Search Results

Search found 18542 results on 742 pages for 'nhibernate query'.

Page 689/742 | < Previous Page | 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696  | Next Page >

  • how to redirect user depending on user type at time of login (codeignitor)

    - by Anam Tahir
    im facing problem while redirecting my user according to its type. how can do it here's my code plz suggest how to do it. <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); class VerifyLogin extends CI_Controller { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } function index() { $this->load->model('user','',TRUE); //This method will have the credentials validation $this->load->library('form_validation'); $this->load->library('session'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('username', 'Username','trim|required|xss_clean'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('password', 'Password' 'trim|required|xss_clean|callback_check_database'); if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { //Field validation failed.&nbsp; User redirected to login page validation_errors(); $this->load->view('error'); } else { //Go to private area basically here i want to redirect if user is admin then redirect to admin page else redirect to home how can i do this ??? redirect('home', 'refresh'); } } function check_database($password) { //Field validation succeeded.&nbsp; Validate against database $username = $this->input->post('username'); //query the database $result = $this->user->login($username, $password); if($result) { $sess_array = array(); foreach($result as $row) { $sess_array = array( 'id' => $row->id, 'username' => $row->username ); $this->session->set_userdata('logged_in', $sess_array); } return TRUE; } else { $this->form_validation->set_message('check_database', 'Invalid username or password'); return false; } } } ?>

    Read the article

  • Multiple marker icons, how to add to google mashup

    - by user351189
    I have created a Google maps mashup, where with a bit of input, I have managed to have a sidebar that links to a video icon/marker that then opens up an info window showing virtual tours. I would, however, like to put different coloured marker icons on the map depending on the category that the video is in. This would be easy enough to do, but my page is made up of a mixture of J-Query and JavaScript all calling to the individual flash files. Could someone help me with the code for adding extra marker icons for different categories? Here is the code: So, after the intial 'var camera;' point, there comes this: function addMarker(point, title, video, details) { var marker = new GMarker(point, {title: title, icon:camera}); GEvent.addListener(marker, "click", function() { if (details) { marker.openInfoWindowTabsHtml([new GInfoWindowTab("Video", video), new GInfoWindowTab("More", details)]); } else { marker.openInfoWindowHtml(video); } }); Then further down, is the code for calling the individual marker image. I would like to add another image to this list - would I start out by calling the new object 'camera-red.image' or something similar? function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("mapDiv")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(51.52484592590448, -0.13345599174499512), 17); map.setUIToDefault(); var uclvtSatMapType = createUclVTSatMapType() map.addMapType(uclvtSatMapType); map.setMapType(uclvtSatMapType); camera = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); camera.image = "ucl-video.png"; camera.iconSize = new GSize(32,37); camera.iconAnchor = new GPoint(16,35); camera.infoWindowAnchor = new GPoint(16,2); addMarkersToMap(); } The actual map can be found here: link text Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Database Structure for CakePHP Models

    - by Michael T. Smith
    We're building a data tracking web app using CakePHP, and I'm having some issues getting the database structure right. We have Companies that haveMany Sites. Sites haveMany DataSamples. Tags haveAndBelongToMany Sites. That is all set up fine. The problem is "ranking" the sites within tags. We need to store it in the database as an archive. I created a Rank model that is setup like this: rank ( id (int), sample_id (int), tag_id (int), site_id (int), rank (int), total_rows) ) So, the question is, how do I create the associations for tag, site and sample to rank? I originally set them as haveMany. But the returned structures don't get me where I'd like to be. It looks like: [Site] => Array ( [Sample] = Array(), [Tag] = Array() ) When I'm really looking for: [Site] => Array ( [Tag] = Array ( [Sample] => Array ( [Rank] => Array ( ...data... ) ) ) ) I think that I may not be structuring the database properly; so if I need to update please let me know. Otherwise, how do I write a find query that gets me where I need to be? Thanks! Thoughts? Need more details? Just ask!

