(11) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=20 ; TABLE `images` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `album_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `name` varchar(30) NOT NULL, and my code function create_album($params) { db_connect(); $query = sprintf("INSERT INTO albums set albums.title = '%s', albums.email = '%s', albums.discuss_url = '%s', albums.theme_id = '%s', albums.fullname = '%s', albums.description = '%s', created_at = NOW()", mysql_real_escape_string($params['title']), mysql_real_escape_string($params['email']), mysql_real_escape_string($params['theme_id']), mysql_real_escape_string($params['fullname']), mysql_real_escape_string($params['description']) ); $result = mysql_query($query); if(!$result) { return false; } $album_id = mysql_insert_id(); return $album_id; } if(!is_uploaded_file($_FILES['userfile']['tmp_name'][$i])) { $warning = 'No file uploaded'; } elseif is_valid_file_size($_FILES['userfile']['size'][$i])) { $_POST['album']['theme_id'] = $theme['id']; create_album($_POST['album']); mysql_query("INSERT INTO images(name) VALUES('$newName')"); copy($_FILES['userfile']['tmp_name'][$i], './photos/'.$original_dir.'/' .$newName.'.jpg');

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  • Modeling Buyers & Sellers in a Rails Ecommerce App

    - by MikeH
    I'm building a Rails app that has Etsy.com style functionality. In other words, it's like a mall. There are many buyers and many sellers. I'm torn about how to model the sellers. Key facts: There won't be many sellers. Perhaps less than 20 sellers in total. There will be many buyers. Hopefully many thousands :) I already have a standard user model in place with account creation and roles. I've created a 'role' of 'seller', which the admin will manually apply to the proper users. Since we'll have very few sellers, this is not an issue. I'm considering two approaches: (1) Create a 'store' model, which will contain all the relevant store information. Products would :belong_to :store, rather than belonging to the seller. The relationship between the user and store models would be: user :has_one store. My main problem with this is that I've always found has_one associations to be a little funky, and I usually try to avoid them. The app is fairly complex, and I'm worried about running into a cascade of problems connected to the has_one association as I get further along into development. (2) Simply include the relevant 'store' information as part of the user model. But in this case, the store-related db columns would only apply to a very small percentage of users since very few users will also be sellers. I'm not sure if this is a valid concern or not. It's very possible that I'm thinking about this incorrectly. I appreciate any thoughts. Thanks.

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  • Mapping element via joining table with NHibernate

    - by NhibernateIdiot
    This is stuff ive done lots of times before but my mind is just blanking at the moment, i will try and give a simple overview of my current situation. I currently have 3 tables as shown below: Office > id, name Person > id, name Office_Personnel > office_id, person_id I then have a model for Person (id, name) and Office, however the Office model contains personnel information: public class Office { int Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} ICollection<Person> Personnel {get;set;} } Mapping person is easy, but now im a bit stumped as to why office wont map properly. I chose to use a set when I was mapping the Personnel as there shouldn't be any duplicates, however it doesn't seem to work as I would expect... <set name="Personnel" table="office_personnel" cascade="all"> <key column="office_id" /> <one-to-many class="Person"/> </set> Now one thing that strikes me as odd is that there is no indication as to what person should be binding to (person_id). It keeps trying to find *office_id* column within the Person table. I'm sure this is just some simple problem and im being an idiot, but any help would be great! On a side note, I was weighing up if I should even bother having a middle man table, as I could directly put an Office_Id column within the Person table, but im not 100% sure if in my real project the Person class could be in multiple Offices further down the line...

