Search Results

Search found 31293 results on 1252 pages for 'database agnostic'.

Page 691/1252 | < Previous Page | 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696 697 698  | Next Page >

  • What's the most DRY-appropriate way to execute an SQL command?

    - by Sean U
    I'm looking to figure out the best way to execute a database query using the least amount of boilerplate code. The method suggested in the SqlCommand documentation: private static void ReadOrderData(string connectionString) { string queryString = "SELECT OrderID, CustomerID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(queryString, connection); connection.Open(); SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader(); try { while (reader.Read()) { Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}", reader[0], reader[1])); } } finally { reader.Close(); } } } mostly consists of code that would have to be repeated in every method that interacts with the database. I'm already in the habit of factoring out the establishment of a connection, which would yield code more like the following. (I'm also modifying it so that it returns data, in order to make the example a bit less trivial.) private SQLConnection CreateConnection() { var connection = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); connection.Open(); return connection; } private List<int> ReadOrderData() { using(var connection = CreateConnection()) using(var command = connection.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "SELECT OrderID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using(var reader = command.ExecuteReader()) { var results = new List<int>(); while(reader.Read()) results.Add(reader.GetInt32(0)); return results; } } } That's an improvement, but there's still enough boilerplate to nag at me. Can this be reduced further? In particular, I'd like to do something about the first two lines of the procedure. I don't feel like the method should be in charge of creating the SqlCommand. It's a tiny piece of repetition as it is in the example, but it seems to grow if transactions are being managed manually or timeouts are being altered or anything like that.

    Read the article

  • problem with mysql character set & GWT

    - by Ehsan Khodarahmi
    Hi I've a SmartGWT application which interacts with a mysql database using rpc services. Suppose it as a simple form with a textbox & two save & load buttons. My database & tables & all fields collation is utf8_persian_ci. All java source files & module html & xml files have saved with utf8 character set. & also I've a meta tag in module html file which contains my form : <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> my application works correctly in eclipse develpment mode & also in my local tomcat server. Then i put it on remote server (I compress it using jar.exe into a war file with -cvf flag & then upload it using my server's plesk control panel). In this mode, when I load data from a mysql table (load a record from any table), data will load into my form with no problem, but when I want to save some data (in persian language), mysql just writes some ? (question sign) in characteristic table fields. Any idea ?

    Read the article

  • If attacker has original data and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

    - by Brad Cupit
    If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require storage in the database. I'm leaning towards the the one-way-hash-stored-in-the-db, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

    Read the article

  • Communication between EJB3 Instances (JEE inter-bean communication) possible?

    - by Hank
    I'm designing a part of a JEE6 application, consisting of EJB3 beans. Part of the requirements are multiple parallel (say a few hundred) long running (over days) database hunts. Individual hunts have different search parameters (start time, end time, query filter). Parameters may get changed over time. Currently I'm thinking of the following: SearchController (Stateless Session Bean) formulates a set of search parameters, sends it off to a SearchListener via JMS SearchListener (Message Driven Bean) receives search parameters, instantiates a SearchWorker with the parameters SearchWorker (SLSB) hunts repeatedly through the database; when it finds something, the result is sent off via JMS, and the search continues; when the given 'end-time' has reached, it ends What I'm wondering now: Is there a problem, with EJB3 instances running for days? (Other than that I need to be able to deal with container restarts...) How do I know how many and which EJB instances of SearchWorker are currently running? Is it possible to communicate with them individually (similar to sending a System V signal to a unix process), e.g. to send new parameters, to end an instance, etc..

    Read the article

  • When developing a Microsoft Office Add-In (for Word), is it possible to store hidden metadata inform

    - by leftend
    I am trying to store metadata (basically a unique id) along with each cell of a table in a Word document. Currently, for the add-in I'm developing, I am querying the database, and building a table inside the Word document using the data that is retrieved. I want to be able to save any of the user's edits to the document, and persist it back to the database. My initial thought was to store a unique id along with each cell in the table so that I would be able to tell which records to update. I would also like to store some sort of "isChanged" flag within each cell so that I could tell which cells were changed. I found that I could add the needed information into the "ID" property of the cell - however, that information was not retained if the user saved the document, closed it, and re-opened it. I then tried storing the data by adding a data to the "Fields" collection - but that did not work and threw a runtime error. Here is the code that I tried: object t1 = Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldEmpty; object val = "myValue: " + counter; object preserveFormatting = true; tbl.Cell(i, j).Range.Fields.Add(tbl.Cell(i, j).Range, ref t1, ref val, ref preserveFormatting); This compiles fine, but throws this runtime error "This command is not available". So, is this possible at all? Or am I headed in the wrong direction? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Why isn't this simple PHP/MySQL code working?

