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  • Unit-testing a directive with isolated scope and bidirectional value

    - by unludo
    I want to unit test a directive which looks like this: angular.module('myApp', []) .directive('myTest', function () { return { restrict: 'E', scope: { message: '='}, replace: true, template: '<div ng-if="message"><p>{{message}}</p></div>', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { } }; }); Here is my failing test: describe('myTest directive:', function () { var scope, compile, validHTML; validHTML = '<my-test message="message"></my-test>'; beforeEach(module('myApp')); beforeEach(inject(function($compile, $rootScope){ scope = $rootScope.$new(); compile = $compile; })); function create() { var elem, compiledElem; elem = angular.element(validHTML); compiledElem = compile(elem)(scope); scope.$digest(); return compiledElem; } it('should have a scope on root element', function () { scope.message = 'not empty'; var el = create(); console.log(el.text()); expect(el.text()).toBeDefined(); expect(el.text()).not.toBe(''); }); }); Can you spot why it's failing? The corresponding jsFiddle Thanks :)

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  • MVC3 html.TextBox

    - by BigTommy79
    I have login view that takes a LoginPageViewModel: public class LoginPageViewModel : PageViewModel { public string ReturnUrl { get; set; } public bool PreviousLoginFailed { get; set; } public LoginFormViewModel EditForm { get; set; } } which is rendered in the view. When a user tries to log in I only want to post the LoginFormViewModel (Model.EditForm) to the controller: public ActionResult Login(LoginFormViewModel loginDetails) { //do stuff } Using Html.TextBox I can specify the name of the form field manually 'loginDetails.UserName' and post back to the controller and everything works. @model Web.Controllers.User.ViewModels.LoginPageViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm()){ @Html.Hidden("loginDetails.ReturnUrl", Model.ReturnUrl) @Html.LabelFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName, "User Name:") @Html.TextBox("loginDetails.UserName", Model.EditForm.UserName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) ..... But what I want to do is to use the staticaly typed helper, something like: @Html.TextBoxFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) But I'm unable to get this to work. Are you only able to post back the same model when useing the strongly typed helpers? Is there something I'm missing on this? Intellisense doesn't seem to give any clues such as a form field string.

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  • When do Symfony's user attributes get written to session?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have a Symfony app that populates the "widgets" of a portal application and I'm noticing something (that seems) odd. The portal app has iframes that make calls to the Symfony app. On each of those calls, a random user key is passed on the query string. The Symfony app stores that key its session using myUser->setAttribute(). If the incoming value is different from what it has in session, it overwrites the session value. In pseudo-code (and applying a synchronous nature for clarity even though it may not exist): # Widget request arrives with ?foo=bar if the user attribute 'foo' does not equal 'bar' overwrite the user attribute 'foo' with 'bar' end What I'm noticing is that, on a portal page with multiple widgets (read: multiple requests coming in more or less simultaneously) where the value needs to be overwritten, each request is trying to overwrite. Is this a timing problem? When I look at the log prints, I'd expect the first request that arrives to overwrite and subsequent requests to see that the user attribute they received matches what was just put into cache by the initial request. In this scenario, it could be that subsequent requests begin (and are checked) even before the first one--the one that should overwrite the cached value--has completely finished. Are session values not really available to subsequent requests until one request has completed entirely or could there be something else that I'm missing? Thanks.

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  • How to access remote mysql host on Ubuntu inside VMware?

    - by Nick Grossman
    Hi, I'm running Ubuntu 10.10 inside VMware fusion on Mac OSX Snow Leopard. Inside ubuntu, I'm attempting to use command-line mysql to connect to a database hosted on a separate web server. For some reason, mysql misinterprets the remote hostname as a local address, and is not able to connect to the database. Steps: (from ubuntu inside VMware) mysql -u <my-username> -h mysql-2.sandbox.wrkng.net -p Enter Password: <my password> expected: to log into mysql got: ERROR 1045 (28000): Access denied for user '<my-username>'@'c-71-233-98-90.hds1.ma.comcast.net' (using password: YES) Note that the hostname referenced in the error message is different than the one I inputted to the mysql command. Also, performing the same command from the Mac (host of the VM) terminal successfully connects to the database. I am not seasoned with VMware or linux, so I may be missing something obvious here -- it seems like somewhere along the way either ubuntu or the VM has a networking issue. Note also that accessing the internet via ubuntu inside the VM works fine. Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • How to get jQuery to find the first list-item, rather than all list-items?