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  • Error with zoomStartTime and AnnotatedTimeLine

    - by user973025
    I'm a bit of a beginner with Javascript, but last month I had a working Google chart linked to a Google Docs file, which uses a start date for the graph at 90 days before the current date. I checked the page today and in Chrome I get the message "Object # has no method 'getTime'", and in Firefox I get the message "b.zoomStartTime[y] is not a function". Both stop the graph from loading. I have simplified the code to help me with the error, but I'm not getting anywhere... Here's the code: <script type="text/javascript"> var oldDate = new Date(); oldDate.setDate(oldDate.getDate() - 90); </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/static/modules/gviz/1.0/chart.js"> { "dataSourceUrl": "//docs.google.com/spreadsheet/tq?key=0AkQH6d2CUv_qdDhwd3gtZzdTVFlNX3AwX2xUSUVuclE&transpose=0&headers=-1&range=A1%3AB2436&gid=0&pub=1", "options": { "zoomStartTime": oldDate, "width": 650, "height": 371 }, "chartType": "AnnotatedTimeLine", } </script> Any ideas would be hugely appreciated. David.

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  • WPF binding comboboxes to parent- child model

    - by PaulB
    I've got a model with a few tiers in it - something along the lines of ... Company Employees Phone numbers So I've got a ListBox showing all the companys in the model. Each ListBoxItem then contains two comboboxes ... one for employees, one for phone numbers. I can successfully get the employee combo to bind correctly and show the right people, but I'd like the phone combo to show the numbers for the selected employee. I'm just setting the DataContext of the ListBox to the model above and using the following data template for each item <DataTemplate x:Key="CompanyBody"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label Content="{Binding Path=CompanyName}"></Label> <ComboBox Name="EmployeesCombo" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Company.Employees}"></ComboBox> <!-- What goes here --> <ComboBox DataContext="???" ItemsSource="??" ></ComboBox> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> I've tried (naively) <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Company.Employees.PhoneNumbers}" ></ComboBox> and <ComboBox DataContext="EmployeesCombo.SelectedValue" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=PhoneNumbers}" ></ComboBox> and all other manner of combinations ...

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  • Custom progress bar label text via binding

    - by Alexander K
    I was playing with progress bar customization in Silverlight application. What I want to reach is to have progress bar label to show current its state in the following format: "Value / Maximum". So, user will see what is the current value, and what is the maximum possible value. Here is a style for progress bar I use: <Style x:Key="ProgressBarStyle" TargetType="ProgressBar"> <Setter Property="Width" Value="97.21" /> <Setter Property="Height" Value="19" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ProgressBar"> <Canvas x:Name="LevelField" Width="99" Height="21"> ... <TextBlock ... DataContext="{TemplateBinding Value}" Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource DecNumberToStringConverter}}"/> </Canvas> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> The way I want to implement this, is to have a value converter, that will convert current value and maximum possible into the proper string. It does work properly, if it is written like above. However, I also need to provide ConverterParameter for Convertor, but not sure how to make it. When I write like this: , ConvertParameter={Binding Maximum}, it shows error on start, that Text attribute is not found in TextBlock. I was also trying to set DataContext as {RelativeSource Self}, but then it didn't displays error that DataContext attribute is not found. How to make the described progress bar label properly?

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  • Setting iphone to vibrate and setting iphone back to sound via app.

    - by Cadu
    Folks, I need your knowledge here. Think about the following sittuation - my app need to set my iphone to vibrate mode on a certain time and get it back to playing sounds mode (for call receiving, sms, email, all common sound notifications) some minutes later. I've already googled that, and didn't find a good, apple accetable way of doing that: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/736047/possible-to-programmatically-open-settings-app-from-iphone http://stackoverflow.com/questions/702319/is-it-possible-to-dynamically-alter-an-iphone-apps-settings-page-in-the-settings http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1141391/display-iphone-application-settings-within-your-application http://stackoverflow.com/questions/335965/how-do-i-launch-my-settings-bundle-from-my-application [This one here is interesting, as fas I as find a way to know what is the key for the settings I'm interested in] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/335965/how-do-i-launch-my-settings-bundle-from-my-application [It mentions I can do that, but does not give an idea of how =(] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/702319/is-it-possible-to-dynamically-alter-an-iphone-apps-settings-page-in-the-settings [If this is true, I wouldn't be able to do what I want...] Does anyone there has an idea of how do I do that via app? Many thanks in advance.

