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  • Problem getting Java Streams in HP Tandem (Non-Stop)

    - by AndreaG
    Hi. We are porting a simple Java application between Tandem NonStop systems, from G-Series to H-Series. Java version is 1.5.0_02. When performing basic I/O tasks like getting output stream from or opening a client socket, we receive exceptions like java.io.IOException: Value out of range or java.net.SocketException: Value out of range ("value out of range" is Tandem native jargon for, well, quite everything I suppose). Has anybody got similar issues? i.e. I/O corruption while for example messing with JNI? I suppose there is something wrong with the system, but where might it be? Thank you. EDIT: adding snippets as requested sample snippet (a) - using Runtime.exec () (adapted) Properties envVars = new Properties(); Process p = r.exec("/bin/env"); envVars.load(p.getInputStream()); Stack trace (a): java.io.IOException: Value out of range (errno:4034) at java.io.FileInputStream.readBytes(Native Method) at java.io.FileInputStream.read(FileInputStream.java:194) at java.lang.UNIXProcess$DeferredCloseInputStream.read(UNIXProcess.java:221) at java.io.BufferedInputStream.read1(BufferedInputStream.java:254) at java.io.BufferedInputStream.read(BufferedInputStream.java:313) at sun.nio.cs.StreamDecoder$CharsetSD.readBytes(StreamDecoder.java:411) at sun.nio.cs.StreamDecoder$CharsetSD.implRead(StreamDecoder.java:453) at sun.nio.cs.StreamDecoder.read(StreamDecoder.java:183) at java.io.InputStreamReader.read(InputStreamReader.java:167) at java.io.BufferedReader.fill(BufferedReader.java:136) at java.io.BufferedReader.readLine(BufferedReader.java:299) at java.io.BufferedReader.readLine(BufferedReader.java:362) at util.Environment.getVariables(Environment.java:39) Last line fails, and output gets redirected to console (!). sample snippet (b) - using HttpURLConnection: public WorkerThread (HttpURLConnection conn, String requestData, Logger logger) { this.conn = conn; ... } public void run () { OutputStream out = conn.getOutputStream (); } Stack trace (b): java.net.SocketException: Value out of range (errno:4034) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:507) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:155) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:365) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:477) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.<init>(HttpsClient.java:280) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:337) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:176) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:736) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:162) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getOutputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:828) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getOutputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:230) Case (a) can be avoided because it was a workaround for other issues with previous JRE version (!), but same behaviour with sockets is really nasty.

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  • Non-linear regression models in PostgreSQL using R

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background I have climate data (temperature, precipitation, snow depth) for all of Canada between 1900 and 2009. I have written a basic website and the simplest page allows users to choose category and city. They then get back a very simple report (without the parameters and calculations section): The primary purpose of the web application is to provide a simple user interface so that the general public can explore the data in meaningful ways. (A list of numbers is not meaningful to the general public, nor is a website that provides too many inputs.) The secondary purpose of the application is to provide climatologists and other scientists with deeper ways to view the data. (Using too many inputs, of course.) Tool Set The database is PostgreSQL with R (mostly) installed. The reports are written using iReport and generated using JasperReports. Poor Model Choice Currently, a linear regression model is applied against annual averages of daily data. The linear regression model is calculated within a PostgreSQL function as follows: SELECT regr_slope( amount, year_taken ), regr_intercept( amount, year_taken ), corr( amount, year_taken ) FROM temp_regression INTO STRICT slope, intercept, correlation; The results are returned to JasperReports using: SELECT year_taken, amount, year_taken * slope + intercept, slope, intercept, correlation, total_measurements INTO result; JasperReports calls into PostgreSQL using the following parameterized analysis function: SELECT year_taken, amount, measurements, regression_line, slope, intercept, correlation, total_measurements, execute_time FROM climate.analysis( $P{CityId}, $P{Elevation1}, $P{Elevation2}, $P{Radius}, $P{CategoryId}, $P{Year1}, $P{Year2} ) ORDER BY year_taken This is not an optimal solution because it gives the false impression that the climate is changing at a slow, but steady rate. Questions Using functions that take two parameters (e.g., year [X] and amount [Y]), such as PostgreSQL's regr_slope: What is a better regression model to apply? What CPAN-R packages provide such models? (Installable, ideally, using apt-get.) How can the R functions be called within a PostgreSQL function? If no such functions exist: What parameters should I try to obtain for functions that will produce the desired fit? How would you recommend showing the best fit curve? Keep in mind that this is a web app for use by the general public. If the only way to analyse the data is from an R shell, then the purpose has been defeated. (I know this is not the case for most R functions I have looked at so far.) Thank you!

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  • Outlook Marking Email as Junk Email

    - by robertabead
    I know. I sound like a spammer but these emails are completely legitimate email confirmations for people that have signed up for an account on this website we developed. These emails all make it through to various mail providers (gmail, yahoo, aol, hotmail/live) but they always get directed into the Outlook Junk Email folder. I am have tried using Zend Framework mail, PEAR Mail and phpMailer. All of those methods result in the same thing happening. This seemed to start happening after Microsoft released their update to the Outlook Junk Email filter in January of this year. Following is the code in question: include_once('Mail.php'); include_once('Mail/mime.php'); $hdrs = array( 'From' => "Membership <[email protected]>", 'Subject' => 'Test Email', 'Reply-To'=> "[email protected]", 'Message-ID'=> "<" . str_pad(rand(0,12345678),8,'0',STR_PAD_LEFT) . "@mail.example.com>", 'Date'=> date("D, j M Y H:i:s O",time()), 'To'=> '[email protected]' ); $params = array('host'=>'mail.example.com','auth'=>false,'localhost' => 'www.example.com','debug'=>false); $crlf = "\n"; $mime = new Mail_mime($crlf); $mime->setTXTBody("TEST"); $mime->setHTMLBody("<html>\n<body>\nTest\n</body>\n</html>"); $body = $mime->get(); $hdrs = $mime->headers($hdrs); $mail =& Mail::factory('smtp',$params); $t=$mail->send('[email protected]', $hdrs, $body); As you can see we are using the PEAR Mail functionality in this test. This is the most basic test we could run and the above generated email gets dumped into the Outlook Junk Email folder. We have reverse DNS on the mail server and it matches the forward DNS, SPF and DKIM are set up and there is nothing "spammy" with the above content. Can anybody see something with the above code that could cause Outlook to mark it as Junk? Thanks!