    - by Sammy
    I am very new to php/mysql and this is causing me to loose hairs, I am trying to build a multi level site navigation. In this part of my script I am readying the sub and parent categories coming from a form for insertion into the database: // get child categories $catFields = $_POST['categories']; if (is_array($catFields)) { $categories = $categories; for ($i=0; $i<count($catFields); $i++) { $categories = $categories . $catFields[$i]"; } } // get parent category $select = mysql_query ("SELECT parent FROM categories WHERE id = $categories"); while ($return = mysql_fetch_assoc($select)) { $parentId = $return['parent']; } The first part of my script works fine, it grabs all the categories that the user has chosen to assign a post by checking the checkboxes in a form and readies it for insertion into the database. But the second part does not work and I can't understand why. I am trying to match a category with a parent that is stored in it's own table, but it returns nothing even though the categories all have parents. Can anyone tell me why this is? p.s. The $categories variable contains the sub category id.

    Read the article

  • Problems by inserting values from textboxes

    - by simon
    I'm trying to insert the current date to the database and i allways get the message(when i press the button on the form to save to my access database), that the data type is incorect in the conditional expression. the code: string conString = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=C:\\Users\\Simon\\Desktop\\save.mdb"; OleDbConnection empConnection = new OleDbConnection(conString); string insertStatement = "INSERT INTO obroki_save " + "([ID_uporabnika],[ID_zivila],[skupaj_kalorij]) " + "VALUES (@ID_uporabnika,@ID_zivila,@skupaj_kalorij)"; OleDbCommand insertCommand = new OleDbCommand(insertStatement, empConnection); insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@ID_uporabnika", OleDbType.Char).Value = users.iDTextBox.Text; insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@ID_zivila", OleDbType.Char).Value = iDTextBox.Text; insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@skupaj_kalorij", OleDbType.Char).Value = textBox1.Text; empConnection.Open(); try { int count = insertCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (OleDbException ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } finally { empConnection.Close(); textBox1.Clear(); textBox2.Clear(); textBox3.Clear(); textBox4.Clear(); textBox5.Clear(); } I have now cut out the date,( i made access paste the date ), still there is the same problem. Is the first line ok? users.idtextbox.text? Please help !

    Read the article

  • Extensionless URLs in IIS 6

    - by Jason Marsell
    My client has asked me to build a personalized URL system so that they can send out really short URLs in postcards to customers like this: www.client.com/JasonSmith03 www.client.com/TonyAdams With these URLs, I need IIS 6 to trap the incoming request and pass that “JasonSmith03” token to my database to determine which landing page to redirect them to. I’d love to use an HttpHandler or HttpModule but they both look like they require an file extension (.aspx) in the URL. Wildcard mapping will chew up every incoming request and that’s ridiculous. ISAPI filters are just text routing files, so I can’t employ logic to call the database. According to Scott Guthrie, this would be cake if I had IIS 7, but I don’t. Can this be done using MVC? I’ve been working with MVP for the last few years, so I haven’t done any MVC and routing. I thought I remembered that MVC has the ability to use REST-style extensionless URLs. I’d be more than happy to have these personalized URLs land on a site that’s built in MVC, if it will work. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Hadoop Map/Reduce - simple use example to do the following...

    - by alexeypro
    I have MySQL database, where I store the following BLOB (which contains JSON object) and ID (for this JSON object). JSON object contains a lot of different information. Say, "city:Los Angeles" and "state:California". There are about 500k of such records for now, but they are growing. And each JSON object is quite big. My goal is to do searches (real-time) in MySQL database. Say, I want to search for all JSON objects which have "state" to "California" and "city" to "San Francisco". I want to utilize Hadoop for the task. My idea is that there will be "job", which takes chunks of, say, 100 records (rows) from MySQL, verifies them according to the given search criteria, returns those (ID's) which qualify. Pros/cons? I understand that one might think that I should utilize simple SQL power for that, but the thing is that JSON object structure is pretty "heavy", if I put it as SQL schemas, there will be at least 3-5 tables joins, which (I tried, really) creates quite a headache, and building all the right indexes eats RAM faster than I one can think. ;-) And even then, every SQL query has to be analyzed to be utilizing the indexes, otherwise with full scan it literally is a pain. And with such structure we have the only way "up" is just with vertical scaling. But I am not sure it's the best option for me, as I see how JSON objects will grow (the data structure), and I see that the number of them will grow too. :-) Help? Can somebody point me to simple examples of how this can be done? Does it make sense at all? Am I missing something important? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Search book by title, and author