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  • Ruby on Rails How do I access variables of a model inside itself like in this example?

    - by banditKing
    I have a Model like so: # == Schema Information # # Table name: s3_files # # id :integer not null, primary key # owner :string(255) # notes :text # created_at :datetime not null # updated_at :datetime not null # last_accessed_by_user :string(255) # last_accessed_time_stamp :datetime # upload_file_name :string(255) # upload_content_type :string(255) # upload_file_size :integer # upload_updated_at :datetime # class S3File < ActiveRecord::Base #PaperClip methods attr_accessible :upload attr_accessor :owner Paperclip.interpolates :prefix do |attachment, style| I WOULD LIKE TO ACCESS VARIABLE= owner HERE- HOW TO DO THAT? end has_attached_file( :upload, :path => ":prefix/:basename.:extension", :storage => :s3, :s3_credentials => {:access_key_id => "ZXXX", :secret_access_key => "XXX"}, :bucket => "XXX" ) #Used to connect to users through the join table has_many :user_resource_relationships has_many :users, :through => :user_resource_relationships end Im setting this variable in the controller like so: # POST /s3_files # POST /s3_files.json def create @s3_file = S3File.new(params[:s3_file]) @s3_file.owner = current_user.email respond_to do |format| if @s3_file.save format.html { redirect_to @s3_file, notice: 'S3 file was successfully created.' } format.json { render json: @s3_file, status: :created, location: @s3_file } else format.html { render action: "new" } format.json { render json: @s3_file.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end Thanks, any help would be appreciated.

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  • Formating a date field in the Model (Codeigniter)

    - by Landitus
    Hi, I', trying to re-format a date from a table in Codeigniter. The Controller is for a blog. I was succesfull when the date conversion happens in the View. I was hoping to convert the date in the Model to have things in order. This is the Model: class Novedades_model extends Model { function getAll() { $this->db->order_by('date','desc'); $query = $this->db->get('novedades'); if($query->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($query->result() as $row) { $data[] = $row; } } return $data; } } This is part of the controller $this->load->model('novedades_model'); $data['records'] = $this->novedades_model->getAll(); Here's the date conversion as it happens in the View. This is inside the posts loop: <?php foreach($records as $row) : ?> <?php $fdate = "%d <abbr>%M</abbr> %Y"; $dateConv = mdate($fdate, mysql_to_unix($row->date)); ?> <div class="article section"> <span class="date"><?php echo $dateConv ;?></span> ... Keeps going ... How can I convert the date in the Model? Can I access the date key and refactor it?

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  • How to provide warnings during validation in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Alex
    Sometimes user input is not strictly invalid but can be considered problematic. For example: A user enters a long sentence in a single-line Name field. He probably should have used the Description field instead. A user enters a Name that is very similar to that of an existing entity. Perhaps he's inputting the same entity but didn't realize it already exists, or some concurrent user has just entered it. Some of these can easily be checked client-side, some require server-side checks. What's the best way, perhaps something similar to DataAnnotations validation, to provide warnings to the user in such cases? The key here is that the user has to be able to override the warning and still submit the form (or re-submit the form, depending on the implementation). The most viable solution that comes to mind is to create some attribute, similar to a CustomValidationAttribute, that may make an AJAX call and would display some warning text but doesn't affect the ModelState. The intended usage is this: [WarningOnFieldLength(MaxLength = 150)] [WarningOnPossibleDuplicate()] public string Name { get; set; } In the view: @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Name) @Html.WarningMessageFor(model => model.Name) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Name) So, any ideas?

