Search Results

Search found 88745 results on 3550 pages for 'code snippet'.

Page 690/3550 | < Previous Page | 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696 697  | Next Page >

  • summer experiment: GWT & python for a trading game- arch question

    - by sadhu_
    Hi, As a summer learning experiment, I'm thinking of coding up a web front end for a trading game i wrote in python, that generates share prices and random snippets of text. I am sort of struggling with how this should work on the back-end though. I'd rather have my GWT client page interact with the python share price generator, than to try and re-code it in java. I suppose i could use an sqlite db, and then use jdbc to pick up the prices, but i was wondering if there is a better way, for me to be able to poll some python script either from my client page, or from the serverside java code ? I found this python wrapper, but i'm not sure how i could use it though: http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/dev/gviz_api_lib.html Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Best practice for Python Assert

    - by meade
    Is there a performance or code maintenance issue with using assert as part of the standard code instead of using it just for debugging purposes? Is assert x >= 0, 'x is less then zero' and better or worse then if x < 0: raise Exception, 'x is less then zero' Also, is there anyway to set a business rule like if x < 0 raise error that is always checked with out the try, except, finally so, if at anytime throughout the code x is < 0 an error is raised, like if you set assert x < 0 at the start of a function, anywhere within the function where x becomes less then 0 an exception is raised?

    Read the article

  • Thoughts on try-catch blocks

    - by John Boker
    What are your thoughts on code that looks like this: public void doSomething() { try { // actual code goes here } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } The problem I see is the actual error is not handled, just throwing the exception in a different place. I find it more difficult to debug because i don't get a line number where the actual problem is. So my question is why would this be good? ---- EDIT ---- From the answers it looks like most people are saying it's pointless to do this with no custom or specific exceptions being caught. That's what i wanted comments on, when no specific exception is being caught. I can see the point of actually doing something with a caught exception, just not the way this code is.

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL stored procedures with multiple results in Visual Studio 2008

    - by Jeremy
    I'm using visual studio 2008 and I've created a stored procedure that selects back two different result sets. I drag the stored proc on to a linq to sql dbml datacontext class, causing visual studio to create the following code in the cs file: [Function(Name="dbo.List_MultiSelect")] public ISingleResult<DataAccessLayer.DataEntities.List_MultiSelectResult> List_MultiSelect() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall(this, ((MethodInfo)(MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()))); return ((ISingleResult<DataAccessLayer.DataEntities.List_MultiSelectResult>)(result.ReturnValue)); } Shouldn't the designer generate the code to use IMultipleResults? Or do I have to hand code that?

    Read the article

  • In the java DBCP connection pool - what is an idle connection?

    - by Ravenor
    A colleague at work insists that a DBCP idle connection is a connection that has lain unused for 30 minutes. I believe a dbcp idle connection is a connection that is in the pool available to be borrowed, and an active connection is one that is borrowed. Looking through the code I found no reference to 30 minutes or other magic values and a cursory glance through the code for assuring minidle does not show any such logic. If he is correct can you please back that up with a code or documentation reference. For the complete answer I would like it answered for both DBCP 1.1 and 1.6.

    Read the article

  • Override Java System.currentTimeMillis

    - by Mike Clark
    Is there a way, either in code or with JVM arguments, to override the current time, as presented via System.currentTimeMillis, other than manually changing the system clock on the host machine? A little background: We have a system that runs a number of accounting jobs that revolve much of their logic around the current date (ie 1st of the month, 1st of the year, etc) Unfortunately, a lot of the legacy code calls functions such as new Date() or Calendar.getInstance(), both of which eventually call down to System.currentTimeMillis. For testing purposes, right now, we are stuck with manually updating the system clock to manipulate what time and date the code thinks that the test is being run. So my question is: Is there a way to override what is returned by System.currentTimeMillis? For example, to tell the JVM to automatically add or subtract some offset before returning from that method? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Best approach to create a security environment in Java

    - by Tom Brito
    I need to create a desktop application that will run third party code, and I need to avoid the third party code from export by any way (web, clipboard, file io) informations from the application. Somethig like: public class MyClass { private String protectedData; public void doThirdPartyTask() { String unprotedtedData = unprotect(protectedData); ThirdPartyClass.doTask(unprotectedData); } private String unprotect(String data) { // ... } } class ThirdPartyClass { public static void doTask(String unprotectedData) { // Do task using unprotected data. // Malicious code may try to externalize the data. } } I'm reading about SecurityManager and AccessControler, but I'm still not sure what's the best approach to handle this. What should I read about to do this implementation?