    - by Swoosh
    I got a table with columns: author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle Multiple users are inserting in the database, through an import, and I'd like to avoid duplicates. So I'm trying to do something like this: I have a record in the db: First Name: "Isaac" Last Name: "Assimov" Title: "I, Robot" If the user tries to add it again, it would be basically a non-split-text (would not be split up into author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle) So it would basically look like this: "Isaac Asimov - I Robot" or "Asimov, Isaac - I Robot" or "I Robot by Isaac Asimov" You see where I am getting at? (I cannot force the user to split up all the books into into author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle, and I don't even like the idea to force the user, because it's not too user-friendly) What is the best way (in SQL) to compare all this possible bookdata scenarios to what I have in the database, not to add the same book twice. I was thinking about a possibility of suggesting the user: "is THIS the book you are trying to add?" (imagine a list instead of the THIS word, just like on stackoverflow - ask question - Related Questions. I was thinking about soundex and maybe even the like operators, but so far i didn't get the results i was hoping.

    Read the article

  • Saving multiple objects in a single call in rails

    - by CaptnCraig
    I have a method in rails that is doing something like this: a = Foo.new("bar") a.save b = Foo.new("baz") b.save ... x = Foo.new("123", :parent_id => a.id) x.save ... z = Foo.new("zxy", :parent_id => b.id) z.save The problem is this takes longer and longer the more entities I add. I suspect this is because it has to hit the database for every record. Since they are nested, I know I can't save the children before the parents are saved, but I would like to save all of the parents at once, and then all of the children. It would be nice to do something like: a = Foo.new("bar") b = Foo.new("baz") ... saveall(a,b,...) x = Foo.new("123", :parent_id => a.id) ... z = Foo.new("zxy", :parent_id => b.id) saveall(x,...,z) That would do it all in only two database hits. Is there an easy way to do this in rails, or am I stuck doing it one at a time?

    Read the article

  • Programatically create web application & sub site

    - by Tejas
    I am using the following code to programatically create a web application & sub site, try { SPWebApplicationBuilder webAppBuilder = new SPWebApplicationBuilder(SPFarm.Local); SPWebApplication newApplication; int myPort = 3333; webAppBuilder.Port = myPort; //Port No. webAppBuilder.RootDirectory = new System.IO.DirectoryInfo("C:\\Inetpub\\wwwroot\\wss\\VirtualDirectories\\" + myPort); webAppBuilder.CreateNewDatabase = true; // Create new database webAppBuilder.DatabaseName = "WSS_Content_372772890a5a4a04abb460cd9ea3bd22"; // Database name webAppBuilder.DatabaseServer = webAppBuilder.DefaultZoneUri.Host; // DatabaseServer Host name/computer name webAppBuilder.UseNTLMExclusively = true; // Use NTLM authentication newApplication = webAppBuilder.Create(); // Create new web application newApplication.Provision(); // Provision it into web farm using (var mySiteCollection = newApplication.Sites.Add("/", "Site 3", "Site 3 Decscription", 1033, "STS#1", "In-Wai-Svr2\\Administrator", "Administrator", "[email protected]")) { using (var rootWeb = mySiteCollection.RootWeb) { // Code customizing root site goes here using (var subSite = rootWeb.Webs.Add("Site3.1", "Site 3.1", "Site 3.1 Description", 1033, "STS#1", true, false)) { // Code customizing sub site goes here } } } } catch(Exception ex) { ; } It works fine i.e. it creates the web application on the specified port with sub site but this sub site will not be shown under Sites menu of Quick launch bar also it will not be shown as a separate tab on the Home Page. Is it possible to do it programatically?