    Read the article

  • Beginner Question on traversing a EF4 model

    - by user564577
    I have a basic EF4 model with two entities. I'm using Self Tracking Entities Client has ClientAddresses relationship on clientkey = clientkey. (1 to many) How do i get a list/collection of client entities (STE) and their addresses (STE) but only ones where they live in a particular state or some such filter on the address??? This seems to filter and bring back clients but doesnt bring back addresses. var j = from client in context.Clients where client.ClientAddresses.All(c => c.ZIP == "80923") select client; I cant get this to create the Addresses because ClientAddresses is IEnumerable and it needs a TrackableCollection var query = from t1 in context.Clients join t2 in context.ClientAddresses on t1.ClientKey equals t2.ClientKey where t2.ZIP == "80923" select new Client { FirstName = t1.FirstName, LastName = t1.LastName, IsEnabled = t1.IsEnabled, ClientKey = t1.ClientKey, ChangeUser = t1.ChangeUser, ChangeDate = t1.ChangeDate, ClientAddresses = from a in t1.ClientAddresses select new ClientAddress { AddressKey = a.AddressKey, AddressLine1 = a.AddressLine1, AddressLine2 = a.AddressLine2, AddressTypeCode = a.AddressTypeCode, City = a.City, ClientKey = a.ClientKey, State = a.State, ZIP = a.ZIP } }; Any pointers would be appreciated. Thanks Edit: This seems to work.... var j = from client in context.Clients.Include("ClientAddresses") where client.ClientAddresses.Any(c => c.ZIP == "80923") select client;

    Read the article

  • java gui image problem : doesn't display in the background

    - by thegamer
    Hello, i have a query about why is my image not being displayed in my background of my program. I mean i did all the steps necessary and still it would'nt be displayed. The code runs perfectly but without having the image displayed. The directory is written in the good location of the image. I am using java with gui. If anyone could help me solve my problem, i would appreciate :) here is the code below: import java.awt.*; import java.awt.event.*; import javax.swing.*; public class hehe extends JPanel{ public hehe(){ setOpaque(false); setLayout(new FlowLayout()); } public static void main (String args[]){ JFrame win = new JFrame("yooooo"); // it is automaticcally hidden JPanel mainPanel = new JPanel(new BorderLayout()); win.add(mainPanel); JLabel titleLabel = new JLabel("title boss"); titleLabel.setFont(new Font("Arial",Font.BOLD,18)); titleLabel.setForeground(Color.blue); mainPanel.add(titleLabel,BorderLayout.NORTH); win.setSize(382,269); // the dimensions of the image win.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); win.setVisible(true); } public void paint(Graphics g) { Image a = Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit().getImage("C:\\Users\\andrea\\Desktop\\Gui\\car"); // car is the name of the image file and is in JPEG g.drawImage(a,0,0,getSize().width,getSize().height,this); super.paint(g); } }

    Read the article

  • c programming malloc question

    - by user535256
    Hello guys, Just got query regarding c malloc() function. I am read()ing x number of bytes from a file to get lenght of filename, like ' read(file, &namelen, sizeof(unsigned char)); ' . The variable namelen is a type unsigned char and was written into file as that type (1 byte). Now namelen has the lenght of filename ie namelen=8 if file name was 'data.txt', plus extra /0 at end, that working fine. Now I have a structure recording file info, ie filename, filelenght, content size etc. struct fileinfo { char *name; ...... other variable like size etc }; struct fileinfo *files; Question: I want to make that files.name variable the size of namelen ie 8 so I can successfully write the filename into it, like ' files[i].name = malloc(namelen) ' However, I dont want it to be malloc(sizeof(namelen)) as that would make it file.name[1] as the size of its type unsigned char. I want it to be the value thats stored inside variable &namelen ie 8 so file.name[8] so data.txt can be read() from file as 8 bytes and written straight into file.name[8? Is there a way to do this my current code is this and returns 4 not 8 files[i].name = malloc(namelen); //strlen(files[i].name) - returns 4 //perhaps something like malloc(sizeof(&namelen)) but does not work Thanks for any suggestions Have tried suggested suggestions guys, but I now get a segmentation fault error using: printf("\nsizeofnamelen=%x\n",namelen); //gives 8 for data.txt files[i].name = malloc(namelen + 1); read(file, &files[i].name, namelen); int len=strlen(files[i].name); printf("\nnamelen=%d",len); printf("\nname=%s\n",files[i].name); When I try to open() file with that files[i].name variable it wont open so the data does not appear to be getting written inside the read() &files[i].name and strlen() causes segemntation error as well as trying to print the filename

