Search Results

Search found 29508 results on 1181 pages for 'object initializers'.

Page 69/1181 | < Previous Page | 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76  | Next Page >

  • Generics vs Object performance

    - by Risho
    I'm doing practice problems from MCTS Exam 70-536 Microsft .Net Framework Application Dev Foundation, and one of the problems is to create two classes, one generic, one object type that both perform the same thing; in which a loop uses the class and iterated over thousand times. And using the timer, time the performance of both. There was another post at C# generics question that seeks the same questoion but nonone replied. Basically if in my code I run the generic class first it takes loger to process. If I run the object class first than the object class takes longer to process. The whole idea was to prove that generics perform faster. I used the original users code to save me some time. I didn't particularly see anything wrong with the code and was puzzled by the outcome. Can some one explain why the unusual results? Thanks, Risho Here is the code: class Program { class Object_Sample { public Object_Sample() { Console.WriteLine("Object_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(Object a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } class Generics_Samle<T> { public Generics_Samle() { Console.WriteLine("Generics_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(T a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } static void Main(string[] args) { long ticks_initial, ticks_final, diff_generics, diff_object; Object_Sample OS = new Object_Sample(); Generics_Samle<int> GS = new Generics_Samle<int>(); //Generic Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = GS.getTicks(); for (int i = 0; i < 50000; i++) { GS.display(i); } ticks_final = GS.getTicks(); diff_generics = ticks_final - ticks_initial; //Object Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = OS.getTicks(); for (int j = 0; j < 50000; j++) { OS.display(j); } ticks_final = OS.getTicks(); diff_object = ticks_final - ticks_initial; Console.WriteLine("\nPerformance of Generics {0}", diff_generics); Console.WriteLine("Performance of Object {0}", diff_object); Console.ReadKey(); } }

    Read the article

  • How to determine if object in another AppDomain has gone

    - by Dmitry Lobanov
    I instantiate an object of some class in other ApDomain using CreateInstanceAndUnwrap(). I can determine if this object resides in other domain by using RemotingServices.IsTransparentProxy(). But can I determine if the real remote object has gone away (e.g. was garbage collected) without probing a call on proxy and catching RemotingException? Is it possible?

    Read the article

  • Return an object after parsing xml with SAX

    - by sentimental_turtle
    I have some large XML files to parse and have created an object class to contain my relevant data. Unfortunately, I am unsure how to return the object for later processing. Right now I pickle my data and moments later depickle the object for access. This seems wasteful, and there surely must be a way of grabbing my data without hitting the disk. def endElement(self, name): if name == "info": # done collecting this iteration self.data.setX(self.x) self.data.setY(self.y) elif name == "lastTagOfInterest": # done with file # want to return my object from here filehandler = open(self.outputname + ".pi", "w") pickle.dump(self.data, filehandler) filehandler.close() I have tried putting a return statement in my endElement tag, but that does not seem to get passed up the chain to where I call the SAX parser. Thanks for any tips.

    Read the article

  • Domain object validation vs view model validation

    - by Brendan Vogt
    I am using ASP.NET MVC 3 and I am using FluentValidation to validate my view models. I am just a little concerned that I might not be on the correct track. As far as what I know, model validation should be done on the domain object. Now with MVC you might have multiple view models that are similar that needs validation. What happens if a property from a domain object occurs in more than one view model? Now you are validating the same property twice, and they might not even be in sync. So if I have a User domain object then I would like to do validation on this object. Now what happens if I have UserAViewModel and UserBViewModel, so now it is multiple validations that needs to be done. The scenario above is just an example, so please don't critise on it.

    Read the article

  • Modifying object in AfterInsert / AfterUpdate

    - by Jean Barmash
    I have a domain object that holds results of a calculation based on parameters that are properties of the same domain object. I'd like to make sure that any time parameters get changed by the user, it recalculates and gets saved properly into the database. I am trying to do that with afterInsert (to make sure calculation is correct in the first place), and afterUpdate. However, since my calculation is trying to modify the object itself, it's not working - throwing various hibernate exceptions. I tried to put the afterUpdate code into a transaction, but that didn't help. I am afraid I am getting into a circular dependency issues here. The exception I am getting right now is: org.hibernate.StaleObjectStateException: Row was updated or deleted by another transaction (or unsaved-value mapping was incorrect): [esc.scorecard.PropertyScorecard#27] Are the GORM events designed for simpler use cases? I am tempted to conclude that modifying the object you are in the middle of saving is not the way to go.

    Read the article

  • Accessing property of object vs variable in javascript

    - by Samuel
    Why when I try to access a variable that don't exist, javascript throw an exception but when I try to access a property that don't exist in an object, javascript returns an undefined object? For example, this case returns an undefined object: function Foo(){ console.log(this.bar); } Foo(); But, in this other example, javascript throw an exception: function Foo(){ console.log(bar); } Foo(); ReferenceError: bar is not defined

    Read the article

  • Referencing the current jQuery object in a chain?

