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  • Ruby script/console and Ruby script/server using two different DBs?

    - by aronchick
    Has anyone seen where script/console and script/server load two different databases (though both report using the same)? Here's the first output $ script/server => Booting WEBrick => Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 => Call with -d to detach => Ctrl-C to shutdown server [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick 1.3.1 [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10) [i386-mingw32] [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick::HTTPServer#start: pid=7148 port=3000 No errors. I then run my standard code for entering a form - no problems. Checking the Dev Database (.yml at bottom): mysql> select * from books; [...] | 712 | Book | Book Name | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | [...] 712 rows in set (0.00 sec) The code CLEARLY saved it seconds ago And now here's the output of script/console: $ script/console Loading development environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> Books.all => [] Nothing. Further, upon further inspection, it's using the production database, but I can't figure out why. Any thoughts here? All consoles have been closed and reopened. UPDATE: Requested .yml file (can't see how it'd be helpful (user name and password are all the same for each)) - development: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBdev username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBtest username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 production: adapter: mysql database: BooksDB username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000

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  • HTTP POST prarameters order / REST urls

    - by pq
    Let's say that I'm uploading a large file via a POST HTTP request. Let's also say that I have another parameter (other than the file) that names the resource which the file is updating. The resource cannot be not part of the URL the way you can do it with REST (e.g. foo.com/bar/123). Let's say this is due to a combination of technical and political reasons. The server needs to ignore the file if the resource name is invalid or, say, the IP address and/or the logged in user are not authorized to update the resource. Looks like, if this POST came from an HTML form that contains the resource name first and file field second, for most (all?) browsers, this order is preserved in the POST request. But it would be naive to fully rely on that, no? In other words the order of HTTP parameters is insignificant and a client is free to construct the POST in any order. Isn't that true? Which means that, at least in theory, the server may end up storing the whole large file before it can deny the request. It seems to me that this is a clear case where RESTful urls have an advantage, since you don't have to look at the POST content to perform certain authorization/error checking on the request. Do you agree? What are your thoughts, experiences?

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  • New NSData with range of old NSData maintaining bytes.

    - by umop
    I have a fairly large NSData (or NSMutableData if necessary) object which I want to take a small chunk out of and leave the rest. Since I'm working with large amounts of NSData bytes, I don't want to make a big copy, but instead just truncate the existing bytes. Basically: NSData *source: < a few bytes I want to discard + < big chunk of bytes I want to keep NSData *destination: < big chunk of bytes I want to keep There are truncation methods in NSMutableData, but they only truncate the end of it, whereas I want to truncate the beginning. My thoughts are to do this with the methods: - getBytes:range: and - initWithBytesNoCopy:length:freeWhenDone: However, I'm trying to figure out how to manage memory with these. I'm guessing the process will be like this (I've placed ????s where I don't know what to do): void *buffer // Get range of bytes [source getBytes:buffer range:NSMakeRange(myStart, myLength)]; // Somehow (m)alloc the memory which will be freed up in the following step ????? // Release the source, now that I've allocated the bytes [source release]; // Create a new data, recycling the bytes so they don't have to be copied NSData destination = [[NSData alloc] initWithBytesNoCopy:buffer length:myLength freeWhenDone:YES]; Thanks for the help!

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  • pdfLaTeX + memoir class compile error

    - by Sebastien
    Hi, I'm in the middle of writing my thesis, and was using KOMA-Script. The document compiles just fine. I stumbled upon the memoir class yesterday, and was thinking of giving it a try, so here I am trying to compile with this class instead of KOMA-Script. First compilation is OK On second compilation, the document would not build (./fourier/fourier.tex [98] ! Undefined control sequence. <argument> ... C\protect \noexpand \protect \bond \protect \noexpand \protec... l.1 \chapter {Homogénéisation numérique par transformée de Fourier rapide} ? It has apparently not connected to hyperlink (btw, I'm using memhfixc), since I've commented this one out. Here is the preamble of my document, any thoughts ? Thanks in advance, S %\documentclass[draft, 11pt, a4paper, chapterprefix]{scrreprt} \documentclass[draft, 11pt, a4paper]{memoir} \usepackage[authoryear, round]{natbib} \usepackage[french]{babel} \usepackage[latin1]{inputenc} \usepackage{pdfsync} \usepackage[version=3]{mhchem} \usepackage{pgf} \usepackage{microtype} \usepackage{txfonts} % Polices times \usepackage[notref, notcite]{showkeys} \usepackage{amsmath} \usepackage{amssymb} \usepackage[bvec]{sbmacros} \usepackage{micromechanics} \usepackage{pgfcad} %\usepackage[breaklinks=true]{hyperref} %\usepackage{memhfixc} % Pour assurer la compatibilité entre memoir et hyperref %\newcommand{\url}[1]{\texttt{#1}} % Options KOMA-Script % \addtokomafont{caption}{\small} % \pagestyle{headings}