    Read the article

  • Copy SQL Server data from one server to another on a schedule

    - by rwmnau
    I have a pair of SQL Servers at different webhosts, and I'm looking for a way to periodically update the one server using the other. Here's what I'm looking for: As automated as possible - ideally, without any involvement on my part once it's set up. Pushes a number of databases, in their entirely (including any schema changes) from one server to the other Freely allows changes on the source server without breaking my process. For this reason, I don't want to use replication, as I'd have to break it every time there's an update on the source, and then recreate the publication and subscription One database is about 4GB in size and contains binary data. I'm not sure if there's a way to export this to a script, but it would be a mammoth file if I did. Originally, I was thinking of writing something that takes a scheduled full backup of each database, FTPs the backups from one server to the other once they're done, and then the new server picks it up and restores it. The only downside I can see to this is that there's no way to know that the backups are done before starting to transfer them - can these backups be done synchronously? Also, the server being refreshes is our test server, so if there's some downtime involved in moving the data, that's fine. Does anybody out there have a better idea, or is what I'm currently considering the best non-replication way to go? Thanks for your help, everybody. UPDATE: I ended up designing a custom solution to get this done using BAT files, 7Zip,command line FTP, and OSQL, so it runs in a completely automatic way and aggregates the data from a dozen servers across the country. I've detailed the steps in a blog entry. Thanks for all your input!

    Read the article

  • How to port an Ajax CMS based on metadata in Asp.Net MVC?

    - by Maushu
    I'm maintaining a CMS where I have this feeling it was made in the age of dinosaurs (Asp.net 1.0?) and decided to upgrade it with Asp.Net MVC and jQuery. But I have some problems regarding the design/specifications of the CMS which I cannot change. The CMS The CMS uses JavaScript. Alot. As in "I don't load pages, I request new pages using Ajax and render the information using javascript" alot. Not to mention the animations, the weird horizontal apresentation of structures... anyways, besides the first page (that is the login page) every other "page" is just data requested from a WebService that comes with the website. Would MVC have any problems with this design? The Database The database is in a SQL Server 2k8 and, like the CMS, this part is also... interesting. Basically, the user can create data structures using metadata (and saved on the Structure table). These structures are saved on tables that are created (and regenerated when changed) at runtime using said metadata. I don't know how I would implement this part in MVC. The question is, can and should I convert this project to MVC? Any tips regarding the metadata and overuse of ajax?

    Read the article

  • MySQL multidimensional arrays...

    - by jay
    What is the best way to store data that is dynamic in nature using MySQL? Let's say I have a table in which one item is "dynamic". For some entries I need to store one value, but for others it could be one hundred values. For example let's say I have the following simple table: CREATE TABLE manager ( name char(50), worker_1_name(50), worker_2_name(50), ... worker_N_name(50) ); Clearly, this is not an ideal way to set up a database. Because I have to accommodate the largest group that a manager could potentially have, I am wasting a lot of space in the database. What I would prefer is to have a table that I can use as a member of another table (like I would do in C++ through inheritance) that can be used by the "manager" table to handle the variable number of employees. It might look something like this. CREATE TABLE manager ( name char(50), underlings WORKERS ); CREATE TABLE WORKERS ( name char(50), ); I would like to be able to add a variable number of workers to each manager. Is this possible or am I constrained to enumerating all the possible number of employees even though I will use the full complement only rarely?

    Read the article

  • Putting a C++ Vector as a Member in a Class that Uses a Memory Pool

    - by Deep-B
    Hey, I've been writing a multi-threaded DLL for database access using ADO/ODBC for use with a legacy application. I need to keep multiple database connections for each thread, so I've put the ADO objects for each connection in an object and thinking of keeping an array of them inside a custom threadInfo object. Obviously a vector would serve better here - I need to delete/rearrange objects on the go and a vector would simplify that. Problem is, I'm allocating a heap for each thread to avoid heap contention and stuff and allocating all my memory from there. So my question is: how do I make the vector allocate from the thread-specific heap? (Or would it know internally to allocate memory from the same heap as its wrapper class - sounds unlikely, but I'm not a C++ guy) I've googled a bit and it looks like I might need to write an allocator or something - which looks like so much of work I don't want. Is there any other way? I've heard vector uses placement-new for all its stuff inside, so can overloading operator new be worked into it? My scant knowledge of the insides of C++ doesn't help, seeing as I'm mainly a C programmer (even that - relatively). It's very possible I'm missing something elementary somewhere. If nothing easier comes up - I might just go and do the array thing, but hopefully it won't come to that. I'm using MS-VC++ 6.0 (hey, it's rude to laugh! :-P ). Any/all help will be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to disable mod_security2 rule (false positive) for one domain on centos 5