    Read the article

  • How can I make a Twitter style alert stick to the top of the window?

    - by Robert Robb
    There is an excellent code example on how to make nice jQuery Twitter style alerts here: http://blog.codecrate.com/2009/10/twitter-style-alerts-in-rails.html $(function () { var alert = $('.alert'); if (alert.length > 0) { alert.show().animate({height: alert.outerHeight()}, 200); window.setTimeout(function() { alert.slideUp(); }, 3000); } }); However, one thing that the code doesn't include is functions to stick the alert div to the top of the window, no matter how far down the page the user has scrolled. I have found a few examples but nothing seems to play nice with this existing code. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • c# const in jQuery?

    - by Cristian Boariu
    Hi guys, I have this piece of code in javascript: var catId = $.getURLParam("category"); In my asp.net and c# code for "category" query string i use a public const: public const string CATEGORY = "category"; so if i want to change the query string parameter to be "categoryTest" i only change this const and all the code is updated. Now the question is: how can i do something similar for the javascript i have in the same application (so i want to use the same constant)? I mean i want something like this: var catId = $.getURLParam(CQueryStringParameters.CATEGORY); but because there are none asp.net tags, my const is not interpreted... Any workaround?

    Read the article

  • DataSet.HasChanges is true even immediately after TableAdapter.Update is run

    - by Nathan Koop
    I've got some legacy dataset code which I'm updating. I'm attempting to determine if the dataset has changes to it so I can properly prompt for a save request. However myDataset.HasChanges() always returns true. In my save method I've edited the code to determine when the dataset get's changes and made the code like this: 1. myBindingSource.EndEdit() 2. myTableAdapter.Update(myDataSet) 3. myBindingSource.EndEdit() After line 1, - myDataSet.HasChanges = true (understandable) After line 2, - myDataSet.HasChanges = false (understandable) After line 3, - myDataSet.HasChanges = true I'm unsure of why this would occur in line 3, shouldn't this be false because I just ran the updates on the dataset?

    Read the article

  • How to add a php page to Wordpress

    - by rutherford
    I want to create a custom page for my Wordpress blog that will execute my php code in it, whilst remaining a part of the overall site css/theme/design. The php code will make use of 3rd party APIs (so I need to include other php files) How do I accomplish this? N.B. I do not have a specific need to interact with the Wordpress API - apart from including certain other php libs I need I have no other dependencies in the PHP code I want to include in a WP page. So obviously any solution that didn't require learning the WP api would be the best one.

    Read the article

  • [Android SDK] Text-To-Speech addSpeech not working properly

    - by arcoraven
    Hi, I'm trying to get my Android app to play a .wav file recording of the word "Spinach Salad" whenever it sees that phrase being spoken by TTS. Here's the relevant code: spinach_salad.wav is located in /res/raw prodName = "Spinach Salad" mTts.addSpeech(prodName, "com.example.textextractor", R.raw.spinach_salad); ...and later in the code: mTts.speak("blah blah blah " + prodName, TextToSpeech.QUEUE_ADD, null); I've also tried: mTts.speak("blah blah blah Spinach Salad", TextToSpeech.QUEUE_ADD, null); and mTts.speak("blah blah blah", TextToSpeech.QUEUE_ADD, null); mTts.speak(productName_str, TextToSpeech.QUEUE_ADD, null); In both cases, I'm just hearing the TTS synthesized audio, rather than my custom .wav file. (On a related note, the last chunk of code sometimes speaks out of order, saying the second line before the first).

    Read the article

  • Syntax error in SWIG using __thread keyword

    - by user366838
    I am trying to make some code thread safe for use with pthreads. This code is written in C++, but is linked to using SWIG. g++ compiles this correctly, but when swig tries to create a wrapper, I get: fast_alloc.hh:109: Error: Syntax error in input(3) The original, unsafe code that compiles correctly is: static void *freeLists[Num_Buckets]; and the error occurs when I change it to: static __thread void *freeLists[Num_Buckets]; I have made other parts thread safe adding "__thread", for example, this works: static __thread unsigned newCount[Num_Buckets];

    Read the article

  • How to access a String Array location in android?