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  • SQL Server: Clutering by timestamp; pros/cons

    - by Ian Boyd
    i have a table in SQL Server, where i want inserts to be added to the end of the table (as opposed to a clustering key that would cause them to be inserted in the middle). This means i want the table clustered by some column that will constantly increase. This could be achieved by clustering on a datetime column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... CreatedDate datetime DEFAULT getdate(), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (CreatedDate) ) But i can't guaranteed that two Things won't have the same time. So my requirements can't really be achieved by a datetime column. i could add a dummy identity int column, and cluster on that: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... RowID int IDENTITY(1,1), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (RowID) ) But you'll notice that my table already constains a timestamp column; a column which is guaranteed to be a monotonically increasing. This is exactly the characteristic i want for a candidate cluster key. So i cluster the table on the rowversion (aka timestamp) column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (timestamp) ) Rather than adding a dummy identity int column (RowID) to ensure an order, i use what i already have. What i'm looking for are thoughts of why this is a bad idea; and what other ideas are better. Note: Community wiki, since the answers are subjective.

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  • Customize jQuery.aptags plugin - mouseclick submit from dropdown list

    - by atmorell
    Hello, I am using jquery.autocomplete.js and jquery.apitags to select a few elements from a dropdown list. This works great, and I can select multiple elements etc. However the jquery-aptags plugin does only fire when enter is pressed. This might confuse some users if they use the mouse to click instead of the arrows/enter on the keyboard. I think this is the code inside jquery.aptags that submits the tag. // // Hook to the keypress event. // $(this).bind('keypress', { __c: __c }, function (e) { var c = ''; var i = 0; var v = $(this).val(); if (e.keyCode == 13) { e.stopPropagation(); e.preventDefault(); __createSpans(this, v, e.data.__c, true); } }); I am wondering if it is possible to call the method directly from a new event. $('.ac_results > ul > li').livequery(function() { $(this).bind('click', function() { $('#address_city').aptags({__createSpans}); }); }); Any thoughts?

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  • How to implement menuitems that depend on current selection in WPF MVVM explorer-like application

    - by Doug
    I am new to WPF and MVVM, and I am working on an application utilizing both. The application is similar to windows explorer, so consider an app with a main window with menu (ShellViewModel), a tree control (TreeViewModel), and a list control (ListViewModel). I want to implement menu items such as Edit - Delete, which deletes the currently selected item (which may be in the tree or in the list). I am using Josh Smith's RelayCommand, and binding the menuitem to a DeleteItemCommand in the ShellViewModel is easy. It seems like implementing the DeleteItemCommand, however, requires some fairly tight coupling between the ShellViewModel and the two child view models (TreeViewModel and ListViewModel) to keep track of the focus/selection and direct the action to the proper child for implementation. That seems wrong to me, and makes me think I'm missing something. Writing a focus manager and/or selection manager to do the bookkeeping does not seem too hard, and could be done without coupling the classes together. The windowing system is already keeping track of which view has the focus, and it seems like I'd be duplicating code. What I'm not sure about is how I would route the command from the ShellViewModel down to either the ListViewModel or the TreeViewModel to do the actual work without making a mess of the code. Some day, the application will be extended to include more than two children, and I want the shell to be as ignorant of the children as possible to make that extension as painless as possible. Looking at some sample WPF/MVVM applications (Karl Shifflett's CipherText, Josh Smith's MVVM Demo, etc.), I haven't seen any code that does this (or I didn't understand it). Regardless of whether you think my approach is way off base or I'm just missing a small nuance, please share your thoughts and help me get back on track. Thanks!