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  • Best practices for developing simple ASP.NET sites (built in controls or JQuery + scripts)

    - by Nix
    I was recently reviewing some code written by two different contractors, both were basic ASP.NET management sites. The sites allowed the user to view and edit data. Pretty much simple CRUD gateways. One group did their best to use built in ASP + AJAX Toolkit controls and did their best to use as many built in controls as possible. I found the code much easier to read and maintain. The other used jQuery and the code is heavily marked up with script blocks which are then used to build pages from javascript files. Which one is more common? The one that basically leveraged embedded HTML markup in scripts controled by javascript files screams readability and maintenance issues? Is this just the way of doing asp dev with jQuery? Assuming the second example happens a lot, are there tools that help facilitate jQuery development with visual studio? Do you think they generated the html somewhere else and just copied it in? Example Script block: <script id="HRPanel" type="text/html"> <table cellpadding='0' cellspacing='0' class="atable"><thead class="mHeader"><tr><th>Name</th><th>Description</th><th>Other</th></thead><tbody> <# for(var i=0; i < hrRows.length; i++) { var r = HRRows[i]; #> <tr><td><#=r.Name#></td><td><#=r.Description#></td><td class="taRight"><#=r.Other#></td></tr> <#}#> </tbody><tfoot><th></th><th></th><th></th></tfoot></table> </script> Then in a separate location (js file) you would see something like this. $("#HRPanel").html($("#HRPanel").parseTemplate({ HRRows: response.something.bah.bah }));

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  • Correlated SQL Join Query from multiple tables

    - by SooDesuNe
    I have two tables like the ones below. I need to find what exchangeRate was in effect at the dateOfPurchase. I've tried some correlated sub queries, but I'm having difficulty getting the correlated record to be used in the sub queries. I expect a solution will need to follow this basic outline: SELECT only the exchangeRates for the applicable countryCode From 1. SELECT the newest exchangeRate less than the dateOfPurchase Fill in the query table with all the fields from 2. and the purchasesTable. My Tables: purchasesTable: > dateOfPurchase | costOfPurchase | countryOfPurchase > 29-March-2010 | 20.00 | EUR > 29-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN > 30-March-2010 | 50.00 | EUR > 30-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN > 30-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN > 31-March-2010 | 100.00 | EUR > 31-March-2010 | 125.00 | EUR > 31-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN > 31-March-2010 | 2400 | JPN costOfPurchase is in whatever the local currency is for a given countryCode exchangeRateTable > effectiveDate | countryCode | exchangeRate > 29-March-2010 | JPN | 90 > 29-March-2010 | EUR | 1.75 > 30-March-2010 | JPN | 92 > 31-March-2010 | JPN | 91 The results of the query that I'm looking for: > dateOfPurchase | costOfPurchase | countryOfPurchase | exchangeRate > 29-March-2010 | 20.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 29-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN | 90 > 30-March-2010 | 50.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 30-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN | 92 > 30-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN | 92 > 31-March-2010 | 100.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 31-March-2010 | 125.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 31-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN | 91 > 31-March-2010 | 2400 | JPN | 91 So for example in the results, the exchange rate, in effect for EUR on 31-March was 1.75. I'm using Access, but a MySQL answer would be fine too. UPDATE: Modification to Allan's answer: SELECT dateOfPurchase, costOfPurchase, countryOfPurchase, exchangeRate FROM purchasesTable p LEFT OUTER JOIN (SELECT e1.exchangeRate, e1.countryCode, e1.effectiveDate, min(e2.effectiveDate) AS enddate FROM exchangeRateTable e1 LEFT OUTER JOIN exchangeRateTable e2 ON e1.effectiveDate < e2.effectiveDate AND e1.countryCode = e2.countryCode GROUP BY e1.exchangeRate, e1.countryCode, e1.effectiveDate) e ON p.dateOfPurchase >= e.effectiveDate AND (p.dateOfPurchase < e.enddate OR e.enddate is null) AND p.countryOfPurchase = e.countryCode I had to make a couple small changes.

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  • Determining what frequencies correspond to the x axis in aurioTouch sample application