    - by Vamsi Challa
    Android 2.3.3 This is my code... String[] expression = {""}; //globally declared as empty somewhere in the code below, I am trying to assign a string to it. expression[0] = "Hi"; I keep getting the following error... 12-08 22:12:19.063: E/AndroidRuntime(405): java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException Can someone help me with this.. Can we access the index 0, directly as i am doing? Actual Code ::: static int x = 0; // global declaration String[] assembledArray = {""}; // global declaration assembleArray(strSubString, expression.charAt(i)); //Passing string to the method //Method Implementation private void assembleArray(String strSubString, char charAt) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub assembledArray[x] = strSubString; assembledArray[x+1] = String.valueOf(charAt); x = x+2; }

    Read the article

  • How to use soap in javascript

    - by fresher
    Hi guys, I am trying to use SOAP in javascript but i am not getting how to start it. Here is the code sample i write in PHP and it works fine. I want to write this code in Javascript. In following code i call one api from a www.example.com and for calling certain api we require to pass some parameters. $soapClient = new SoapClient("https://www.example.com/abc.aspx?WSDL"); // Prepare SoapHeader parameters $param_sh = array( ); $header = new SoapHeader('http://somesite.com/action/', 'user_credential', $param_sh); // Prepare Soap Client $soapClient->__setSoapHeaders(array($header)); // Setup the RemoteFunction parameters $param = array( "pwd" => "password", "id" => "name" ); // Call RemoteFunction () $contents = $soapClient->__call("name_of_api",array($param)); print_r($contents); Thanx in advance!!!

    Read the article

  • How can i supply an AntiForgeryToken when posting JSON data using $.ajax ?

    - by HerbalMart
    I am using the code as below of this post: First i will an fill array variable with the correct values for the controller action. Using the code below i think it should be very straigtforward by just adding the following line to the javascript: data["__RequestVerificationToken"] = $('[name=__RequestVerificationToken]').val(); The <%= Html.AntiForgeryToken() %> is at his right place and the action has a [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] But my controller action keeps saying: "Invalid forgery token" What am i doing wrong here? Code data["fiscalyear"] = fiscalyear; data["subgeography"] = $(list).parent().find('input[name=subGeography]').val(); data["territories"] = new Array(); $(items).each(function() { data["territories"].push($(this).find('input[name=territory]').val()); }); if (url != null) { $.ajax( { dataType: 'JSON', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', url: url, type: 'POST', context: document.body, data: JSON.stringify(data), success: function() { refresh(); } }); }

    Read the article

  • How do you access URL text following the # sign through Java?

    - by cmcculloh
    Using Java (.jsp or whatever) is there a way where I can send a request for this page: http://www.mystore.com/store/shelf.jsp?category=mens#page=2 and have the Java code parse the URL and see the #page=2 and respond accordingly? Basically, I'm looking for the Java code that allows me to access the characters following the hash tag. The reason I'm doing this is that I want to load subsequent pages via AJAX (on my shelf) and then allow the user to copy and paste the URL and send it to a friend. Without the ability of Java being able to read the characters following the hash tag I'm uncertain as to how I would manipulate the URL with Javascript in a way that the server would be able to also read without causing the page to re-load. I'm having trouble even figuring out how to access/see the entire URL (http://www.mystore.com/store/shelf.jsp?category=mens#page=2) from within my Java code...

    Read the article

  • where should i encode this html data in an asp.net mvc site

    - by ooo
    here is my view code: <%=Model.HtmlData %> here is my controller code: public ActionResult GetPage() { ContentPageViewModel vm = new ContentPageViewModel(); vm.HtmlData = _htmlPageRepository.Get("key"); return View(vm); } my repository class basically queries a database table that has the fields: id, pageName, htmlContent the .Get() method passes in a pageName (or key) and returns the htmlContent value. Right now i have just started this (haven't persisted anything to the db yet) so i am not doing any explicit encoding in my code now. What is the best practice for where i need to do encoding (in the model, the controller, the view ??)

    Read the article

  • Making a rectangular selection in a RichTextBox with Alt-Left-Mouse sweep?

    - by Harold Bamford
    There are quite a few applications that allow you to select a box or rectangle of text by sweeping with mouse while the Alt key is pressed. Visual Studio 2010 does this in the code editor, for instance. Emacs does it. Winword does it. We've all seen it. It seems like there must be a standard pattern to follow to encode this behavior but I cannot seem to find it. I suspect I am not Googling with the correct keywords as all I am getting are false hits on rectangle, Alt-Left, sweep, selection, etc. I'm sure I can code it up but it would mean disabling the normal selection code used in, say, RichTextBox. And that sounds ugly, error prone and probably more work than it is worth. Anybody have a suggestion (be nice! :-) ) of how to do this or an example of how it is done?