    - by ricebowl
    I'm trying to implement a basic jQuery infinite carousel. As much for the learning process as for anything else (as a rule I'm not a fan of re-inventing wheels, but...I have to learn somehow, might as well start with the basics). I've managed to get the list to animate left happily enough, but I'm stuck when it comes to selecting the first element of the list. I've tried to use: $('ul#services > li:first'); $('ul#services > li:first-child'); $('ul#services > li').eq([0]); (xhtml below), In each case a console.log(first) (the var name used) returns all of the list-items. Am I doing something blatantly, and obviously, wrong? The eventual plan is to clone the first li, append it to the parent ul, remove the li from the list and allow the list to scroll infinitely. It's just a list of services rather than links so I'm not -at the moment- planning to have scroll or left/right functionality. Current xhtml: <div class="wrapper"> <ul id="services"> <!-- closing the `</li>` tags on the following line is to remove whitespace in the horizontal list, doesn't seem to make a difference to the jQuery from my own testing. --> <li>one</li ><li>two</li ><li>three</li ><li>four</li ><li>five</li ><li>six</li ><li>seven</li ><li>eight</li ><li>nine</li ><li>ten</li> </ul> </div>

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  • C# why unit test has this strange behaviour?

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    I have a class to encrypt the connectionString. public class SKM { private string connStrName = "AndeDBEntities"; internal void encryptConnStr() { if(isConnStrEncrypted()) return; ... } private bool isConnStrEncrypted() { bool status = false; // Open app.config of executable. System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None); // Get the connection string from the app.config file. string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; status = !(connStr.Contains("provider")); Log.logItem(LogType.DebugDevelopment, "isConnStrEncrypted", "SKM::isConnStrEncrypted()", "isConnStrEncrypted=" + status); return status; } } Above code works fine in my application. But not in my unit test project. In my unit test project, I test the encryptConnStr() method. it will call isConnStrEncrypted() method. Then exception (null pointer) will be thrown at this line: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; I have to use index like this to pass the unit test: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[0].ConnectionString; I remember it worked several days ago at the time I added above unit test. But now it give me an error. The unit test is not integrated with our daily auto build yet. We only have ONE connectionStr. It works with product but not in unit test. Don't know why. Anybody can explain to me?

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  • Git Svn dcommit error - restart the commit

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    Last week, I made a number of changes to my local branch before leaving town for the weekend. This morning I wanted to dcommit all of those changes to the company's Svn repository, but I get a merge conflict in one file: Merge conflict during commit: Your file or directory 'build.properties.sample' is probably out-of-date: The version resource does not correspond to the resource within the transaction. Either the requested version resource is out of date (needs to be updated), or the requested version resource is newer than the transaction root (restart the commit). I'm not sure exactly why I'm getting this, but before attempting to dcommit, I did a git svn rebase. That "overwrote" my commits. To recover from that, I did a git reset --hard HEAD@{1}. Now my working copy seems to be where I expect it to be, but I have no idea how to get past the merge conflict; there's not actually any conflict to resolve that I can find. Any thoughts would be appreciated. EDIT: Just wanted to specify that I am working locally. I have a local branch for the trunk that references svn/trunk (the remote branch). All of my work was done on the local trunk: $ git branch maint-1.0.x master * trunk $ git branch -r svn/maintenance/my-project-1.0.0 svn/trunk Similarly, git log currently shows 10 commits on my local trunk since the last commit with a Svn ID. Hopefully that answers a few questions. Thanks again.

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  • Using map() on a _set in a template?