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET server data persistence

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm not really sure exactly how the question should be phrased, so please be patient if I ask the wrong thing. I'm writing an ASP.NET application using VB as the code behind language. I have a data access class that connects to the DB to run the query (parameterized, of course), and another class to perform the validation tasks - I access this class from my aspx page. What I would like is to be able to store the data server side and wait for the user to choose from a few options based on the validity of the data. But unless my understanding is completely off, having persistent data objects on the server will give problems when multiple users connect? My ultimate goal is that once the data has been validated the end user can't modify it. Currently I'm validating the data, but I still have to retrieve it from the web form AFTER the user says OK, which obviously leaves open the possibility of injecting bad data either accidentally (unlikely) or on purpose (also unlikely for the use, but I'd prefer not to take the chance). So am I completely off in my understanding? If so, can someone point me to a resource that provides some instructions on keeping persistent data on the server, or provide instruction? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • PHP output results on to one page

    - by linda
    i have a system where a user searches for a film and reviews appear on a page with a button next to each review. The button can be selected to look at the individual review but i basically want a button that when selected it will look at all reviews on one page, the code i am using for the individual review is this <?php ini_set ('display_errors', 1); error_reporting (E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE); $searchfilm=$_POST['searchfilm']; //Connect to database //Filter search $searchfilm = strtoupper($searchfilm); $searchfilm = strip_tags($searchfilm); $searchfilm = trim ($searchfilm); $query = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query("SELECT filmreview FROM review WHERE id = '$id'")); $data = mysql_query("SELECT film.filmname, review.filmreview, review.reviewtitle, review.id FROM film, review WHERE film.filmid = review.filmid AND filmname = '$searchfilm'"); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($data)) { // echo $row['filmname']; // echo "<b>Film Name:</b> " .$searchfilm; echo "<table border=\"2\" align=\"left\">"; echo "<tr><td>"; echo "<b>Review Title:</b> " .$row['reviewtitle']; echo "<tr><td>"; echo $row['filmreview']; echo "<p>"; echo "<form method='post' action='analyse1.php'>"; echo "<input type='hidden' name='reviewid' value='".$row['id']."'>"; echo "<input type='submit' name='submit' value='Analyse'>"; echo "</form>"; echo "</table>"; } ?>

    Read the article

  • Website. VoteUp or VoteDown Videos. How to restrict users voting multiple times?

    - by DJDonaL3000
    Im working on a website (html,css,javascript, ajax, php,mysql), and I want to restrict the number of times a particular user votes for a particular video. Its similar to the YouTube system where you can voteUp or voteDown a particular video. Each vote involves adding a row to the video.votes table, which logs the time, vote direction(up or down), the client IPaddress( using PHP: $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; ), and of course the ID of the video in question. Adding votes is as simple as; (pseudocode): Javascript:onClick( vote( a,b,c,d ) ), which passes variables to PHP insertion script via ajax, and finally we replace the voteing buttons with a "Thank You For Voting" message. THE PROBLEM: If you reload/refresh the page after voting, you can vote again, and again, and again, you get the point. MY QUESTION: How do you limit the amount of times a particular user votes for a particular video?? MY THOUGHTS: Do you use cookies, and add a new cookie with the id of the video. And check for a cookie before you insert a new vote.? OR Before you insert the vote, do you use the IPaddress and the videoID to see if this same user(IP) has voted for this same video(vidID) in the past 24hrs(mktime), and either allow or dissallow the voteInsertion based on this query? OR Do you just not care? Take the assumption that most users are sane, and have better things to do than refresh pages and vote repeatedly.?? Any suggestions or ideas welcome.

    Read the article

  • Should a C++ constructor do real work?