    - by eagle
    I'm looking at the aurioTouch sample application for the iPhone SDK. It has a basic spectrum analyzer implemented when you choose the "FFT" option. One of the things the app is lacking is X axis labels (i.e. the frequency labels). In the aurioTouchAppDelegate.mm file, in the function - (void)drawOscilloscope at line 652, it has the following code: if (displayMode == aurioTouchDisplayModeOscilloscopeFFT) { if (fftBufferManager->HasNewAudioData()) { if (fftBufferManager->ComputeFFT(l_fftData)) [self setFFTData:l_fftData length:fftBufferManager->GetNumberFrames() / 2]; else hasNewFFTData = NO; } if (hasNewFFTData) { int y, maxY; maxY = drawBufferLen; for (y=0; y<maxY; y++) { CGFloat yFract = (CGFloat)y / (CGFloat)(maxY - 1); CGFloat fftIdx = yFract * ((CGFloat)fftLength); double fftIdx_i, fftIdx_f; fftIdx_f = modf(fftIdx, &fftIdx_i); SInt8 fft_l, fft_r; CGFloat fft_l_fl, fft_r_fl; CGFloat interpVal; fft_l = (fftData[(int)fftIdx_i] & 0xFF000000) >> 24; fft_r = (fftData[(int)fftIdx_i + 1] & 0xFF000000) >> 24; fft_l_fl = (CGFloat)(fft_l + 80) / 64.; fft_r_fl = (CGFloat)(fft_r + 80) / 64.; interpVal = fft_l_fl * (1. - fftIdx_f) + fft_r_fl * fftIdx_f; interpVal = CLAMP(0., interpVal, 1.); drawBuffers[0][y] = (interpVal * 120); } cycleOscilloscopeLines(); } } From my understanding, this part of the code is what is used to decide which magnitude to draw for each frequency in the UI. My question is how can I determine what frequency each iteration (or y value) represents inside the for loop. For example, if I want to know what the magnitude is for 6kHz, I'm thinking of adding a line similar to the following: if (yValueRepresentskHz(y, 6)) NSLog(@"The magnitude for 6kHz is %f", (interpVal * 120)); Please note that although they chose to use the variable name y, from what I understand, it actually represents the x-axis in the visual graph of the spectrum analyzer, and the value of the drawBuffers[0][y] represents the y-axis.

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  • Why does UIWebKit throw a structuralComplexityContribution exception?

    - by Axeva
    I've got a simple UIWebView in my iPhone app that's loading a XHTML document with some SGV embeded. This all works find on the desktop version of Safari, but it crashes in a UIWebView. Here is the Objective C: NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"test" ofType:@"html"]; NSData *fileData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfFile: path]; [svgView loadData: fileData MIMEType: @"text/xml" textEncodingName: @"UTF-8" baseURL: [NSURL fileURLWithPath: path]]; I also tried a MIMEType of application/xhtml+xml, but it didn't help. Here is the HTML: <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>XTech SVG Demo</title> </head> <body> <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> <g style="fill-opacity:0.7;"> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:red; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(0,50)" /> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:blue; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(70,150)" /> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:green; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(-70,150)"/> </g> </svg> </body> </html> All very basic stuff. When it loads on the iPhone, however, it crashes with this error: 2010-03-31 10:37:10.252 ColorDoodle[2014:20b] -[DOMElement structuralComplexityContribution]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3e51b60 2010-03-31 10:37:10.253 ColorDoodle[2014:20b] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: ' -[DOMElement structuralComplexityContribution]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3e51b60' Any idea why? Is this a bug in the rendering engine of the UIWebView? I don't see anything too odd here. * Updated * There is definitely something screwy going on here. If I add this bit of code just inside the tag, it works fine: <form> </form> Take that code back out, and it crashes again.

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  • PHP fopen returning null on files that work fine with include and get_file_contents

    - by brad allred
    Hi, I have XAMPP installed on a windows 2000 server. everything is working great except the PHP fopen function. I can neither create nor open files with it. the strange thing is that i can include/require/file_get_contents/other file related functions; also fopen does not generate any errors or notices it just returns NULL. I have gone as far as to grant full control of the file and all enclosing folders to everybody but i still get NULL instead of a file pointer. I have tried this on php 5.2.9, 5.2.13, and 5.3.1 with the same effect. i have gone through the php.ini file looking for something that is breaking it; i have even tried deleting and using the basic ini file from a linux box where fopen is working and still nothing. I know i have to restart apache after changing my ini and all that and have been (I have even restarted the server) so thats not it. I am at this poing assuming it is an apache configuration issue somehow, tomorrow im going to run a test through php-cli to make sure. I really don't want to bruise my head anymore over this can some apache/php wizard come to my aid? Hi guys, thanks for the responses. you are right is is not any config problem. the problem has to be with one of my dlls or one of my included files. I just tried the same code that isn't working in a new file without any include and i disabled my custom libraries and it worked. for the record here is what I was doing that wasn't working: $test_file = 'c:\\test.csv';//everybody has full control. is very large. if(file_exists($test_file) && is_readable($test_file)){ $fp = fopen($test_file, 'r'); echo var_export($fp, true);//outputs NULL. on my linux box this is a number. if($fp !== false){ //do the work fread($fp, 10);//throws the error that $fp is not a valid file handle } } something that i am including must be breaking fopen somehow. works as expected in new file with no includes.

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  • Binding Silverlight UserControl custom properties to its' elements

    - by ghostskunks
    Hi. I'm trying to make a simple crossword puzzle game in Silverlight 2.0. I'm working on a UserControl-ish component that represents a square in the puzzle. I'm having trouble with binding up my UserControl's properties with its' elements. I've finally (sort of) got it working (may be helpful to some - it took me a few long hours), but wanted to make it more 'elegant'. I've imagined it should have a compartment for the content and a label (in the upper right corner) that optionally contains its' number. The content control probably be a TextBox, while label control could be a TextBlock. So I created a UserControl with this basic structure (the values are hardcoded at this stage): <UserControl x:Class="XWord.Square" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" FontSize="30" Width="100" Height="100"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="*"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock x:Name="Label" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" Text="7"/> <TextBox x:Name="Content" Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="0" Text="A" BorderThickness="0" /> </Grid> </UserControl> I've also created DependencyProperties in the Square class like this: public static readonly DependencyProperty LabelTextProperty; public static readonly DependencyProperty ContentCharacterProperty; // ...(static constructor with property registration, .NET properties // omitted for brevity)... Now I'd like to figure out how to bind the Label and Content element to the two properties. I do it like this (in the code-behind file): Label.SetBinding( TextBlock.TextProperty, new Binding { Source = this, Path = new PropertyPath( "LabelText" ), Mode = BindingMode.OneWay } ); Content.SetBinding( TextBox.TextProperty, new Binding { Source = this, Path = new PropertyPath( "ContentCharacter" ), Mode = BindingMode.TwoWay } ); That would be more elegant done in XAML. Does anyone know how that's done?