    - by Stuart Grimshaw
    I have two models like this: class KPI(models.Model): """KPI model to hold the basic info on a Key Performance Indicator""" title = models.CharField(blank=False, max_length=100) description = models.TextField(blank=True) target = models.FloatField(blank=False, null=False) group = models.ForeignKey(KpiGroup) subGroup = models.ForeignKey(KpiSubGroup, null=True) unit = models.TextField(blank=True) owner = models.ForeignKey(User) bt_measure = models.BooleanField(default=False) class KpiHistory(models.Model): """A historical log of previous KPI values.""" kpi = models.ForeignKey(KPI) measure = models.FloatField(blank=False, null=False) kpi_date = models.DateField() and I'm using RGraph to display the stats on internal wallboards, the handy thing is Python lists get output in a format that Javascript sees as an array, so by mapping all the values into a list like this: def f(x): return float(x.measure) stats = map(f, KpiHistory.objects.filter(kpi=1) then in the template I can simply use {{ stats }} and the RGraph code sees it as an array which is exactly what I want. [87.0, 87.5, 88.5, 90] So my question is this, is there any way I can achieve the same effect using Django's _set functionality to keep the amount of data I'm passing into the template, up until now I've been passing in a single KPI object to be graphed but now I want to pass in a whole bunch so is there anything I can do with _set {{ kpi.kpihistory_set }} dumps the whole model out, but I just want the measure field. I can't see any of the built in template methods that will let me pull out just the single field I want. How have other people handled this situation?

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  • next previous button in div jquery mobile

    - by satine kianne
    i have a total of 11 div in my app. what i want to do is to display 3 divs in between 2 permanent div it should look like this |first permanent div| |div 1| |div 2| |div 3| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| when i click on next is should look like this |first permanent div| |div 2| |div 3| |div 4| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| and so on. and when im not div 1,2,3 the previous should be disabled and when im no 7,8,9 the next should be disabled. but i cant make it i'm using this fiddle as a sample http://jsfiddle.net/WGkPV/1/ its working but only one div is shown in the center of my two permanent div which is not in my plan.im getting like this |first permanent div| |div 1| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| any suggestion will be taken seriously. here is the code of the fiddle im working on as tutorial $(document).ready(function () { var divs = $('.mydivs>div'); var now = 0; // currently shown div divs.hide().first().show(); $("button[name=next]").click(function (e) { divs.eq(now).hide(); now = (now + 1 < divs.length) ? now + 1 : 0; divs.eq(now).show(); // show next }); $("button[name=prev]").click(function (e) { divs.eq(now).hide(); now = (now > 0) ? now - 1 : divs.length - 1; divs.eq(now).show(); // or .css('display','block'); //console.log(divs.length, now); }); }); <div class="mydivs"> <div>div 1</div> <div>div 2</div> <div>div 3</div> <div>div 4</div> </div>

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  • Jquery, how to escape quotes

    - by Sandro Antonucci
    I'm using a simple jquery code that grabs html code form a tag and then puts this content into a form input <td class="name_cat" ><span class="name_cat">It&#039;s a &quot;test&quot; </span> (5)</td> jquery gets the content into span.name_catand returns it as It's a "test". So when I print this into an input it becomes <input value="It's a "test"" /> which as you can imagine will only show as It's a , the following double quote will close the value tag. What's the trick here to keep the original string while not showing utf8 code in the input? Jquery code $(".edit_cat").click(function(){ tr = $(this).parents("tr:first"); id_cat = $(this).attr("id"); td_name = tr.find(".name_cat"); span_name = tr.find("span.name_cat").html(); form = '<form action="/admin/controllers/edit_cat.php" method="post" >'+ '<input type="hidden" name="id_cat" value="'+id_cat+'" />'+ '<input type="text" name="name_cat" value="'+span_name+'" />'+ '<input type="submit" value="save" />'+ '</form>'; td_name.html(form); console.log(span_name); } ); I basically need html() not to decode Utf8

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  • Silverlight logging out causes "Object reference not set to an instance"