    - by Lance McNearney
    At DevDays in SF last year (before jQuery 1.4 was released), I thought they mentioned an upcoming feature in 1.4 that would allow you to reference the current jQuery object while in a chain. I've read through all of the 1.4 improvements and wasn't able to find it. Does anyone know how this can be done? Example Being able to access the current jQuery object would be helpful when working with methods that are in relation to the current object like .next(): // Current way var items = $(this).closest('tr'); items = items.add(items.next(':not([id])')); // Magical 1.4 way? Is there a "chain"-like object? var items = $(this).closest('tr') .add(chain.next(':not([id])'));

    Read the article

  • Hibernate one-to-one: getId() without fetching entire object

    - by Rob
    I want to fetch the id of a one-to-one relationship without loading the entire object. I thought I could do this using lazy loading as follows: class Foo { @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY, optional = false) private Bar bar; } Foo f = session.get(Foo.class, fooId); // Hibernate fetches Foo f.getBar(); // Hibernate fetches full Bar object f.getBar().getId(); // No further fetch, returns id I want f.getBar() to not trigger another fetch. I want hibernate to give me a proxy object that allows me to call .getId() without actually fetching the Bar object. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Issue in accessing JSON object?

    - by Esh
    Am facing issue in accessing the JSON object : JSON Object am receiving is : {"71":"Heart XXX","76":"No Heart YYYY"} I tried to get the value of 71 and 72 separately and use it ... but am getting some compile time issue as : Syntax error on token ".71", delete this token Code: var map=$("#jsonText").val(); alert(map); var obj=jQuery.parseJSON(map); alert("JSON ::"+obj.71); If am printing obj , am able to view [Object Object] Can any one out there please help me to find the mistake i did ..I know the question above is asked in many threads in SO . Below are the few threads i found , but failed when i attempted to implement it .. jquery json parsing Also tried using the Jquery tutorial given in Jquery JSON Its working fine if the key is a String but getting the above error if its a number ...

    Read the article

  • JSON Object XHR and closures

    - by Sara Chipps
    Hi all, I have a JSON object that is populated by an XHR. I then need to update that object with values from a separate XHR call. The issue I am running into is the second call isn't being made at the correct time and I think it's an issue with how I structured my object. Here is what I have: function Proprietary() { var proprietary= this; this.Groups = {}; this.getGroups = function() { $.getJSON(group_url, function(data){proprietary.callReturned(data);}); } this.callReturned = function(data) { //Do stuff for(var i=0; i< data.groups.length; i++) { insparq.Groups[i] = data.groups[i]; $.getJSON(participant_url, function(p){proprietary.Groups[i].participants = p;}); } //the function call below is the action I want to occur after the object is populated. PopulateGroups(); } };

    Read the article

  • Convert an ArrayList to an object array

    - by marionmaiden
    Hello, Is there a command in java for conversion of an ArrayList into a object array. I know how to do this copying each object from the arrayList into the object array, but I was wondering if would it be done automatically. I want something like this: ArrayList<TypeA> a; // Let's imagine "a" was filled with TypeA objects TypeA[] array = MagicalCommand(a);

    Read the article

  • Eclipse > Javascript > Code highlighting not working with Object Notation

    - by Redsandro
    I am using Eclipse Helios with PDT, and when I am editing JavaScript files with the default JavaScript Editor (JSDT), code highlighting (Mark Occurrences) is not working for half of the code, for example JSON-style (or Object Literal if you will) declarations. Little example: Foo = {}; Foo.Bar = Foo.Bar || {}; Foo.Bar = { bar: function(str) { alert(str) }, baz: function(str) { this.bar(str); // This bar *is* highlighted though } }; Foo.Bar.baz('text'); No Bar, bar or baz is highlighted. For now, I humbly edit the JavaScript part of projects in Notepad++ because it just highlights every occurrence of whatever is currently selected. Is there a common practice for Eclipse JavaScript developers to get code highlighting work correctly, using the popular Object Literal notation? An option or update I missed? -update- I have found that code highlighting depends on the code being properly outlined. Altough commonly used, Object Literal outlining still seems rare in javascript editors. the Spket Javascript Editor does partial Object Literal outlining, and the Aptana Javascript Editor does full Object Literal outlining. But both loses other important functionality. A quest for the editor with the least loss of functionality is currently in progress in this question.

    Read the article

  • Force an object to be allocated on the heap

    - by Warren Seine
    A C++ class I'm writing uses shared_from_this() to return a valid boost::shared_ptr<>. Besides, I don't want to manage memory for this kind of object. At the moment, I'm not restricting the way the user allocates the object, which causes an error if shared_from_this() is called on a stack-allocated object. I'd like to force the object to be allocated with new and managed by a smart pointer, no matter how the user declares it. I thought it could be done through a proxy or an overloaded new operator, but I can't find a proper way of doing that. Is there a common design pattern for such usage? If it's not possible, how can I test it at compile time?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to change the file path of the video using javascript?