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  • NSString stringWithFormat swizzled to allow missing format numbered args

    - by coneybeare
    Based on this SO question asked a few hours ago, I have decided to implement a swizzled method that will allow me to take a formatted NSString as the format arg into stringWithFormat, and have it not break when omitting one of the numbered arg references (%1$@, %2$@) I have it working, but this is the first copy, and seeing as this method is going to be potentially called hundreds of thousands of times per app run, I need to bounce this off of some experts to see if this method has any red flags, major performance hits, or optimizations #define NUMARGS(...) (sizeof((int[]){__VA_ARGS__})/sizeof(int)) @implementation NSString (UAFormatOmissions) + (id)uaStringWithFormat:(NSString *)format, ... { if (format != nil) { va_list args; va_start(args, format); // $@ is an ordered variable (%1$@, %2$@...) if ([format rangeOfString:@"$@"].location == NSNotFound) { //call apples method NSString *s = [[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:format arguments:args] autorelease]; va_end(args); return s; } NSMutableArray *newArgs = (NSMutableArray *)[NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:NUMARGS(args)]; id arg = nil; int i = 1; while (arg = va_arg(args, id)) { NSString *f = (NSString *)[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%%%d\$\@", i]; i++; if ([format rangeOfString:f].location == NSNotFound) continue; else [newArgs addObject:arg]; } va_end(args); char *newArgList = (char *)malloc(sizeof(id) * [newArgs count]); [newArgs getObjects:(id *)newArgList]; NSString* result = [[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:format arguments:newArgList] autorelease]; free(newArgList); return result; } return nil; } The basic algorithm is: search the format string for the %1$@, %2$@ variables by searching for %@ if not found, call the normal stringWithFormat and return else, loop over the args if the format has a position variable (%i$@) for position i, add the arg to the new arg array else, don't add the arg take the new arg array, convert it back into a va_list, and call initWithFormat:arguments: to get the correct string. The idea is that I would run all [NSString stringWithFormat:] calls through this method instead. This might seem unnecessary to many, but click on to the referenced SO question (first line) to see examples of why I need to do this. Ideas? Thoughts? Better implementations? Better Solutions?

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  • Android app crashes when I change the default xml layout file to another

    - by mib1413456
    I am currently just starting to learn android development and have created a basic "Hello world" app that uses "activity_main.xml" for the default layout. I tried to create a new layout xml file called "new_layout.xml" with a text view, a text field and a button and did the following changes in the MainActivity.java file: setContentView(R.layout.new_layout); I did nothing else expect for adding a new_layout.xml in the res/layout folder, I have tried restarting and cleaning the project but nothing. Below is my activity_main.xml file, new_layout.xml file and MainActivity.java activity_main.xml: <FrameLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:id="@+id/container" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" tools:context="org.example.androidsdk.demo.MainActivity" tools:ignore="MergeRootFrame" /> new_layout.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:orientation="horizontal" > <TextView android:id="@+id/textView1" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="TextView" /> <EditText android:id="@+id/editText1" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1" android:ems="10" > <requestFocus /> </EditText> <Button android:id="@+id/button1" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Button" /> MainActivity.java file package org.example.androidsdk.demo; import android.app.Activity; import android.app.ActionBar; import android.app.Fragment; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.LayoutInflater; import android.view.Menu; import android.view.MenuItem; import android.view.View; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.os.Build; public class MainActivity extends Activity { @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.new_layout); if (savedInstanceState == null) { getFragmentManager().beginTransaction() .add(R.id.container, new PlaceholderFragment()) .commit(); } } @Override public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { // Inflate the menu; this adds items to the action bar if it is present. getMenuInflater().inflate(R.menu.main, menu); return true; } @Override public boolean onOptionsItemSelected(MenuItem item) { // Handle action bar item clicks here. The action bar will // automatically handle clicks on the Home/Up button, so long // as you specify a parent activity in AndroidManifest.xml. int id = item.getItemId(); if (id == R.id.action_settings) { return true; } return super.onOptionsItemSelected(item); } /** * A placeholder fragment containing a simple view. */ public static class PlaceholderFragment extends Fragment { public PlaceholderFragment() { } @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup container, Bundle savedInstanceState) { View rootView = inflater.inflate(R.layout.fragment_main, container, false); return rootView; } } }

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  • Any software for pattern-matching and -rewriting source code?

    - by Steven A. Lowe
    I have some old software (in a language that's not dead but is dead to me ;-)) that implements a basic pattern-matching and -rewriting system for source code. I am considering resurrecting this code, translating it into a modern language, and open-sourcing the project as a refactoring power-tool. Before I go much further, I want to know if anything like this exists already (my google-fu is fanning air on this tonight). Here's how it works: the pattern-matching part matches source-code patterns spanning multiple lines of code using a template with binding variables, the pattern-rewriting part uses a template to rewrite the matched code, inserting the contents of the bound variables from the matching template matching and rewriting templates are associated (1:1) by a simple (unconditional) rewrite rule the software operates on the abstract syntax tree (AST) of the input application, and outputs a modified AST which can then be regenerated into new source code for example, suppose we find a bunch of while-loops that really should be for-loops. The following template will match the while-loop pattern: Template oldLoopPtrn int @cnt@ = 0; while (@cnt@ < @max@) { … @body@ ++@cnt@; } End_Template while the following template will specify the output rewrite pattern: Template newLoopPtrn for(int @cnt@ = 0; @cnt@ < @max@; @cnt@++) { @body@ } End_Template and a simple rule to associate them Rule oldLoopPtrn --> newLoopPtrn so code that looks like this int i=0; while(i<arrlen) { printf("element %d: %f\n",i,arr[i]); ++i; } gets automatically rewritten to look like this for(int i = 0; i < arrlen; i++) { printf("element %d: %f\n",i,arr[i]); } The closest thing I've seen like this is some of the code-refactoring tools, but they seem to be geared towards interactive rewriting of selected snippets, not wholesale automated changes. I believe that this kind of tool could supercharge refactoring, and would work on multiple languages (even HTML/CSS). I also believe that converting and polishing the code base would be a huge project that I simply cannot do alone in any reasonable amount of time. So, anything like this out there already? If not, any obvious features (besides rewrite-rule conditions) to consider? EDIT: The one feature of this system that I like very much is that the template patterns are fairly obvious and easy to read because they're written in the same language as the target source code, not in some esoteric mutated regex/BNF format.