    - by Alex
    I am using the Silverlight 4 Business Application Template. I've created a DomainDataSource in XAML like so: <riaControls:DomainDataSource x:Name="LogData" QueryName="GetLogs" AutoLoad="True" LoadSize="20" > <riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> <local:AdminDomainContext /> </riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> <riaControls:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> <riaControls:Parameter ParameterName="UserLoginID" Value="{Binding Path=User.UserLoginID, Source={StaticResource WebContext}}" /> </riaControls:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> </riaControls:DomainDataSource> The problem I'm experiencing is that whenever I log out, I get: Load operation failed for query 'GetLogs'. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. I assume that because I've logged out, User.UserLoginID is now null and is causing the exception. So... anybody know a good way for me to solve this? I don't really want to set the QueryParameter programmatically.

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  • Django Save Incomplete Progress on Form

    - by jimbob
    I have a django webapp with multiple users logging in and fill in a form. Some users may start filling in a form and lack some required data (e.g., a grant #) needed to validate the form (and before we can start working on it). I want them to be able to fill out the form and have an option to save the partial info (so another day they can log back in and complete it) or submit the full info undergoing validation. Currently I'm using ModelForm for all the forms I use, and the Model has constraints to ensure valid data (e.g., the grant # has to be unique). However, I want them to be able to save this intermediary data without undergoing any validation. The solution I've thought of seems rather inelegant and un-django-ey: create a "Save Partial Form" button that saves the POST dictionary converts it to a shelf file and create a "SavedPartialForm" model connecting the user to partial forms saved in the shelf. Does this seem sensible? Is there a better way to save the POST dict directly into the db? Or is an add-on module that does this partial-save of a form (which seems to be a fairly common activity with webforms)? My biggest concern with my method is I want to eventually be able to do this form-autosave automatically (say every 10 minutes) in some ajax/jquery method without actually pressing a button and sending the POST request (e.g., so the user isn't redirected off the page when autosave is triggered). I'm not that familiar with jquery and am wondering if it would be possible to do this.

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  • Retrieving my own data via FaceBook API

    - by goggin13
    I am building a website for a comedy group which uses Facebook as one of their marketing platforms; one of the requirements for the new site is to display all of their Facebook events on a calendar. Currently, I am just trying to put together a Python script which can pull some data from my own Facebook account, like a list of all my friends. I presume once I can accomplish this I can move to pulling more complicated data out of my clients account (since they have given me access to their account). I have looked at many of the posts here, and also went through the Facebook API documentation, including Facebook Connect, but am really beating my head against the wall. Everything I have read seems like overkill, as it involves setting up a good deal of infrastructure to allow my app to set up connections to any arbitrary user's account (who authorizes me). Shouldn't it be much simpler, given I only ever need to access 1 account? I cannot find a way to retrieve data without having to display the Facebook login window. I have a script which will retrieve all my friends, but it includes a redirect where I have to physically log myself in to Facebook. Would appreciate any advice or links, I just feel like I must be missing something simple. Thank you!

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  • zend_db and join

    - by premtemp
    Hello, I am trying to understand how to use Zend_DB in my program but I have some problem. The class below (DatabaseService) work when I pass it a simple query. However, if I pass it it query with a join clause my page just hangs and not error is return. I cut and paste the qry in a query browesr and it is valid Any help would be great $SQL = "select name from mytable" $db = new DatabaseService($dbinfo) $db ->fetchall($SQL ) // works ----------------------------------------------------------- $SQL = "select count(*) as cnt from EndPoints join CallID on EndPoints.`CallID` = CallID.CallID where EndPoints.LastRegister >= '2010-04-21 00:00:01' and EndPoints.LastRegister <= '2010-04-21 23:59:59' " $db = new DatabaseService($dbinfo) $db ->fetchall($SQL ) // DOES NO WORK class DatabaseService { function DatabaseService($dbinfo,$dbname="") { try { $dbConfig = array( 'host' => $this->host, 'username' => $this->username, 'password' => $password, 'dbname' => $this->dbname ); $this->db = Zend_Db::factory($this->adapter, $dbConfig); Zend_Db_Table::setDefaultAdapter($this->db); } catch(Zend_Exception $e) { $this->error = $e->getMessage(); Helper::log($this->error); return false; } } public function connnect() { if($this->db !=null) { try { $this->db->getConnection(); return true; } catch (Zend_Exception $e) { $err = "FAILED ::".$e->getMessage()." <br />"; } } return false; } public function fetchall($sql) { $res= $this->db->fetchAll($sql); return $res; } }

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  • Why onCreate() calling multiple times when i use Thread()?