    - by nicholas.alipaz
    Hi I have mod_security enabled on a centos5 server and one of the rules is keeping a user from posting some text on a form. The text is legitimate but it has the words 'create' and an html <table> tag later in it so it is causing a false positive. The error I am receiving is below: [Sun Apr 25 20:36:53 2010] [error] [client 76.171.171.xxx] ModSecurity: Access denied with code 500 (phase 2). Pattern match "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" at ARGS:body. [file "/usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf"] [line "352"] [id "300015"] [rev "1"] [msg "Generic SQL injection protection"] [severity "CRITICAL"] [hostname "www.mysite.com"] [uri "/node/181/edit"] [unique_id "@TaVDEWnlusAABQv9@oAAAAD"] and here is /usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf (line 352) #Generic SQL sigs SecRule ARGS "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" "id:1,rev:1,severity:2,msg:'Generic SQL injection protection'" The questions I have are: What should I do to "whitelist" or allow this rule to get through? What file do I create and where? How should I alter this rule? Can I set it to only be allowed for the one domain, since it is the only one having the issue on this dedicated server or is there a better way to exclude table tags perhaps? Thanks guys

    Read the article

  • PHP Serialize Function - Adding serialized data to mysql and then fetch and display

    - by Abhilash Shukla
    I want to know whether the PHP serialize function is 100% secure, also if we store serialized data into a database and want to do something after fetching it, will it be a nice way. For example:- I have a website with different user privileges, now i want to store the permissions settings for a particular privilege to my database (This data i want to store is to be done through php serialize function), now when a user logs in i want to fetch this data and set the privilege for the customer. Now i am ok to do this thing, what i want to know is, whether it is the best way to do or something more efficient can be done. Also, i was going through php manual and found this code, can anybody explain me a bit what's happening in this code:- [Specially why base64_encode is used?] <?php mySerialize( $obj ) { return base64_encode(gzcompress(serialize($obj))); } myUnserialize( $txt ) { return unserialize(gzuncompress(base64_decode($txt))); } ?> Also if somebody can provide me their own code to show me to do this thing in the most efficient manner. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Android - Lifecycle and saving an Instance State questions

    - by The Salt
    So within my application is a form for creating a new user, with relevant details and information about the user. There's no problems there, it's just what happens when the user leaves the activity without pressing the confirm button. Here's what I want to do: If the user presses the back button, attempt to save all the data to the database and inform the user. If the activity is interrupted (ie by a phone call), save all the data into a temporary location so when the activity is at the top of the stack again, nothing appears to have changed (but the data still hasn't yet been saved to the database). If the activity gets killed for more resources when in the background, do the same as point 2 above (ie when the activity is started again, it appears that nothing has changed). If the whole application is started again (by clicking on the icon again) and there is temporary data stored from either points 2 or 3 above, navigate to the "create user" activity and display data as if nothings changed. Here's how I'm currently trying to do it: Use onDestroy() and isFinishing() functions to find when the activity is being killed, to cover point 1 above (to then try and save all data). Save all data with onSaveInstanceState into a bundle (to cover point 2 above) Does the bundle created with onSaveInstanceState survive the activity being killed for more resources, so when its recreated the previous state can be retrieved (as in point 3 above)? No idea how to implement point 4. Any help would be massively appreciated. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • Multiple threads modifying a collection in Java??

    - by posdef
    Hi, The project I am working on requires a whole bunch of queries towards a database. In principle there are two types of queries I am using: read from excel file, check for a couple of parameters and do a query for hits in the database. These hits are then registered as a series of custom classes. Any hit may (and most likely will) occur more than once so this part of the code checks and updates the occurrence in a custom list implementation that extends ArrayList. for each hit found, do a detail query and parse the output, so that the classes created in (I) get detailed info. I figured I would use multiple threads to optimize time-wise. However I can't really come up with a good way to solve the problem that occurs with the collection these items are stored in. To elaborate a little bit; throughout the execution objects are supposed to be modified by both (I) and (II). I deliberately didn't c/p any code, as it would be big chunks of code to make any sense.. I hope it make some sense with the description above. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • retrieving object information with Doctrine

    - by ajsie
    i want to fetch information from the database using objects. i really like this approach cause this is more OOP: $user = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->find(1); echo $user->Email['address']; echo $user->Phonenumbers[0]->phonenumber; rather than: $q = Doctrine_Query::create() ->from('User u') ->leftJoin('u.Email e') ->leftJoin('u.Phonenumbers p') ->where('u.id = ?', 1); $user = $q->fetchOne(); echo $user->Email['address']; echo $user->Phonenumbers[0]['phonenumber']; the problem is that the first one uses 3 queries (3 different tables), while the second one uses only 1 (and is therefore recommended technique). but i feel that it destroys the object oriented design. cause ORM is meant to give us an OOP approach so that we could focus on objects and not the relational database. but now they want us to go back to use SQL like pattern. there isn't a way to get information form multiple tables not using DQL? the above examples are taken from the documentation: doctrine