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  • UIViewController not oreintating. Methods not called

    - by capple
    Greetings, This question does seem to be an ongoing saga in the world of iphone SDK... so heres my contribution... Had two separate projects from the same template... one semi-works, the other not at all... Please let me explain my steps... used this basic GL ES template //iphonedevelopment.blogspot.com/2008/12/opengl-project-template-for-xcode.html had to sort out some of the 'Release' configuration but otherwises has eveything I need to add orientation to a GL ES project. One my first project, did my stuff, then added these methods.... -(BOOL)shouldAutoRotateToInterfaceOrientation ..... -(void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation .... -(void)didRotateFromInterfaceOrientation .... -(void)willAnimateRotationToInterfaceOrientation .... And understand what they do (or are trying to do in my case), the (BOOL)should... gets called once when the view controller is created, and returns 'YES'. But after that none of the other methods are called! So I started from scratch with a blank template (GL ES one from above)...and added minimum to support auto rotation. But this time none of the methods get called! So I investigated .... //developer.apple.com/iphone/library/qa/qa2010/qa1688.html as it said, I added the GLViewController.view first, then added the GLview as subviews of the application delegate. Nothing! Then found this //www.iphonedevsdk.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/44993-how-determine-ipad-launch-orientation.html which states to enable orientation notifications [[UIDevice currentDevice] beginGeneratingDeviceOrientationNotifications]; and then subsequently disable them in the view controller... makes sense...did it, nothing... I think the notifications might be on by default though, since I didn't need to enable them in the first project, yet it still try to verify a orientation (i.e (BOOL)shouldAutoRotate... )... If any one could help me out it would be greatly appreciated as this issue is driving me insane. Thanks in advance. The code can be found here ... http://rapidshare.com/files/392053688/autoRotation.zip N.B These projects avoid nib/xib resources, would like to keep it that way if possible. P.S iPad device not out where I am so I cannot test on a device yet. Would be nice for it to work on the simulator.

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  • SSIS DTS Package flat file error - "The file name specified in the connection was not valid"

    - by MisterZimbu
    I have a pretty basic SSIS package that is attempting to read a file hosted on a share, and import its contents to a database table. The package runs fine when I run it manually within SSIS. However, when I set up a SQL Agent job and attempt to execute it, I get the following error: Executed as user: DOMAIN\UserName. Microsoft (R) SQL Server Execute Package Utility Version 9.00.3042.00 for 64-bit Copyright (C) Microsoft Corp 1984-2005. All rights reserved. Started: 10:14:17 AM Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401E Source: DataImport Connection manager "Data File Local" Description: The file name "\10.1.1.159\llpf\datafile.dat" specified in the connection was not valid. End Error Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401D Source: DataAnimalImport Description: Connection "Data File Local" failed validation. End Error DTExec: The package execution returned DTSER_FAILURE (1). Started: 10:14:17 AM Finished: 10:14:17 AM Elapsed: 0.594 seconds. The package execution failed. The step failed. This leads me to believe it's a permissions issue, but every attempt I've made to fix it has failed. What I've tried so far: Run as the SQL Agent account (DOMAIN\SqlAgent) - yields same error. DOMAIN\SqlAgent has "Full Control" permissions on both the share and the uploaded file. Set up a proxy account with a different account's credentials (DOMAIN\Account) - yields same error. Like above, "Full Control" permissions were given over the share to that account. Gave "Everyone" full control permissions over the share (temporarily!). Yielded same error. Manually copied the file to a local path and tested with the SQL Agent account. Worked properly. Added an ActiveX script task that would first copy the remotely hosted file to a local path, and then have the DTS package reference the local file. Gave a completely nondescriptive (even by SSIS standards) error when trying to run the script. Set up a proxy account, using my own personal account's credentials - worked correctly. However, this is not an acceptable solution as there are password policies in place on my account, as well as being a bad practice to set things up this way in general. Any ideas? I'm still convinced it's a permissions issue. However, what I've read from various searches more or less says giving the executing account permissions on the share should work. However, this is not the case here (unless I'm missing something obscure when I'm setting up permissions on the share).