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  • SQL Alchemy MVC and cross controller joins

    - by Khorkrak
    When using SQL Alchemy for abstracting your data access layer and using controllers as the way to access objects from that abstraction layer, how should joins be handled? So for example, say you have an Orders controller class that manages Order objects such that it provides getOrder, saveOrder, etc methods and likewise a similar controller for User objects. First of all do you even need these controllers? Should you instead just treat SQL Alchemy as "the" thing for handling data access. Why bother with object oriented controller stuff there when you instead have a clean declarative way to obtain and persist objects without having to write SQL directly either. Well one reason could be that perhaps you may want to replace SQL Alchemy with direct SQL or Storm or whatever else. So having controller classes there to act as an intermediate layer helps limit what would need to change then. Anyway - back to the main question - so assuming you have these two controllers, now lets say you want the list of orders for a certain set of users meeting some criteria. How do you go about doing this? Generally you don't want the controllers crossing domains - the Orders controllers knows only about Orders and the User controller just about Users - they don't mess with each other. You also don't want to go fetch all the Users that match and then feed a big list of user ids to the Orders controller to go find the matching Orders. What's needed is a join. Here's where I'm stuck - that seems to mean either the controllers must cross domains or perhaps they should be done away with altogether and you simply do the join via SQL Alchemy directly and get the resulting User and / or Order objects as needed. Thoughts?

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  • In IIS6, how to provide authenticated access to static files on remote server

    - by frankadelic
    We have a library of ZIP files that we would like to make available for download at an ASP.NET site. The files are sitting on a NAS device that is accessible from out web farm. Here is our initial strategy: Map an IIS virtual directory to the shared drive at path /zipfiles Users can download the zip files when given the URL However, if users share links to the files, anyone can download them. We would instead like to make use of the ASP.NET forms authentication in our site to validate users' requests before initiating the file transfer. A few problems: A request for a zip file is handled by IIS, not ASP.NET. So it is not subject to forms authentication. In addition, we don't want ASP.NET to handle the request, because it uses up an ASP.NET thread and is not scalable for download of large files. So, configuring the asp.net dll to handle *.zip requests is not an option. Any ideas on this? One idea we've tossed around is this: Initial request for download will be for an ashx handler. This handler will, after authentication, generate a download token which is saved to a database. Then, the user is redirected to the file with token appended in QueryString (e.g. /files/xyz.zip?token=123456789). An ISAPI plugin will be used to check the token. Also, the token will expire after x amount of time. Any thoughts on this? I have not implemented an ISAPI plugin so I'm not sure if this will even work. I would like to avoid custom coding since security is an issue and I'd prefer to use a time-tested solution.

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  • Call WCF Service Through Javascript, AJAX, or JQuery

    - by obautista
    I created a number of standard WCF Services (Service Contract and Host (svc) are in separate assemblies). I fired up a Web Site in IIS to host the Services (i.e., address is http://services:1000/wcfservices.svc). Then in my Web Site project I added the reference. I am able to call the services normally. I am needed to call some of the services client side. Not sure if I should be looking at articles calling WCF services through AJAX, JQuery, or JSON enabled WCF Services. Can anyone provide any thoughts or experience with configuring as such? Some of the changes I made was adding the following to the Operation Contract: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "SetFoo")] void SetFoo(string Id); Then this above the implementation of the interface: [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] Then in the service webconfig I have this (parens are angle brackets): <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://services:1000/wcfservices.svc/"/>> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <serviceHostingEnvironment multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="false" /> Then in the client side I attempted this: <asp:ScriptManagerProxy ID="ScriptManagerProxy1" runat="server"> <compositeScript> <Scripts> <asp:ScriptReference Path="http://Flixsit:1000/FlixsitWebServices.svc" /> </Scripts> </CompositeScript> </asp:ScriptManagerProxy> I am attempting to call the service like this in javascript: wcfservices.SetFoo(string Id); Nothing is working. If it is idea or a better solution to call JSON enable, JQuery, etc....I am willing to make any changes. Thanks for any suggestions/tips provided....

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  • How to combine a Distance and Keyword SQL query?