    - by RajaReddy PolamReddy
    In my app i faced a problem with threads. i am using native code in my app. i try to load library and then calling native functions from the android code. 1. By using Threads() : PjsuaThread pjsuaThread = new PjsuaThread(); pjsuaThread.start(); thread code class PjsuaThread extends Thread { public void run() { if (pjsua_app.initApp() != 0) { // native function calling return; } else { } pjsua_app.startPjsua(ApjsuaActivity.CFG_FNAME); // native function calling finished = true; } When i use code like this, onCreate() function calling multiple times and able to load library and calling some functions properly, after some seconds onCreate calling again because of that it's crashing. 2. Using AsyncTask(): And also i used AsyncTask< for this requirement, it's crashing the application( crashing in lib code ). not able to open any functions class SipTask extends AsyncTask<Void, String, Void> { protected Void doInBackground(Void... args) { if (pjsua_app.initApp() != 0) { return null; } else { } pjsua_app.startPjsua(ApjsuaActivity.CFG_FNAME); finished = true; return null; } @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result) { super.onPostExecute(result); Log.i(TAG, "On POst "); } } What is annoying is that in most cases it is not the missing library, it's tried to able to load the lib crashing in between. any one know the reason ?

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  • j_security_check to SSO in different module under Oracle App Server?

    - by thebearinboulder
    I have an existing j2ee application running on Oracle App Server. It is targeted towards paying customers so the content is secured and a SSO module properly intercepts all requests for secured content. Now the company is adding a unbranded public-facing module with a number of unsecured pages. At one point the user is expected to register for a free account and log in to proceed further. Think doctors adding a public-facing site with information for potential patients, or lawyers adding a public-facing site with information for potential clients. There's some information on the session and the usual approach would be to authenticate the user, persist the session information using the now-known user id, invalidate the existing session (to prevent certain types of attacks), the reload the session information before returning to the user. I can't just persist it under the session id since that's about to change. The glitch is that the existing application already has an SSO module and I get a 404 error every time I try to direct to j_security_check. I've tried that, /sso/j_security_check, even http://localhost/sso/j_security_check, all without success. I noticed that an earlier question said that tomcat requires access to a secured page before j_security_check is even visible. I don't know if that's the case with Oracle AS. Ideas? Or is the best approach to continue arguing that we have a different user base so it would be better to handle authentication in our own module anyway?

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  • Has anyone ever successfully make index merge work for MySQL?

    - by user198729
    Setup: mysql> create table t(a integer unsigned,b integer unsigned); mysql> insert into t(a,b) values (1,2),(1,3),(2,4); mysql> create index i_t_a on t(a); mysql> create index i_t_b on t(b); mysql> explain select * from t where a=1 or b=4; +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | t | ALL | i_t_a,i_t_b | NULL | NULL | NULL | 3 | Using where | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ Is there something I'm missing? Update mysql> explain select * from t where a=1 or b=4; +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | t | ALL | i_t_a,i_t_b | NULL | NULL | NULL | 1863 | Using where | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ Version: mysql> select version(); +----------------------+ | version() | +----------------------+ | 5.1.36-community-log | +----------------------+ Has anyone ever successfully make index merge work for MySQL? I'll be glad to see successful stories here:)

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  • [C# Thread] I'd like access to a share on the network!