    - by Wade Williams
    I'm strugging with some advice I have in the back of my mind but for which I can't remember the reasoning. I seem to remember at some point reading some advice (can't remember the source) that C++ constructors should not do real work. Rather, they should initialize variables only. The advice when on to explain that real work should be done in some sort of init() method, to be called separately after the instance was created. The situation is I have a class that represents a hardware device. It makes logical sense to me for the constructor to call the routines that query the device in order to build up the instance variables that describe the device. In other words, once new instantiates the object, the developer receives an object which is ready to be used, no separate call to object-init() required. Is there a good reason why constructors shouldn't do real work? Obviously it could slow allocation time, but that wouldn't be any different if calling a separate method immediately after allocation. Just trying to figure out what gotchas I not currently considering that might have lead to such advice.

    Read the article

  • What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

    - by slk
    I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Not getting key value from Identity column back after inserting new row with SubSonic ActiveRecord

    - by mikedevenney
    I'm sure I'm missing the obvious answer here, but could use a hand. I'm new to SubSonic and using version 3. I've got myself to the point of being able to query and insert, but I'm stuck with how I would get the value of the identity column back after my insert. I saw another post that mentioned Linq Templates. I'm not using those (at least I don't think I am...?) TIA ... UPDATE ... So I've been debugging through my code watching how the SubSonic code works and I found where the indentity column is being ignored. I use int as the datatype for my ID columns in the database and set them as identity. Since int is a non-nullable data type in c# the logical test in the Add method (public void Add(IDataProvider provider)) that checks if there is a value in the key column by doing a (key==null) could be the issue. The code that gets the new value for the identity field is in the 'true path', since an int can't be null and I use ints as my identity column data types this test will never pass. The ID field for my object has a 0 in it that I didn't put there. I assume it's set during the initialization of the object. Am I off base here? Is the answer to change my data types in the database? Another question (more a curiosity). I noticed that some of the properties in the generated classes are declared with a ? after the datatype. I'm not familiar with this declaration construct... what gives? There are some declared as an int (non key fields) and others that are declared as int? (key fields). Does this have something to do with how they're treated at initialization? Any help is appreciated! --BUMP--

    Read the article

  • Scalable Full Text Search With Per User Result Ordering

    - by jeremy
    What options exist for creating a scalable, full text search with results that need to be sorted on a per user basis? This is for PHP/MySQL (Symfony/Doctrine as well, if relevant). In our case, we have a database of workouts that have been performed by users. The workouts that the user has done before should appear at the top of the results. The more frequently they've done the workout, the higher it should appear in search matches. If it helps, you can assume we know the number of times a user has done a workout in advance. Possible Solutions Sphinx - Use Sphinx to implement full text search, do all the querying and sorting in MySQL. This seems promising (and there's a Symfony Plugin!) but I don't know much about it. Lucene - Use Lucene to perform full text search and put the users' completions into the query. As is suggested in this Stack Overflow thread. Alternatively, use Lucene to retrieve the results, then reorder them in PHP. However, both solutions seem clunky and potentially unscalable as a user may have completed hundreds of workouts. Mysql - No native full text support (InnoDB), so we'd have use LIKE or REGEX, which isn't scalable.

    Read the article

  • GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

    - by David Veeneman
    This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Is encrypting session id (or other authenticate value) in cookie useful at all?

    - by Ji
    In web development, when session state is enabled, a session id is stored in cookie(in cookieless mode, query string will be used instead). In asp.net, the session id is encrypted automatically. There are plenty of topics on the internet regarding how you should encrypt your cookie, including session id. I can understand why you want to encrypt private info such as DOB, but any private info should not be stored in cookie at first place. So for other cookie values such as session id, what is the purpose encryption? Does it add security at all? no matter how you secure it, it will be sent back to server for decryption. Be be more specific, For authentication purpose, turn off session, i don't want to deal with session time out any more store some sort of id value in the cookie, on the server side, check if the id value exists and matches, if it is, authenticate user. let the cookie value expire when browser session is ended, this way. vs Asp.net form authentication mechanism (it relies on session or session id, i think) does latter one offer better security?

    Read the article

  • Listen to Response on HTML Form embedded in GWT View?