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  • Serializing Class Derived from Generic Collection yet Deserializing the Generic Collection

    - by Stacey
    I have a Repository Class with the following method... public T Single<T>(Predicate<T> expression) { using (var list = (Models.Collectable<T>)System.Xml.Serializer.Deserialize(typeof(Models.Collectable<T>), FileName)) { return list.Find(expression); } } Where Collectable is defined.. [Serializable] public class Collectable<T> : List<T>, IDisposable { public Collectable() { } public void Dispose() { } } And an Item that uses it is defined.. [Serializable] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRoot("Titles")] public partial class Titles : Collectable<Title> { } The problem is when I call the method, it expects "Collectable" to be the XmlRoot, but the XmlRoot is "Titles" (all of object Title). I have several classes that are collected in .xml files like this, but it seems pointless to rewrite the basic methods for loading each up when the generic accessors do it - but how can I enforce the proper root name for each file without hard coding methods for each one? The [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRoot] seems to be ignored. When called like this... var titles = Repository.List<Models.Title>(); I get the exception <Titlesxmlns=''> was not expected. The XML is formatted such as. .. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <Titles xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Title> <Id>442daf7d-193c-4da8-be0b-417cec9dc1c5</Id> </Title> </Titles> Here is the deserialization code. public static T Deserialize<T>(String xmlString) { System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer XmlFormatSerializer = new System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); StreamReader XmlStringReader = new StreamReader(xmlString); //XmlTextReader XmlFormatReader = new XmlTextReader(XmlStringReader); try { return (T)XmlFormatSerializer.Deserialize(XmlStringReader); } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } finally { XmlStringReader.Close(); } }

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  • CSS Background image arbitrarily not getting requested at all

    - by Pekka
    I`m in the process of building a template for Redmine (a project management system based on Ruby on Rails.) Ruby is running on a virtual server from a Bitnami.org installation package. The OS is Windows. The template essentially consists of a styles.css file. In that file, I have the following line: #header { padding: 0px; padding-top: 48px; background-color: #62DFFF; background-image: url(../images/bkg.jpg); background-position: center bottom; background-repeat: repeat-x; height:150px; } It's a header element with a background image. The problem: This background image arbitrarily appears and disappears when reloading the page. It is more often missing than it is not. Say you reload the page in your browser ten times in twenty seconds; the image will appear in two instances, and be missing in the 18 others. I would have put this down to server problems, but the weird thing is that when it's missing, the request for the image doesn't appear in Firebug's net tab at all. Even if it were cached, the request should be there, shouldn't it? Raw screenshots of the identical page on two reloads: I am 100% sure the CSS file does not change in between. I have examined both instances with Firebug and the CSS is identical. When I change the image's URL by editing the style declaration in firebug to bkg.jpg?xyz=123445 then the image will get loaded, which is making me think this must be a server problem. It happens in both Firefox and Chrome so it must be something basic I'm overlooking. What could be causing a browser not to load a resource at all? I have zero idea about Ruby nor Rails - getting Redmine running and customized is all I have ever had to do with this platform - so I don't really know where to start debugging. Apache's, Mongrel's and Redmine's error logs look fine, though. And then again, this looks like a browser issue. I'm stumped.

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  • N2 CMS SlidingCurtain control is not visible

    - by Carl Raymond
    I just set up a new N2 site by starting with the MVC 2 Web Application template in Visual Studio, then following the directions in N2 CMS Developer Documentation in the section Integrating with Existing ASP.NET MVC Application. I have the basic site running now, but with one problem: the sliding curtain widget that holds the administrative controls is not visible in the upper right corner (when logged in, of course). I can make it visible the hard way by using Firebug to locate it in the DOM, and then disabling a couple of the CSS positioning elements. Once I do that, it seems to work normally. After I open it that way, I can click the various controls, or close it up (and I see the animation). But then it's off screen again. My master page has the sliding curtain just inside the <body> tag: <body> <n2:SlidingCurtain runat="server"> <n2:ControlPanel runat="server" /> </n2:SlidingCurtain> ... The site.css file generated in the base MVC site doesn't seem to do any positioning that would affect this. Firebug shows that right after by <body> tag, I have this: <div class="sc" id="SC" style="top: -2px; left: -574px;"><div class="scContent"> .... The style for <div class="sc" ...> is element.style { left:-574px; top:-2px; } .sc { background:#FFFFFF none repeat-x scroll 0 0; border-color:#CCCCBB; border-style:none solid solid none; border-width:1px; left:-200px; position:fixed; top:-200px; z-index:990; } If I disable both top: and both left: rules, the widget appears.

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  • Need help with Xpath methods in javascript (selectSingleNode, selectNodes)

    - by Andrija
    I want to optimize my javascript but I ran into a bit of trouble. I'm using XSLT transformation and the basic idea is to get a part of the XML and subquery it so the calls are faster and less expensive. This is a part of the XML: <suite> <table id="spis" runat="client"> <rows> <row id="spis_1"> <dispatch>'2008', '288627'</dispatch> <data col="urGod"> <title>2008</title> <description>Ur. god.</description> </data> <data col="rbr"> <title>288627</title> <description>Rbr.</description> </data> ... </rows> </table> </suite> In the page, this is the javascript that works with this: // this is my global variable for getting the elements so I just get the most // I can in one call elemCollection = iDom3.Table.all["spis"].XML.DOM.selectNodes("/suite/table/rows/row").context; //then I have the method that uses this by getting the subresults from elemCollection //rest of the method isn't interesting, only the selectNodes call _buildResults = function (){ var _RowList = elemCollection.selectNodes("/data[@col = 'urGod']/title"); var tmpResult = ['']; var substringResult=""; for (i=0; i<_RowList.length; i++) { tmpResult.push(_RowList[i].text,iDom3.Global.Delimiter); } ... //this variant works elemCollection = iDom3.Table.all["spis"].XML.DOM _buildResults = function (){ var _RowList = elemCollection.selectNodes("/suite/table/rows/row/data[@col = 'urGod']/title"); var tmpResult = ['']; var substringResult=""; for (i=0; i<_RowList.length; i++) { tmpResult.push(_RowList[i].text,iDom3.Global.Delimiter); } ... The problem is, I can't find a way to use the subresults to get what I need.

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  • Is x a reserved keyword in Javascript FF/Safari not in IE?