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  • Android Google cloud messaging - not certain what parameters I should put when creating the push notification

    - by Genadinik
    I am working on a php script to send the notification to the CGM server and I am working from this example: public function send_notification($registatoin_ids, $message) { // include config include_once './config.php'; // Set POST variables $url = 'https://android.googleapis.com/gcm/send'; $fields = array( 'registration_ids' => $registatoin_ids, 'data' => $message, ); $headers = array( 'Authorization: key=' . GOOGLE_API_KEY, 'Content-Type: application/json' ); // Open connection $ch = curl_init(); // Set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); // Disabling SSL Certificate support temporarly curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, json_encode($fields)); // Execute post $result = curl_exec($ch); if ($result === FALSE) { die('Curl failed: ' . curl_error($ch)); } // Close connection curl_close($ch); echo $result; } But I am not certain what the values should be for the variables: CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS , CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER , CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER , CURLOPT_HOST , CURLOPT_URL Would anyone happen to know what the values for these should be? Thank you!

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  • How do I cast from int to generic type Integer?

    - by Rob Kent
    I'm relatively new to Java and am used to generics in C# so have struggled a bit with this code. Basically I want a generic method for getting a stored Android preference by key and this code, albeit ugly, works for a Boolean but not an Integer, when it blows up with a ClassCastException. Can anyone tell me why this is wrong and maybe help me improve the whole routine (using wildcards?)? public static <T> T getPreference(Class<T> argType, String prefKey, T defaultValue, SharedPreferences sharedPreferences) { ... try { if (argType == Boolean.class) { Boolean def = (Boolean) defaultValue; return argType.cast(sharedPreferences.getBoolean(prefKey, def)); } else if (argType == Integer.class) { Integer def = (Integer) defaultValue; return argType.cast(sharedPreferences.getInt(prefKey, def)); } else { AppGlobal.logWarning("getPreference: Unknown type '%s' for preference '%s'. Returning default value.", argType.getName(), prefKey); return defaultValue; } } catch (ClassCastException e) { AppGlobal.logError("Cast exception when reading pref %s. Using default value.", prefKey); return defaultValue; } } I've tried various ways - using the native int, casting to an Integer, but nothing works.

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  • Should core application configuration be stored in the database, and if so what should be done to se

    - by Rl
    I'm writing an application around a lot of hierarchical data. Currently the hierarchy is fixed, but it's likely that new items will be added to the hierarchy in the future. (please let them be leaves) My current application and database design is fairly generic and nothing dealing with specific nodes in the hierarchy is hardcoded, with the exception of validation and lookup functions written to retrieve external data from each node's particular database. This pleases me from a design point of view, but I'm nervous at the realization that the entire application rests on a handful of records in the database. I'm also frustrated that I have to enforce certain aspects of data integrity with database triggers rather than by foreign key constraints (an example is where several different nodes in the hierarchy have their own proprietary IDs and I store them in a single column which, when coupled with the node ID can be used to locate the foreign data). I'm starting to wonder whether it may have been appropriate to simply hardcoded these known nodes into the system so that it would be more "type safe" and less generic. How does one know when something should be hardcoded, and when it should be a configuration item? Is it just a cost-benefit analysis of clarity/safety now vs less work later, or am I missing some metric I should be using to determine whether or not this is appropriate. The steps I'm taking to protect these valuable configurations are to add triggers that prevent updates/deletes. The database user that this application uses will only have the ability to manipulate data through stored procedures. What else can I do?

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  • CPU overheating because of Delphi IDE

    - by Altar
    I am using Delphi 7 but I have trialed the Delphi 2005 - 2010 versions. In all these new versions my CPU utilization is 50% (one core is 100%, the other is "relaxed") when Delphi IDE is visible on screen. It doesn't happen when the IDE is minimized. My computer is overheating because of this. Any hints why this happens? It looks like if I want to upgrade to Delphi 2010, I need to upgrade my cooling system first. And I am a bit lazy about that, especially that I want to discahrge my computer and buy a new one (in the next 6 months) - probably I will have to buy a Win 7 license too. Edit: My CPU is AMD Dual Core 4600+. 4GB RAM Overheating means that temperature of the HDDs is raising because the CPU. Edit: Comming to a possible solution I just deleted all HKCU/CodeGear key and let started Delphi as "new". Guess what? The CPU utilization is 0%. I will investigate more.