    - by JustLooking
    Some Details I am working with VisualWebGUI, so this app is like ASP.NET, and it is deployed on IIS 7 (for testing) For my 'Web Site', Anonymous Authentication is set to a specific user (DomainName\DomainUser). In my web.config, I have impersonation on. This is how I got my app to access the share in the first place. The Problem There is a point in the the app where we use the Thread class, something similar to: Thread myThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(objInstance.PublicMethod)); myThread.Start(); What I have noticed is that I can write to my logs (text file on the share), everywhere throughout my code, except in the thread that I kicked off. I added some debugging output and what I see for users is: The thread that's kicked off: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Everywhere else in my code: DomainName\DomainUser (described in my IIS setup) OK, for some reason the thread gets a different user (NETWORK SERVICE). Fine. But, my share (and the actual log file) was given 'Full Control' to the NETWORK SERVICE user (this share resides on a different server than the one that my app is running). If NETWORK SERVICE has rights to this folder, why do I get access denied? Or is there a way to have the thread I kick off have the same user as the process?

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  • Setting up App Engine to receive email addresses with ids in the address

    - by Mark M
    I am writing an App Engine app that is supposed to receive emails in this form: [email protected] (someID is an alphanumeric ID that I generate). I have this in my web.xml thinking it would catch emails that start with 'addcontact.': <servlet> <servlet-name>addNewContactServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.mycompany.server.AddNewContactServlet</servlet- class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>addNewContactServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/_ah/mail/addcontact.*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> However, both on my dev machine and on google's servers email is not received. On the dev machine I get this message (I get a similar error in the deployed log) Message send failure HTTP ERROR 404 Problem accessing /_ah/mail/ [email protected]. Reason: NOT_FOUND I can receive email at fully specified addresses or when I use /_ah/mail/* The google documentation made me believe it was possible to include partial email addresses in web.xml. Am I not using the wildcard correctly? Does the period have something to do with it? Can this be done somehow?

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  • What do I do about a Java program that spawned two instaces of itself?

    - by user288915
    I have a java JAR file that is triggered by a SQL server job. It's been running successfully for months. The process pulls in a structured flat file to a staging database then pushes that data into an XML file. However yesterday the process was triggered twice at the same time. I can tell from a log file that gets created, it looks like the process ran twice simultaneously. This caused a lot of issues and the XML file that it kicked out was malformed and contained duplicate nodes etc. My question is, is this a known issue with Java JVM's spawning multiple instances of itself? Or should I be looking at sql server as the culprit? I'm looking into 'socket locking' or file locking to prevent multiple instances in the future. This is the first instance of this issue that I've ever heard of. More info: The job is scheduled to run every minute. The job triggers a .bat file that contains the java.exe - jar filename.jar The java program runs, scans a directory for a file and then executes a loop to process if the file if it finds one. After it processes the file it runs another loop that kicks out XML messages. I can provide code samples if that would help. Thank you, Kevin

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  • Checking servlet session attribute value in jsp file

    - by Marta
    I have a no framework java application. It consists of jsp files for view and servlets for the business logic. I must set the user session is the servlet with a firstName parameter. In the jsp file, I need to check if my firstName parameter has a value or not. If the firstName parameter is set, I need to display some html in the jsp file. If it is not set, I need to display different html in the jsp file. Servlet.java: HttpSession session = request.getSession(); session.setAttribute("firstName", customer.getFristName()); String url = "/index.jsp"; RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(url); dispatcher.forward(request, response); header.jsp: // Between the <p> tags bellow I need to put some HTML with the following rules // If firstName exist: Hello ${firstName} <a href="logout.jsp">Log out</a> // Else: <a href="login.jsp">Login</a> or <a href="register.jsp">Register</a> <p class="credentials" id="cr"></p> What would be the best way to do this? Any help is much appreciated! Thank you in advance. -Marta

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  • Using a Data Management Singleton