    - by Marco Demaio
    A web page of a web application was showing a strange error. I regressively removed all the HTML/CSS/JS code and arrived to the basic and simple code below. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html><head> <title>test</title> <script type="text/javascript"> var TestObj = { foo: function() {} } alert(x); //ok displays "undefined" var x = TestObj.foo; var z = TestObj.foo; </script> </head><body> <p onclick='alert(x);'>Click shows function foo!</p> <img onclick='alert(x);' alt='CRAZY click displays a number in FF/Safari not function foo' src='' style='display: block; width: 100px; height: 100px; border: 1px solid #00ff00;'> <p onclick='alert(x);'>Click shows function foo!</p> </body></html> It's crazy: when clicking on P elements the string "function(){}" is displaied as expected. But when clicking on IMG element it shows a number as if x function got in some way removed from memory or deinstantiated (it does not even show x as "undefined" but as a number). To let you test it quickly I placed the working test above also here. This can be reproduced on both Firefox 3.6 and Safari 4.0.4. Everything works properly only on IE7+. I'm really clueless, I was wondering if x is maybe a reserved keyword in JS Firefox/Safari. Thanks to anyone who could help! FYI: if you repalce x() with z() everything work prefectly in all browsers (this is even more crazy to me) adding a real image in src attribute does not fix the problem removing style in img does not fix the problem (i gave style to image only to help you clicking on image thus you can see the imnage border)

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  • Using Hibernate to do a query involving two tables

    - by Nathan Spears
    I'm inexperienced with sql in general, so using Hibernate is like looking for an answer before I know exactly what the question is. Please feel free to correct any misunderstandings I have. I am on a project where I have to use Hibernate. Most of what I am doing is pretty basic and I could copy and modify. Now I would like to do something different and I'm not sure how configuration and syntax need to come together. Let's say I have two tables. Table A has two (relevant) columns, user GUID and manager GUID. Obviously managers can have more than one user under them, so queries on manager can return more than one row. Additionally, a manager can be managing the same user on multiple projects, so the same user can be returned multiple times for the same manager query. Table B has two columns, user GUID and user full name. One-to-one mapping there. I want to do a query on manager GUID from Table A, group them by unique User GUID (so the same User isn't in the results twice), then return those users' full names from Table B. I could do this in sql without too much trouble but I want to use Hibernate so I don't have to parse the sql results by hand. That's one of the points of using Hibernate, isn't it? Right now I have Hibernate mappings that map each column in Table A to a field (well the get/set methods I guess) in a DAO object that I wrote just to hold that Table's data. I could also use the Hibernate DAOs I have to access each table separately and do each of the things I mentioned above in separate steps, but that would be less efficient (I assume) that doing one query. I wrote a Service object to hold the data that gets returned from the query (my example is simplified - I'm going to keep some other data from Table A and get multiple columns from Table B) but I'm at a loss for how to write a DAO that can do the join, or use the DAOs I have to do the join. FYI, here is a sample of my hibernate config file (simplified to match my example): <hibernate-mapping package="com.my.dao"> <class name="TableA" table="table_a"> <id name="pkIndex" column="pk_index" /> <property name="userGuid" column="user_guid" /> <property name="managerGuid" column="manager_guid" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So then I have a DAOImplementation class that does queries and returns lists like public List<TableA> findByHQL(String hql, Map<String, String> params) etc. I'm not sure how "best practice" that is either.

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  • Becoming a professional programmer / software engineer

    - by Matt
    This isn't strictly about programming, more about being a programmer, so I'm sorry if its not the right kind of question to ask on this forum (mod, please delete if it isn't) I'm a computer tech in the US Army, and once I'm out I'll have eight years on the job. I'm about to start a degree through an online school (the only way I can get the army to pay for it while I'm still in), and I'm seriously looking at getting a computer science degree. I'm great with computers. I can take one apart and put it back together with my eyes closed. I'm A+ and Network+ certified and I'm getting a couple other CompTIA certs before I get out. I can work Windows as well as anyone on this planet and I'm not terrible with Linux. A job in computers is something I've always wanted. But, aside from being a computer technician, it seems that every job in the field requires programming ability. I like programming as a hobby. I programmed TI BASIC in high school and I'm teaching myself Python, but that's as far as my experience goes. That sort of brings me to my questions: I've always heard that the first language is the most difficult, and once you learn it well then all the others sort of fall into place for you. Is that true? Like, if I spend the next eight months mastering Python, will I pretty much be able to pick up at least fair proficiency in any other OO language within a month of studying it or whatever? How easy is it to burn out? the biggest thing I'm afraid of is just burning out on programming. I can go all day long if I'm programming strictly for my own personal desire, but I can imagine it being really easy to burn out after a few years of programming to deadlines and certain specifications. Especially if its a big project involving a dozen different designers. From what I told you about myself, would I already be qualified to work as a regular technician (geek squad type or maybe running a computer repair shop). Is Python a good base to learn from? I've heard that it makes you hate other languages because they feel more convoluted when learning, but also that its a great beginner language. If you're a professional programmer, did you have any of the same fears? Would you recommend that I stick to computer repair and Python rather than try to get into corporate programming? (just from what you've read in this thread, anyway) Thanks for taking the time to read all this and answer (if you did)

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  • Symfony 1.4 Layout footer glitch: Footer div is echoed out with $sf_content

    - by Parijat Kalia
    I have a very simple Layout for my application. A header, the main content, and a footer. Semantically, they are rendered like this: <body> <div id = "header"> </div> <div id = "content"> </div> <div id = "footer"> </div> </body> The corresponding CSS is very basic as well: #header{ width:100%; min-height:10%; } #center{ width:100%; min-height:80%; } #footer{ width:100%; min-height:10%: } As you would know in the layout page, here is how the content is rendered: <div id= "content"> <?php echo $sf_content; ?> </div> All of the above is very fine and it renders itself as it is supposed to. But there is a glitch with this, the moment i put in <?php echo $sf_content; ?> the footer is included as part of the content and not as a div that is after the #content markup. Essentially, I get this: <div id = "header"></div> <div id = "content> <div id ="symfony_template_to_be_rendered"> <!-- all web application related content like forms etc. --> </div> <div id = "footer">Footer material </div> </div> As you can see, for some weird reason, the footer moved up along with the symfony content. Clearly this is a glitch because if I remove the php hash $sf_content part from the div tags in my layouts, then the footer renders itself as and where it should be and everything takes up the required dimensions. What's going on here?