    - by Jason
    Hi Folks, I have a tables in my database called "points" and "category". A user will input info into both a location input and a keyword input text box. Then I want to find points in my table where the keyword matches either the "title" field in the points table, or the "category" but are within a certain distance from the user's location. I want to order the results by distance. Here are the 2 queries which btoh work independently: $mysql = "SELECT *, ( 3959 * acos( cos( radians('$search_lat') ) * cos( radians( lat ) ) * cos( radians( longi ) - radians('$search_lng') ) + sin( radians('$search_lat') ) * sin( radians( lat ) ) ) ) AS distance FROM points HAVING distance < '$radius'"; $mysql2 = "SELECT * FROM `points` LEFT JOIN category USING ( category_id ) WHERE (point_title LIKE '%$esc_catsearch%' OR category.title LIKE '%$esc_catsearch%')"; Here is what I tried: $sql_search = sprintf("SELECT *,point_id FROM points WHERE point_title LIKE '%%%s%%' UNION SELECT *, ( 3959 * acos( cos( radians('%s') ) * cos( radians( lat ) ) * cos( radians( longi ) - radians('%s') ) + sin( radians('%s') ) * sin( radians( lat ) ) ) ) AS distance FROM points HAVING distance < '%s' ORDER BY distance LIMIT %d , %d", $esc_catsearch, mysql_real_escape_string($search_lat), mysql_real_escape_string($search_lng), mysql_real_escape_string($search_lat), mysql_real_escape_string($radius), $offset, $rowsPerPage); But it tells me there is no know column "distance". If I remove the "Order By" phrase then it works but I'm still not sure this is giving me the results I want. I also tried the query the other way around with the distance search first but that seems to ignore my keyword. Any thoughts would be much appreciated!

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  • BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly alternative to avoid ambiguous properties of derived classes

    - by JoeBilly
    I'am looking for a solution to access 'flatten' (lowest) properties values of a class and its derived via reflection by property names. ie access either Property1 or Property2 from the ClassB or ClassC type : public class ClassA { public virtual object Property1 { get; set; } public object Property2 { get; set; } } public class ClassB : ClassA { public override object Property1 { get; set; } } public class ClassC : ClassB { } Using simple reflection works until you have virtual properties that are overrired (ie Property1 from ClassB). Then you get a AmbiguousMatchException because the searcher don't know if you want the property of the main class or the derived. Using BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly avoid the AmbiguousMatchException but unoverrided virtual properties or derived classes properties are ommited (ie Property2 from ClassB). Is there an alternative to this poor workaround : // Get the main class property with the specified propertyName PropertyInfo propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName, BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Static); // If not found, get the property wherever it is if (propertyInfo == null) propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName); Furthermore, this workaround not resolve the reflection of 2nd level properties : getting Property1 from ClassC and AmbiguousMatchException is back. My thoughts : I have no choice except loop... Erk... ?? I'am open to Emit, Lambda (is the Expression.Call can handle this?) even DLR solution. Thanks !

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  • Setting spring bean property value using ref-bean

    - by Apache Fan
    Hi, I am trying to set a property value using spring. <bean id="velocityPropsBean" class="com.test.CustomProperties" abstract="false" singleton="true" lazy-init="false" autowire="default" dependency-check="default"> <property name="properties"> <props> <prop key="resource.loader">file</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.cache">true</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.class">org.apache.velocity.runtime.resource.loader.FileResourceLoader</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.path">NEED TO INSERT VALUE AT STARTUP</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="velocityResourcePath" class="java.lang.String" factory-bean="velocityHelper" factory-method="getLoaderPath"/> Now what i need to do is insert the result from getLoaderPath into file.resource.loader.path. The value of getLoaderPath changes so it has to be loaded at server startup. Any thoughts how i can inset the velocityResourcePath value to the property?

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  • is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution on sql server

    - by Arj
    Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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  • Can the Singleton be replaced by Factory?