    Read the article

  • ruby block and returning something from block

    - by dorelal
    I am using ruby 1.8.7. p = lambda { return 10;} def lab(block) puts 'before' puts block.call puts 'after' end lab p Above code output is before 10 after I refactored same code into this def lab(&block) puts 'before' puts block.call puts 'after' end lab { return 10; } Now I am getting LocalJumpError: unexpected return. To me both the code are doing same thing. Yes in the first case I am passing a proc and in the second case I am passing a block. But &block converts that block into proc. So proc.call should behave same. And yes I have seen this post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2325471/using-return-in-a-ruby-block

    Read the article

  • cURL PHP Proper SSL between private servers with self-signed certificate

    - by PolishHurricane
    I originally had a connection between my 2 servers running with CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER set to "false" with no Common Name in the SSL cert to avoid errors. The following is the client code that connected to the server with the certificate: curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER,FALSE); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST,2); However, I recently changed this code (set it to true) and specified the computers certificate in PEM format. curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER,TRUE); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST,2); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_CAINFO,getcwd().'/includes/hostcert/Hostname.crt'); This worked great on the local network from a test machine, as the certificate is signed with it's hostname for a CN. How can I setup the PHP code so it only trusts the hostname computer and maintains a secure connection. I'm well aware you can just set CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST to "0" or "1" and CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER to "false", but these are not valid solutions as they break the SSL security.

    Read the article

  • Parallel port no longer accessible even though no changes to system.

    - by marcusw
    I have an old Dell Dimension 8200 running Gentoo which I use solely to control various things using the parallel port. After shutting it down a few weeks ago, I started it up again today and tried to access the parallel port like I usually do. Unfortunately, my code bombed out when it tried to call ioperm(888,1,1) to grab the parallel port which returned an error code of -1. There have been no changes to the system be it hardware or software, no updates, no tweaking, no dropping the case, no over-amping the data pins, nothing. The port and the software have been working fine for months with no changes, and were working fine when I shut it down last. Running my code with root privileges changes nothing. What is breaking this and how can I fix it?

    Read the article

  • Can I "inherit" a delegate? Looking for ways to combine Moq and MSpec without conflicts around It...

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I have started to use MSpec for BDD, and since long ago I use Moq as my mocking framework. However, they both define It, which means I can't have using Moq and using Machine.Specifications in the same code file without having to specify the namespace explicitly each time I use It. Anyone who's used MSpec knows this isn't really an option. I googled for solutions to this problem, and this blogger mentions having forked MSpec for himself, and implemented paralell support for Given, When, Then. I'd like to do this, but I can't figure out how to declare for example Given without having to go through the entire framework looking for references to Establish, and changing code there to match that I want either to be OK. For reference, the Establish, Because and It are declared in the following way: public delegate void Establish(); public delegate void Because(); public delegate void It(); What I need is to somehow declare Given, so that everywhere the code looks for an Establish, Given is also OK.

    Read the article

  • steps for facebook connect graph api

    - by dskanth
    Hi, iam using facebook connect in my site, and i want to know how do i use the graph api for authenticating the user. I followed these steps: 1) Initially i sent a request for "code", by clicking on the facebook icon in my site: https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize? client_id=xxx&redirect_uri=http://xxxxxxxx 2) And then after getting a code, i sent a request for "access token", by clicking on another link in my site: https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token? client_id=xxx&redirect_uri=http://xxxxxxx&client_secret=xxxx&code=xxxxx 3) And after i got the token, i sent another request for getting user data, by clicking on yet another link: https://graph.facebook.com/me?access_token=xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx Then finally i got the user data in array format, which i need to parse for my required data like user's firstname, email, etc. Now my question is that how i can automate this process with just one click ? Right now, iam using 3 different links for sending those requests. Can anyone suggest a solution ?

    Read the article

  • FORTRAN function returning an array causes a segfault (calling from C++)

    - by Dane Larsen
    Basically, here's my problem. I'm calling someone else's FORTRAN functions from my C++ code, and it's giving me headaches. Some code: function c_error_message() character(len = 255) :: c_error_message errmsg(1:9) = 'ERROR MSG' return end That's the FORTRAN function. My first question is: Is there anything in there that would cause a segfault? If not, then second: What does that return? A pointer? I'm trying to call it with the following C statement: char *e = c_error_message_(); That causes a segfault. c_error_message(); That too causes a segfault. I declared c_error_message_() earlier on with the following code: extern"C" { char* c_error_message_(); } Would declaring a function with a different return type than the actual return type cause a segfault? I'm at a loss. Thanks for any replies.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696 697  | Next Page >