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  • Jquery Dialog - div disappears after initialization

    - by Zuber
    JQuery Dialog is giving me lots of pain lately. I have the following div which I want to be popped up. (Ignore that the classes do not show the double quotes in the syntax) TABLE class=widget-title-table border=0 cellSpacing=0 cellPadding=0> <TBODY> <TR> <TD class=widget-title><SPAN class=widget-title>Basic Info</SPAN></TD> <TD class=widget-action> <DIV id=edit-actions jQuery1266325647362="3"> <UL class="linkbutton-menu read-mode"> <LI class="control-actions"> <A id="action-button" class="mouse-over-pointer linkbutton">Delete this stakeholder</A> <DIV id="confirmation" class="confirmation-dialog title=Confirmation"> Are you sure you want to delete this stakeholder? </DIV> </LI></UL></DIV></TD></TR></TBODY></TABLE> The JQuery for this is ... $(document).ready(function() { $('#confirmation').dialog({ bgiframe: true, modal: true, autoOpen: false, closeOnEscape: false, draggable: true, position: 'center', resizable: false, width: 400, height: 150 }); }); And the dialog is 'open'ed by var confirmationBox = $('#confirmation',actionContent); if (confirmationBox.length > 0) { //Confirmation Needed $(confirmationBox).dialog('option', 'buttons', { 'No': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); }, 'Yes': function() { $('ul.read-mode').hide(); $.post(requestUrl, {}, ActionCallback(context[0], renderFormUrl), 'json'); $(this).dialog('close'); } }); $(confirmationBox).dialog('open'); } The problem starts in the initialization itself. When the document loads, the <div #confirmation> is deleted from the markup! I had a similar issue earlier, but I cannot use that solution here. On this page I can have multiple PopUp divs. When I added the initialization in just before opening it; the form popped up. But after I close it, the div is removed; so I am not able to see the popup again.

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  • MVC 2 AntiForgeryToken - Why symmetric encryption + IPrinciple?

    - by Brad R
    We recently updated our solution to MVC 2, and this has updated the way that the AntiForgeryToken works. Unfortunately this does not fit with our AJAX framework any more. The problem is that MVC 2 now uses symmetric encryption to encode some properties about the user, including the user's Name property (from IPrincipal). We are able to securely register a new user using AJAX, after which subsequent AJAX calls will be invalid as the anti forgery token will change when the user has been granted a new principal. There are also other cases when this may happen, such as a user updating their name etc. My main question is why does MVC 2 even bother using symmetric encryption? Any then why does it care about the user name property on the principal? If my understanding is correct then any random shared secret will do. The basic principle is that the user will be sent a cookie with some specific data (HttpOnly!). This cookie is then required to match a form variable sent back with each request that may have side effects (POST's usually). Since this is only meant to protect from cross site attacks it is easy to craft up a response that would easily pass the test, but only if you had full access to the cookie. Since a cross site attacker is not going to have access to your user cookies you are protected. By using symmetric encryption, what is the advantage in checking the contents of the cookie? That is, if I already have sent an HttpOnly cookie the attacker cannot override it (unless a browser has a major security issue), so why do I then need to check it again? After having a think about it it appears to be one of those 'added layer of security' cases - but if your first line of defence has fallen (HttpOnly) then the attacker is going to get past the second layer anyway as they have full access to the users cookie collection, and could just impersonate them directly, instead of using an indirect XSS/CSRF attack. Of course I could be missing a major issue, but I haven't found it yet. If there are some obvious or subtle issues at play here then I would like to be aware of them.

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  • Network communication for a turn based board game

    - by randooom
    Hi all, my first question here, so please don't be to harsh if something went wrong :) I'm currently a CS student (from Germany, if this info is of any use ;) ) and we got a, free selectable, programming assignment, which we have to write in a C++/CLI Windows Forms Application. My team, two others and me, decided to go for a network-compatible port of the board game Risk. We divided the work in 3 Parts, namely UI, game logic and network. Now we're on the part where we have to get everything working together and the big question mark is, how to get the clients synchronized with each other? Our approach so far is, that each client has all information necessary to calculate and/or execute all possible actions. Actually the clients have all information available at all, aside from the game-initializing phase (add players, select map, etc.), which needs one "super-client" with some extra stuff to control things. This is the standard scenario of our approach: player performs action, the action is valid and got executed on the players client action is sent over the network action is executed on the other clients The design (i.e. no or code so far) we came up with so far, is something like the following pseudo sequence diagram. Gui, Controller and Network implement all possible actions (i.e. all actions which change data) as methods from an interface. So each part can implement the method in a way to get their job done. Example with Action(): On the player side's Client: Player-->Gui.Action() Gui-->Controller.Action() Controller-->Logic.Action (Logic.Action() == NoError)? Controller-->Network.Action() Network-->Parser.ParseAction() Network.Send(msg) On all other clients: Network.Recv(msg) Network-->Parser.Deparse(msg) Parser-->Logic.Action() Logic-->Gui.Action() The questions: Is this a viable approach to our task? Any better/easier way to this? Recommendations, critique? Our knowledge (so you can better target your answer): We are on the beginner side, in regards to programming on a somewhat larger projects with a small team. All of us have some general programming experience and basic understanding of the .Net Libraries and Windows Forms. If you need any further information, please feel free to ask.

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