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone There are already quite some posts about the Singleton-Pattern around, but I would like to start another one on this topic since I would like to know if the Factory-Pattern would be the right approach to remove this "anti-pattern". In the past I used the singleton quite a lot, also did my fellow collegues since it is so easy to use. For example, the Eclipse IDE or better its workbench-model makes heavy usage of singletons as well. It was due to some posts about E4 (the next big Eclipse version) that made me start to rethink the singleton. The bottom line was that due to this singletons the dependecies in Eclipse 3.x are tightly coupled. Lets assume I want to get rid of all singletons completely and instead use factories. My thoughts were as follows: hide complexity less coupling I have control over how many instances are created (just store the reference I a private field of the factory) mock the factory for testing (with Dependency Injection) when it is behind an interface In some cases the factories can make more than one singleton obsolete (depending on business logic/component composition) Does this make sense? If not, please give good reasons for why you think so. An alternative solution is also appreciated. Thanks Marc

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  • Using ARIMA to model and forecast stock prices using user-friendly stats program

    - by Brian
    Hi people, Can anyone please offer some insight into this for me? I'm coming from a functional magnetic resonance imaging research background where I analyzed a lot of time series data, and I'd like to analyze the time series of stock prices (or returns) by: 1) modeling a successful stock in a particular market sector and then cross-correlating the time series of this historically successful stock with that of other newer stocks to look for significant relationships; 2) model a stock's price time series and use forecasting (e.g., exponential smoothing) to predict future values of it. I'd like to use non-linear modeling methods (ARIMA and ARCH) to do this. Several questions: How often do ARIMA and ARCH modeling methods (given that the individual who implements them does so accurately) actually fit the stock time series data they target, and what is the optimal fit I can expect? Is the extent to which this model fits the data commensurate with the extent to which it predicts this stock time series' future values? Rather than randomly selecting stocks to compare or model, if profit is my goal, what is an efficient approach, if any, to selecting the stocks I'm going to analyze? Which stats program is the most user-friendly for this? Any thoughts on this would be great and would go a long way for me. Thanks, Brian

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  • Conditional "Get Script File" in Javascript without using a library function

    - by Adam
    I work at a company that has many clients that have their own website that "plugs in" to our system. In other words they have their own website and they have a link that, when the user clicks it, transitions them over to our site. There is a feature that I want to track by giving the client a small block of code to put on their homepage. Whenever the homepage is loaded with a certain query string variable I want the block of code to request a file on my server. Then on the server I'll record the tracking info based on the query string. All this would be really easy if I can guarantee that the client would be using jQuery or some similar library, but there are a lot of clients and I can't really rely on them all using jQuery. At the same time I'd like to limit the size of the block of javascript code that they paste in. I think the best solution would be to have something like: if(querystring.substring("Tracking=") > 0) { include("blah.aspx?TrackingQS=" + querystring); } but I can't find a include function in built-in javascript without calling some library like jQuery. Any thoughts?? I could do straight up AJAX but I want to limit the number of lines of code for several reasons that I won't bore you with here.

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  • t-sql most efficient row to column? for xml path, pivot

    - by ajberry
    create table _orders ( OrderId int identity(1,1) primary key nonclustered ,CustomerId int ) create table _details ( DetailId int identity(1,1) primary key nonclustered ,OrderId int ,ProductId int ) insert into _orders (CustomerId) select 1 union select 2 union select 3 insert into _details (OrderId,ProductId) select 1,100 union select 1,158 union select 1,234 union select 2,125 union select 3,105 union select 3,101 union select 3,212 union select 3,250 -- select orderid ,REPLACE(( SELECT ' ' + CAST(ProductId as varchar) FROM _details d WHERE d.OrderId = o.OrderId ORDER BY d.OrderId,d.DetailId FOR XML PATH('') ),'&#x20;','') as Products from _orders o I am looking for the most performant way to turn rows into columns. I have a requirement to output the contents of the db (not actual schema above, but concept is similar) in both fixed width and delimited formats. The above FOR XML PATH query gives me the result I want, but when dealing with anything other than small amounts of data, can take awhile. I've looked at pivot but most of the examples I have found are aggregating information. I just to combine the child rows and tack them onto the parent. For example, for an order it would need to output: OrderId,Product1,Product2,Product3,etc Thoughts or suggestions? I am using SQL Server 2k5.