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  • Checking if user owns file before deleting it

    - by Martin Hoe
    I'm building an API for my site that allows users to delete the files they upload. Obviously, I want to check if the user owns that file before they delete it through the API. I have a files table and a users table, here's the schema: f_id, s_id, u_id, name, size, uploaded u_id, username, password, email, activated, activation_code u_id is a foreign key. The u_id field in the files table points to the u_id in the users table. Given the users username, I want to find the users u_id, and then check if they own the file through the file ID (f_id). I wrote this SQL: $sql = 'SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f_id = ? AND u.u_id = ? LIMIT 1'; I'm assuming that'd work if I was given the users u_id in the API request, but alas I'm given only their username. How can I modify that SQL to find their user ID and use that? Thanks. Edit: Alright I've got this query but it's always returning an empty result set even though both the file ID and username exist. SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f.f_id = ? AND u.username = ? LIMIT 1

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  • What's the best practice for make username check like Twitter ?

    - by Space Cracker
    I develop registration form and it have username field, and it's required to be like twitter username check ( real time check ) .. i already develop as in every textbox key up I use jquery to pass textbox.Text to page that return if is username exist or not as following code : function Check() { var userName = $('#<%= TextBox1.ClientID %>').val(); if (userName.length < 3) { $('#checkUserNameDIV').html("user name must be between 3 and 20"); return; } $('#checkUserNameDIV').html('<img src="loader.gif" />'); //setTimeout("CheckExistance('" + userName + "')", 5000); CheckExistance(userName); } function CheckExistance(userName) { $.get( "JQueryPage.aspx", { name: userName }, function(result) { var msg = ""; if (result == "1") msg = "Not Exist " + '<img src="unOK.gif" />'; else if (result == "0") msg = "Exist" ; else if (result == "error") msg = "Error , try again"; $('#checkUserNameDIV').html(msg); } ); } but i don't know if is it the best way to do that ? specially i do check every keyup .. is there any design pattern for this problem or nay good practice for doing that ?

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  • Get control in code from ControlTemplate By Name

    - by Polaris
    Hello. I have next control template in my WPF app. <Style TargetType="Label" x:Key="LabelStyle"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="Label"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="40"/> <ColumnDefinition/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBox x:Name="MyTextBlock" Text="{TemplateBinding Content}" Height="20" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" /> <Label Content="{TemplateBinding Content}" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> TextBox "MyTextBlock" is invisible in C# code of window. How can I access to this textblock in code

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  • Deserialization of a DataSet... deal with column name changes? how to migrate data from one column to another?

    - by Brian Kennedy
    So, we wanted to slightly generalize a couple columns in our typed dataset... basically dropped a foreign key constraint and then wanted to change a couple column names to better reflect their new state. All that is easy. The problem is that our users may have serialized out the old version of the DataSet as XML. We want to be able to read those old XML files and deserialize them into the revised DataSet. It seems that would be a fairly common desire... but I haven't yet figured out the right thing to search the internet for. One possible solution would seem to be some way to give a DataColumn an alias or alternate name such that when it reads the old column name, it knows that data can be read into the column with the new column name. I can find no support for any such thing. Another approach would seem to be an "after deserialization" method of some sort... so, I would let it read in the old column values into a normal DataColumn with that name, and then in the "after deserialization" method I would just move the data from the obsolete column into the new column, and then delete the old columns. That would seem to generalize to many other situations... and having such events or hooks is pretty common in ADO.NET. But I have looked for such a hook and haven't yet found it. If no "after deserialization" hook, it would seem I ought to be able to override ReadXml or ReadXmlSerializable methods to call the base and then do my "after" stuff to fix up old data into new. But it does not appear that is possible. Soooo, I have to think backward compatibility with old serialized DataSets and simple data migration would be a well-solved problem... so, trying to reinvent that wheel seems silly. But so far, I haven't seemed to find any documentation on doing those things. Suggestions? What is best practice for this?

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