    - by confile
    I have a HTML like the following: <div> <form> <input type="text" /> <button class="sendForm" value="Send form" /> </form> </div> <script> // post the form with Jquery post // register a callback that handles the response </script> I use this type of form a lot with a JavaScript/JQuery overlay that displays the form. That could be handled for example with plugins like FancyBox. I also want to use this form embedded into a GWT view. Lets assume that the for cannot be created on client side because it has some server based markup language inside to set up some model data. If I want to use this form in GWT I have to do the following. Tell GWT the form request url and use a RequestBuilder to query the html content of this form. Then I can insert it into a div generated by GWT. So far so good. Problem: When the user hits the send button the response is handled my the JQuery callback that is inside the script under the form. Is there a way to access this callback from within GWT? Is there a way to overwrite the JQuery send action? Since, the code is HTML and comes from the server I cannot place ui-binder UiFields inside to get access to these DOM elements. I need to get the response if the submitted form accessible to GWT. Is there a way how I can achieve this with JSNI?

    Read the article

  • Are ternary operators not valid for linq-to-sql queries?

    - by KallDrexx
    I am trying to display a nullable date time in my JSON response. In my MVC Controller I am running the following query: var requests = (from r in _context.TestRequests where r.scheduled_time == null && r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0 select new { id = r.id, name = r.name, start = DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue ? DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value) : string.Empty }); When I run requests.ToArray() I get the following exception: Could not translate expression ' Table(TestRequest) .Where(r => ((r.scheduled_time == null) AndAlso (r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0))) .Select(r => new <>f__AnonymousType18`4(id = r.id, name = r.name, start = value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = IIF(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue, value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value), Invoke(value(System.Func`1[System.String])))))' into SQL and could not treat it as a local expression. If I comment out the end = line, everything seems to run correctly, so it doesn't seem to be the use of my local DateAndTimeDisplayString method, so the only thing I can think of is Linq to Sql doesn't like Ternary operators? I think I've used ternary operators before, but I can't remember if I did it in this code base or another code base (that uses EF4 instead of L2S). Is this true, or am I missing some other issue?

    Read the article

  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Linq-to-XML explicit casting in a generic method

    - by vlad
    I've looked for a similar question, but the only one that was close didn't help me in the end. I have an XML file that looks like this: <Fields> <Field name="abc" value="2011-01-01" /> <Field name="xyz" value="" /> <Field name="tuv" value="123.456" /> </Fields> I'm trying to use Linq-to-XML to get the values from these fields. The values can be of type Decimal, DateTime, String and Int32. I was able to get the fields one by one using a relatively simple query. For example, I'm getting the 'value' from the field with the name 'abc' using the following: private DateTime GetValueFromAttribute(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == "abc" select (DateTime)field.Attribute("value")).FirstOrDefault() } this is placed in a separate function that simply returns this value, and everything works fine (since I know that there is only one element with the name attribute set to 'abc'). however, since I have to do this for decimals and integers and dates, I was wondering if I can make a generic function that works in all cases. this is where I got stuck. here's what I have so far: private T GetValueFromAttribute<T>(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == attName select (T)field.Attribute("value").Value).FirstOrDefault(); } this doesn't compile because it doesn't know how to convert from String to T. I tried boxing and unboxing (i.e. select (T) (Object) field.Attribute("value").Value but that throws a runtime Specified cast is not valid exception as it's trying to convert the String to a DateTime, for instance. Is this possible in a generic function? can I put a constraint on the generic function to make it work? or do I have to have separate functions to take advantage of Linq-to-XML's explicit cast operators?

    Read the article

  • Lightweight HTTP application/server for static content

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hi, I am in need of a scalable and performant HTTP application/server that will be used for static file serving/uploading. So I only need support for GET and PUT operations. However, there are a few extra features that I need: Custom authentication: I need to check credentials against a database for each request. Thus I must be able to integrate propietary database interaction. Support for signed access keys: The access to resources via PUT should be signed using a key like http://uri/?key=foo The key then contains information about the request like md5(user + path + secret) which allows me to block unwanted requests. The application/server should allow me to check for this. Performance: I'd like to avoid piping content as much as possible. Otherwise the whole application could be implemented in Perl/etc. in a few lines as CGI. Perlbal (in webserver mode) looks nice, however the single-threaded model does not fit with my database lookup and it does also not support query strings. Lighttp/Nginx/… have some modules for these tasks, however it is not feasible putting everything together without ending up writing own extensions/modules. So how would you solve this? Are there other leightweight webservers available for this? Should I implement an application inside of a webserver (i.e. CGI). How can I avoid/speed up piping content between the webserver and my application. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Using Lucene to index private data, should I have a separate index for each user or a single index