    - by Manish
    I have an object tag in a HTML file: <object classid="clsid:22D6F312-B0F6-11D0-94AB-0080C74C7E95"> <param name="FileName" value="../ABC/WildLife.wmv" id="mediaPlayerFile"> <param name="AutoStart" value="false" /> </object> I want to change the filename using javascript. What I have so far is this: <script type="text/javascript"> function disp_current_directory() { var val = document.getElementById('mediaPlayerFile'); val.attributes['value'].value = "D:\XYZ\WildLife.wmv"; } </script> But this doesn't work. :( Is it possible? If yes, how?

    Read the article

  • Rails - before_filter than includes updated object

    - by Sam
    I have a before filter than calculates a percentage that needs to include the object that is being updated. Is there a one liner in rails that takes care of this? for example and this is totaly made up: Object.find(:all, :include = :updated_object) Currently I'm sending the object that is getting updated to the definition that calculates the percentage and that works but its making things messy.

    Read the article

  • How can I find out how much memory an instance of a C++ class consumes?

    - by Shadow
    Hi, I am developing a Graph-class, based on boost-graph-library. A Graph-object contains a boost-graph, so to say an adjacency_list, and a map. When monitoring the total memory usage of my program, it consumes quite a lot (checked with pmap). Now, I would like to know, how much of the memory is exactly consumed by a filled object of this Graph-class? With filled I mean when the adjacency_list is full of vertices and edges. I found out, that using sizeof() doesn't bring me far. Using valgrind is also not an alternative as there is quite some memory allocation done previously and this makes the usage of valgrind impractical for this purpose. I'm also not interested in what other parts of the program cost in memory, I want to focus on one single object. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How to call virtual function of an object in C++

    - by SoonDead
    I'm struggling with calling a virtual function in C++. I'm not experienced in C++, I mainly use C# and Java so I might have some delusions, but bear with me. I have to write a program where I have to avoid dynamic memory allocation if possible. I have made a class called List: template <class T> class List { public: T items[maxListLength]; int length; List() { length = 0; } T get(int i) const { if (i >= 0 && i < length) { return items[i]; } else { throw "Out of range!"; } }; // set the value of an already existing element void set(int i, T p) { if (i >= 0 && i < length) { items[i] = p; } else { throw "Out of range!"; } } // returns the index of the element int add(T p) { if (length >= maxListLength) { throw "Too many points!"; } items[length] = p; return length++; } // removes and returns the last element; T pop() { if (length > 0) { return items[--length]; } else { throw "There is no element to remove!"; } } }; It just makes an array of the given type, and manages the length of it. There is no need for dynamic memory allocation, I can just write: List<Object> objects; MyObject obj; objects.add(obj); MyObject inherits form Object. Object has a virtual function which is supposed to be overridden in MyObject: struct Object { virtual float method(const Input& input) { return 0.0f; } }; struct MyObject: public Object { virtual float method(const Input& input) { return 1.0f; } }; I get the elements as: objects.get(0).method(asdf); The problem is that even though the first element is a MyObject, the Object's method function is called. I'm guessing there is something wrong with storing the object in an array of Objects without dynamically allocating memory for the MyObject, but I'm not sure. Is there a way to call MyObject's method function? How? It's supposed to be a heterogeneous collection btw, so that's why the inheritance is there in the first place. If there is no way to call the MyObject's method function, then how should I make my list in the first place?

    Read the article

  • Reference variable to an object instantiated/initialized in another class in Java

    - by Alex
    The reason I'm asking is because I'm getting NullPointerException. I now this is very easy but I'm pretty new programming and find this a bit confusing. So say I have initialized an object in a class and want to access that same object from another class. Like now for instance I'm working on a small Chess game, in my model Game class I have an instance of Board, an object. Board, in turn, has an array of Squares. Square[][]. Game has board, board has Square[][]. Now if I want to access the Square[][] through the object board (in Game) of type Board. Do I just declare a variable with the same name and type or do I have to initialize it again? Board board OR Board board = new Board(); Note, I have already initialized board in the class Game so if I do it again, won't they be two totally different Board objects?

    Read the article

  • ActiveX Deployment

    - by balexandre
    We have used for 8 years an ActiveX builder in Delphi and we are now using it on Internet Explorer over the internet (and not on local machine as it was always been the process until here) As today we use this object in the HTML: <object id="ActiveX" classid="CLSID:8EC68701-329D-4567-BCB5-9EE4BA43D358" width="14" height="14"> <param name="tabName" value="AccountPlan"> </object> My question is, what are the viable methods to deploy an Active X Control over HTTP/S, what parameters should I need to append to tell where to find it (http url) and download a new one if newer is available? I got into this article from MSDN Library but refers to VB5.0 and it's dated 1997 ... Just wanna know what can I do now, as probably the tools evolved since last century All help is appreciated, Thank you.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76  | Next Page >