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  • SQL Server: Clustering by timestamp; pros/cons

    - by Ian Boyd
    I have a table in SQL Server, where i want inserts to be added to the end of the table (as opposed to a clustering key that would cause them to be inserted in the middle). This means I want the table clustered by some column that will constantly increase. This could be achieved by clustering on a datetime column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... CreatedDate datetime DEFAULT getdate(), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (CreatedDate) ) But I can't guaranteed that two Things won't have the same time. So my requirements can't really be achieved by a datetime column. I could add a dummy identity int column, and cluster on that: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... RowID int IDENTITY(1,1), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (RowID) ) But you'll notice that my table already constains a timestamp column; a column which is guaranteed to be a monotonically increasing. This is exactly the characteristic I want for a candidate cluster key. So I cluster the table on the rowversion (aka timestamp) column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (timestamp) ) Rather than adding a dummy identity int column (RowID) to ensure an order, I use what I already have. What I'm looking for are thoughts of why this is a bad idea; and what other ideas are better. Note: Community wiki, since the answers are subjective.

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  • MySQL efficiency as it relates to the database/table size

    - by mlissner
    I'm building a system using django, Sphinx and MySQL that's very quickly becoming quite large. The database currently has about 2000 rows, and I've written a program that's going to populate it with another 40,000 rows in a couple days. Since the database is live right now, and since I've never had a database with this much information in it, I'm worried about some things: Is adding all these rows going to seriously degrade the efficiency of my django app? Will I need to go back through it and optimize all my database calls so they're doing things more cleverly? Or will this make the database slow all around to the extent that I can't do anything about it at all? If you scoff at my 40k rows, then, my next question is, at what point SHOULD I be concerned? I will likely be adding another couple hundred thousand soon, so I worry, and I fret. How is sphinx going to feel about all this? Is it going to freak out when it realizes it has to index all this data? Or will it be fine? Is this normal for it? If it is, at what point should I be concerned that it's too much data for Sphinx? Thanks for any thoughts.

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  • Optimizing processing and management of large Java data arrays

    - by mikera
    I'm writing some pretty CPU-intensive, concurrent numerical code that will process large amounts of data stored in Java arrays (e.g. lots of double[100000]s). Some of the algorithms might run millions of times over several days so getting maximum steady-state performance is a high priority. In essence, each algorithm is a Java object that has an method API something like: public double[] runMyAlgorithm(double[] inputData); or alternatively a reference could be passed to the array to store the output data: public runMyAlgorithm(double[] inputData, double[] outputData); Given this requirement, I'm trying to determine the optimal strategy for allocating / managing array space. Frequently the algorithms will need large amounts of temporary storage space. They will also take large arrays as input and create large arrays as output. Among the options I am considering are: Always allocate new arrays as local variables whenever they are needed (e.g. new double[100000]). Probably the simplest approach, but will produce a lot of garbage. Pre-allocate temporary arrays and store them as final fields in the algorithm object - big downside would be that this would mean that only one thread could run the algorithm at any one time. Keep pre-allocated temporary arrays in ThreadLocal storage, so that a thread can use a fixed amount of temporary array space whenever it needs it. ThreadLocal would be required since multiple threads will be running the same algorithm simultaneously. Pass around lots of arrays as parameters (including the temporary arrays for the algorithm to use). Not good since it will make the algorithm API extremely ugly if the caller has to be responsible for providing temporary array space.... Allocate extremely large arrays (e.g. double[10000000]) but also provide the algorithm with offsets into the array so that different threads will use a different area of the array independently. Will obviously require some code to manage the offsets and allocation of the array ranges. Any thoughts on which approach would be best (and why)?

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  • Trying to set up nested while loops using a boolean switch