    - by Nathan Bayles
    I am developing an Azure based website and I want to provide search capabilities using Lucene. (structured json objects would be indexed and stored in Lucene and other content such as Word documents, etc. would be indexed in lucene but stored in blob storage) I want the search to be secure, such that one user would never see a document belonging to another user. I want to allow ad-hoc searches as typed by the user. Lastly, I want to query programmatically to return predefined sets of data, such as "all notes for user X". I think I understand how to add properties to each document to achieve these 3 objectives. (I am listing them here so if anyone is kind enough to answer, they will have better idea of what I am trying to do) My questions revolve around performance and security. Can I improve document security by having a separate index for each user, or is including the user's ID as a parameter in each search sufficient? Can I improve indexing speed and total throughput of the system by having a separate index for each user? My thinking is that having separate indexes would allow me to scale the system by having multiple index writers (perhaps even on different server instances) working at the same time, each on their own index. Any insight would be greatly appreciated. Regards, Nate

    Read the article

  • How to duplicate all data in a table except for a single column that should be changed.

    - by twiga
    I have a question regarding a unified insert query against tables with different data structures (Oracle). Let me elaborate with an example: tb_customers ( id NUMBER(3), name VARCHAR2(40), archive_id NUMBER(3) ) tb_suppliers ( id NUMBER(3), name VARCHAR2(40), contact VARCHAR2(40), xxx, xxx, archive_id NUMBER(3) ) The only column that is present in all tables is [archive_id]. The plan is to create a new archive of the dataset by copying (duplicating) all records to a different database partition and incrementing the archive_id for those records accordingly. [archive_id] is always part of the primary key. My problem is with select statements to do the actual duplication of the data. Because the columns are variable, I am struggling to come up with a unified select statement that will copy the data and update the archive_id. One solution (that works), is to iterate over all the tables in a stored procedure and do a: CREATE TABLE temp as (SELECT * from ORIGINAL_TABLE); UPDATE temp SET archive_id=something; INSERT INTO temp (select * from temp); DROP TABLE temp; I do not like this solution very much as the DDL commands muck up all restore points. Does anyone else have any solution?

    Read the article

  • logic before dispatcher + controller?

    - by Spoonface
    I believe for a typical MVC web application the router / dispatcher routine is used to decide which controller is loaded based primarily on the area requested in the url by the user. However, in addition to checking the url query string, I also like to use the dispatcher to check whether the user is currently logged in or not to decide which controller is loaded. For example if they are logged in and request the login page, the dispatcher would load their account instead. But is this a fairly non-standard design? Would it violate MVC in any way? I only ask as the examples I've read through this weekend have had no major calculations performed before the dispatcher routine, and commonly check whether the user is logged in or not per controller, and then redirect where necessary. But to me it seems odd to redirect a logged in user from the login area to account area if you could just load the account controller in the first place? I hope I've explained my consternation well enough, but could anyone offer some details on how they handle logged in users, and similar session data?

    Read the article

  • How would you organize this in asp.net mvc?

    - by chobo
    I have an asp.net mvc 2.0 application that contains Areas/Modules like calendar, admin, etc... There may be cases where more than one area needs to access the same Repo, so I am not sure where to put the Data Access Layers and Repositories. First Option: Should I create Data Access Layer files (Linq to SQL in my case) with their accompanying Repositories for each area, so each area only contains the Tables, and Repositories needed by those areas. The benefit is that everything needed to run that module is one place, so it is more encapsulated (in my mind anyway). The downside is that I may have duplicate queries, because other modules may use the same query. Second Option Or, would it be better to place the DAL and Repositories outside the Area's and treat them as Global? The advantage is I won't have any duplicate queries, but I may be loading a lot of unnecessary queries and DAL tables up for certain modules. It is also more work to reuse or modify these modules for future projects (though the chance of reusing them is slim to none :)) Which option makes more sense? If someone has a better way I'd love to hear it. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696  | Next Page >