    - by Dan Ray
    Here's my singleton code (pretty much boilerplate): @interface DataManager : NSObject { NSMutableArray *eventList; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *eventList; +(DataManager*)sharedDataManager; @end And then the .m: #import "DataManager.h" static DataManager *singletonDataManager = nil; @implementation DataManager @synthesize eventList; +(DataManager*)sharedDataManager { @synchronized(self) { if (!singletonDataManager) { singletonDataManager = [[DataManager alloc] init]; } } NSLog(@"Pulling a copy of shared manager."); return singletonDataManager; } So then in my AppDelegate, I load some stuff before launching my first view: NSMutableArray *eventList = [DataManager sharedDataManager].eventList; .... NSLog(@"Adding event %@ to eventList", event.title); [eventList addObject:event]; NSLog(@"eventList now has %d members", [eventList count]); [event release]; As you can see, I've peppered the code with NSLog love notes to myself. The output to the Log reads like: 2010-05-10 09:08:53.355 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Woofstock Music Festival to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.355 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members 2010-05-10 09:08:53.411 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Test Event for Staging to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.411 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members 2010-05-10 09:08:53.467 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Montgomery Event to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.467 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members 2010-05-10 09:08:53.524 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Alamance County Event For June to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.524 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members ... What gives? I have no errors getting to my eventList NSMutableArray. But I addObject: fails silently?

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  • Parsing Windows Event Logs, is it possible?

    - by xceph
    Hello, I am doing a little research into the feasibility of a project I have in mind. It involves doing a little forensic work on images of hard drives, and I have been looking for information on how to analyze saved windows event log files. I do not require the ability to monitor current events, I simply want to be able to view events which have been created, and record the time and application/process which created those events. However I do not have much experience in the inner workings of the windows system specifics, and am wondering if this is possible? The plan is to create images of a hard drive, and then do the analysis on a second machine. Ideally this would be done in either Java or Python, as they are my most proficient languages. The main concerns I have are as follows: Is this information encrypted in anyway? Are there any existing API for parsing this data directly? Is there information available regarding the format in which these logs are stored, and how does it differ from windows versions? This must be possible from analyzing the drive itself, as ideally the installation of windows on the drive would not be running, (as it would be a mounted image on another system) The closest thing I could find in my searches is http://www.j-interop.org/ but that seems to be aimed at remote clients. Ideally nothing would have to be installed on the imaged drive. The other solution which seemed to also pop up is the JNI library, but that also seems to be more so in the area of monitoring a running system. Any help at all is greatly appreciated. :)

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  • Visual Studio 2010 is not allowing me to debug my code

    - by Tejs
    So, this interesting issue has been plaguing me for the past couple of hours. Visual Studio 2010 Ultimate no longer attaches the debugger and lets me debug my code. If I use the built in development server, then everything works fine. If I switch to Use Local IIS Web Server (http://localhost/), then all it does it attach to w3wp.exe, but no DLLs or PDBs are loaded for anything. I can go to Debug Windows Modules, and literally nothing is loaded in this window. Conversely, when using the built in development server, the Modules window displays all the DLLs and shows that the symbols for my DLLs have been loaded. Something is obviously amiss. The VS installation is completely bone stock. In IIS, my website is configured with ASP.NET 2.0 (because no 3.5 exists to select from the drop down), along with read / log visits / index this resource options checked on the "Home Directory" tab. Some of my failed ideas: 1) If I attach to process on the iexplore.exe instance where the website is displayed, it loads Internet Explorer's DLLs, but not mine. 2) I've restarted the computer multiple times 3) I've invoked devenv.exe /resetuserdata once 4) I've confirmed that every project is indeed set to debug and not release. 5) Deleted all \bin contents and rebuilt the solution. 6) Deleted entire solution and repulled from Source Control. Can someone tell me what is wrong with this thing? I'm going to have an aneurism from the headache this is causing me.

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  • jquery getscript <script> tags

    - by user1871612
    To ask about getscript html Code as follows: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "- / / W3C / / DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional / / EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>jQuery GetScript</title> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type = "text / javascript "> $(document). ready(function () { $getScript ('script.js', function (jd) { $.each (test, function (index, value) { console.log (value); }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="dest"> </div> </body> </html> js (1) code are as follows: - <script type='text/javascript'> var test = []; test [0] = ['111 ', '222']; </ script> js (2) Code as follows: - var test = []; test [0] = ['111 ', '222']; The problem is as follows: - Run js (1) code will appear: - Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token < No problem running js (2) Would like to ask how we can run js (1) can not go wrong Thank! Badly written, please forgive me.

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