    Read the article

  • server caching problem on ASP.NET MVC page

    - by Rita
    Hi I have server caching error on ASP.NET MVC Pages. The scenario is like this. I have two applications (1).External Website and (2).Internal Adminsite, both pointing to the same Database. There is one page called EditProfile Page on the External Website that registered customer can update his profile information like Firstname, Lastname and Address…etc. Similarly there is similar functionality on the Internal Adminsite on the page called CustomerProfile Page where the Site Admin can update all these fields. When the user updates the profile information from the Adminsite, those updates are not reflecting back to the Website. Now I tried restarting the Website on IIS and that din’t help. Again I tried both restarting the Website on IIS and opening a new browser, then those updates are reflecting back. I am wondering how I can come out of this caching problem without restarting the site and open a new browser window everytime? Are there any IIS settings that could help? This caching is happening only on couple of tables only and all the updates are showing up in the database. Appreciate your responses. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using Rails, problem testing has_many relationship

    - by east
    The summary is that I've code that works when manually testing, but isn't doing what I would think it should when trying to build an automated test. Here are the details: I've two models: Payment and PaymentTranscation. class Payment ... has_many :transactions, :class_name => 'PaymentTransaction' class PaymentTranscation ... belongs_to payment The PaymentTransaction is only created in a Payment model method, like so: def pay_up ... transactions.create!(params...) ... end I've manually tested this code, inspected the database, and everything works well. The failing automated test looks like this: def test_pay_up purchase = Payment.new(...) assert purchase.save assert_equal purchase.state, :initialized.to_s assert purchase.pay_up # this should create a new PaymentTransaction... assert_equal purchase.state, :succeeded.to_s assert_equal purchase.transactions.count, 1 # FAILS HERE; transactions is an empty array end If I step through the code, it's clear that the PaymentTransaction is getting created correctly (though I can't see it in the database because everything is in a testing transaction). What I can't figure out is why transactions is returning an empty array in the test when I know a valid PaymentTransaction is getting created. Anybody have some suggestions? Thanks in advance, east

    Read the article

  • How to identify a particular entity's Session Factory with Fluent NHibernate and Multiple Databases

    - by Trevor
    I've already asked this question as part of an answer to another question ( see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2655861/fluent-nhibernate-multiple-databases ) but thought it better to ask again here. My problem is this: I'm using Fluent NHibernate. My application uses multiple databases. Each database has its own entities registered (mapped) against it. The result is that have multiple Session Factories, each one relating to a single DB, and each 'containing' its own set of mapped entities. For loading entities I've created a generic Factory class that provides some standard load methods usable for any registered entity (in any DB). The problem is: The load methods need to use the correct session factory for the entity class I'm busy dealing with. How would I determine which session factory I need to use? I have all the Session Factories 'on hand' (and indexed by database name), I just need a way, knowing just the type of Entity I'm about to load, of choosing the right Session Factory to use. For example: public IBaseBusinessObject CreatePopulatedInstance(Type boType, Guid instanceKey) { IBaseBusinessObject result = null; ISessionFactory sessionFactory = GetSessionFactory(boType); using (ISession session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) { using (session.BeginTransaction()) { result = (IBaseBusinessObject)session.Get(boType, instanceKey); } } return result; } What needs to go on in GetSessionFactory(boType) ? Thanks for reading!

    Read the article

  • What do these C# auto-generated table adapter commands do? e.g. UPDATE/INSERT followed by a SELECT

    - by RickL
    I'm working with a legacy application which I'm trying to change so that it can work with SQL CE, whilst it was originally written against SQL Server. The problem I am getting now is that when I try to do dataAdapter.Update, SQL CE complains that it is not expecting the SELECT keyword in the command text. I believe this is because SQL CE does not support batch SELECT statements. The auto-generated table adapter command looks like this... this._adapter.InsertCommand.CommandText = @"INSERT INTO [Table] ([Field1], [Field2]) VALUES (@Value1, @Value2); SELECT Field1, Field2 FROM Table WHERE (Field1 = @Value1)"; What is it doing? It looks like it is inserting new records from the datatable into the database, and then reading that record back from the database into the datatable? What's the point of that? Can I just go through the code and remove all these SELECT statements? Or is there an easier way to solve my problem of wanting to use these data adapters with SQL CE? I cannot regenerate these table adapters, as the people who knew how to have long since left.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696 697 698  | Next Page >