    - by thorn100
    First time posting. I'm trying to set up a while loop that will ask the user for the employee name, hours worked and hourly wage until the user enters 'DONE'. Eventually I'll modify the code to calculate the weekly pay and write it to a list, but one thing at a time. The problem is once the main while loop executes once, it just stops. Doesn't error out but just stops. I have to kill the program to get it to stop. I want it to ask the three questions again and again until the user is finished. Thoughts? Please note that this is just an exercise and not meant for any real world application. def getName(): """Asks for the employee's full name""" firstName=raw_input("\nWhat is your first name? ") lastName=raw_input("\nWhat is your last name? ") fullName=firstName.title() + " " + lastName.title() return fullName def getHours(): """Asks for the number of hours the employee worked""" hoursWorked=0 while int(hoursWorked)<1 or int(hoursWorked) > 60: hoursWorked=raw_input("\nHow many hours did the employee work: ") if int(hoursWorked)<1 or int(hoursWorked) > 60: print "Please enter an integer between 1 and 60." else: return hoursWorked def getWage(): """Asks for the employee's hourly wage""" wage=0 while float(wage)<6.00 or float(wage)>20.00: wage=raw_input("\nWhat is the employee's hourly wage: ") if float(wage)<6.00 or float(wage)>20.00: print ("Please enter an hourly wage between $6.00 and $20.00") else: return wage ##sentry variables employeeName="" employeeHours=0 employeeWage=0 booleanDone=False #Enter employee info print "Please enter payroll information for an employee or enter 'DONE' to quit." while booleanDone==False: while employeeName=="": employeeName=getName() if employeeName.lower()=="done": booleanDone=True break print "The employee's name is", employeeName while employeeHours==0: employeeHours=getHours() if employeeHours.lower()=="done": booleanDone=True break print employeeName, "worked", employeeHours, "this week." while employeeWage==0: employeeWage=getWage() if employeeWage.lower()=="done": booleanDone=True break print employeeName + "'s hourly wage is $" + employeeWage

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  • Email as a view.

    - by Hal
    I've been in some discussion recently about where email (notifications, etc...) should be sent in an ASP.NET MVC application. My nemesis grin argues that it only makes sense that the email should be sent from the controller. I argue that an email is simply an alternate or augmented view through a different channel. Much like I would download a file as the payload of an ActionResult, the email is simply delivered through a different protocol. I've worked an extension method that allows me to do the following: <% Html.RenderEmail(model.FromAddress, model.ToAddress, model.Subject); %> which I actually include within my the view that is displayed on the screen. The beauty is that, based on convention, if I call RenderEmail from a parent view named MyView.ascx, I attempt to render the contents of a view named MyViewEmail.ascx, unless it is not found, in which case I simply email a copy of parent view. It certainly does make it testable (I still have an ISMTPService injected for testing), I wondered if anyone had any thoughts on whether or not this breaks from good practice. In use it has been extremely handy when we needed to easily send an email or modify the contents of the emailed results vs the browser rendered results. Thanks, Hal

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  • Link click does nothing after ajax switching?

    - by Neil
    An odd case I'm trying to figure out here. I'm trying to design a mailbox system, and making some of the options ajax-y. Here's the scenario: We have a page with 2 tabs, inbox and compose. Inbox is a essentially a list of links of the form mailbox.php?msg=xxx. Clicking on the inbox or compose tabs does an ajax switch. So, let's say we're on an message page: mailbox.php?msg=123 I click on "compose" - it ajax switches to a compose form. I change my mind, click on "inbox" - it goes back to a list of messages. Note, the url has not changed at this point (all has been done through ajax). I click on the same message as before. It should go back into that message. However, nothing happens! The url it should go to (mailbox.php?msg=123) IS the url showing in the address bar, but, due to the earlier ajax activity, it's showing the inbox. Thoughts on how to resolve this? And, out of curiosity, an explanation? Normally, clicking on a link that takes you to a page you're already on will reload the page. Thanks!

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  • SSH traffic over openvpn freezes under weird circumstances

    - by user289581
    I have an openvpn (version 2.1_rc15 at both ends) connection setup between two gentoo boxes using shared keys. it works fine for the most part. I use mysql, http, ftp, scp over the vpn with no problems. But when I ssh from the client to the server over the vpn, weird things happen. I can login, i can execute some commands. But if i try to run an ncurses application like top, or i try to cat a file, the connection will stall and I'll have to sever the ssh session. I can, for example, execute "echo blah; echo .; echo blah" and it will output the three lines of text over the ssh session fine. But if i execute "cat /etc/motd" the session will freeze the moment I press enter. While it seems like a terminal emulation problem it makes no sense why using the vpn would affect the ability for ssh to render things correctly. I am at a loss to explain why everything else works, including scp, but ssh just breaks over the vpn. Any thoughts ?

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