Search Results

Search found 35561 results on 1423 pages for 'value'.

Page 695/1423 | < Previous Page | 691 692 693 694 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702  | Next Page >

  • Division by zero: Undefined Behavior or Implementation Defined in C and/or C++ ?

    - by SiegeX
    Regarding division by zero, the standards say: C99 6.5.5p5 - The result of the / operator is the quotient from the division of the first operand by the second; the result of the % operator is the remainder. In both operations, if the value of the second operand is zero, the behavior is undefined. C++03 5.6.4 - The binary / operator yields the quotient, and the binary % operator yields the remainder from the division of the first expression by the second. If the second operand of / or % is zero the behavior is undefined. If we were to take the above paragraphs at face value, the answer is clearly Undefined Behavior for both languages. However, if we look further down in the C99 standard we see the following paragraph which appears to be contradictory(1): C99 7.12p4 - The macro INFINITY expands to a constant expression of type float representing positive or unsigned infinity, if available; Do the standards have some sort of golden rule where Undefined Behavior cannot be superseded by a (potentially) contradictory statement? Barring that, I don't think it's unreasonable to conclude that if your implementation defines the INFINITY macro, division by zero is defined to be such. However, if your implementation does not define such a macro, the behavior is Undefined. I'm curious what the consensus on this matter for each of the two languages. Would the answer change if we are talking about integer division int i = 1 / 0 versus floating point division float i = 1.0 / 0.0 ? Note (1) The C++03 standard talks about the library which includes the INFINITY macro.

    Read the article

  • getting attribute as column headers

    - by edwards
    I have the following XML: <DEVICEMESSAGES> <VERSION xml="1" checksum="" revision="0" envision="33050000" device="" /> <HEADER id1="0001" id2="0001" content="Nasher[&lt;messageid&gt;]: &lt;!payload&gt;" /> <MESSAGE level="7" parse="1" parsedefvalue="1" tableid="15" id1="24682" id2="24682" eventcategory="1003010000" content="Access to &lt;webpage&gt; was blocked due to its category (&lt;info&gt; by &lt;hostname&gt;)" /> </DEVICEMESSAGES> I am using the following XSLT: <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="text"/> <xsl:strip-space elements="*"/> <xsl:template match="DEVICEMESSAGES/HEADERS"> <xsl:value-of select="@id2"/>,<xsl:text/> <xsl:value-of select="@content"/>,<xsl:text/> <xsl:text>&#xa;</xsl:text> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I get the following output: 0001 , Nasher[<messageid>]: <!payload> whereas I need the column headings, too: id2, content 0001 , Nasher[<messageid>]: <!payload>

    Read the article

  • WF -- how do I use a custom activity without creating it in a separate Workflow Activity Library?

    - by Kevin Craft
    I am trying to accomplish something that seems like it should be very simple. I have a State Machine Workflow Console Application with a workflow in it. I have created a custom activity for it. This activity will NEVER be used ANYWHERE ELSE. I just want to use this activity on my workflow, but: It does not appear in the toolbox. I cannot drag it from the Solution Explorer onto the workflow designer. I absolutely do not want to create a separate State Machine Workflow Activity Library, since that will just clutter my solution. Like I said, I will never use this activity in any other project, so I would like to keep it confined to this one...but I just can't figure out how to get it onto the designer! Am I going crazy!? Here is the code for the activity: public partial class GameSearchActivity: Activity { public GameSearchActivity() { InitializeComponent(); } public static DependencyProperty QueryProperty = System.Workflow.ComponentModel.DependencyProperty.Register("Query", typeof(string), typeof(GameSearchActivity)); [Description("Query")] [Category("Dependency Properties")] [Browsable(true)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Visible)] public string Query { get { return ((string)(base.GetValue(GameSearchActivity.QueryProperty))); } set { base.SetValue(GameSearchActivity.QueryProperty, value); } } public static DependencyProperty ResultsProperty = System.Workflow.ComponentModel.DependencyProperty.Register("Results", typeof(string), typeof(GameSearchActivity)); [Description("Results")] [Category("Dependency Properties")] [Browsable(true)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Visible)] public IEnumerable<Game_GamePlatform> Results { get { return ((IEnumerable<Game_GamePlatform>)(base.GetValue(GameSearchActivity.ResultsProperty))); } set { base.SetValue(GameSearchActivity.ResultsProperty, value); } } protected override ActivityExecutionStatus Execute(ActivityExecutionContext executionContext) { IDataService ds = executionContext.GetService<IDataService>(); Results = ds.SearchGames(Query); return ActivityExecutionStatus.Closed; } } Thanks. EDIT: OK, so I've discovered that if I change the project type from Console Application to Class Library, the custom activity appears in the toolbox. However, this is not acceptable. It needs to be a Console/Windows Application. Anyone know a way around this?

    Read the article

  • Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

    - by Kenny Peng
    I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

    Read the article

  • EMF ecore and xsd out of sync, how to resolve ?

    - by SeB
    Hi there, My application is using a model base on an xsd that have been converted to an ecore before generation of the java classes. One of my team member modified the .ecore metamodel in a previous version ,one attribute that used to be generated. He modified the attribute name but not the Extended MetaData specifying the element name used for xml persistance. <eStructuralFeatures xsi:type="ecore:EReference" name="javaDocsAndUserApi" upperBound="-1" eType="#//JavaDocsAndUserApi" containment="true" resolveProxies="false"> <eAnnotations source="http:///org/eclipse/emf/ecore/util/ExtendedMetaData"> <details key="kind" value="element"/> <details key="name" value="docsAndUserApi"/> </eAnnotations> </eStructuralFeatures> so we have an attribute name which is javaDocsAndUserApi and the persisted element named docsAndUserApi, and of course if I create change the attribute in the xsd to be named javaDocsAndUserApi, the ecore transformation will generate a metadata name javaDocsAndUserApi as well, which will break compatibility with previously persisted models. I have looked at xsd authoring guide to find an ecore:som_attribute that would allow me to specify which key to use in the xsd to force the metadata to be named docsAndUserApi during the xsd to ecore transformation but did not find anything. Does anybody have an idea to help me? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Should I Use Anchor, Button Or Form Submit For "Follow" Feature In Rails

    - by James
    I am developing an application in Rails 3 using a nosql database. I am trying to add a "Follow" feature similar to twitter or github. In terms of markup, I have determined that there are three ways to do this. 1) Use a regular anchor. (Github Uses This Method) <a href="/users/follow?target=Joe">Follow</a> 2) Use a button. (Twitter Uses This Method) <button href="/friendships/create/">Follow</button> 3) Use a form with a submit button. (Has some advantages for me, but I haven't see anyone do it yet.) <form method="post" id="connection_new" class="connection_new" action="/users/follow"> <input type="hidden" value="60d7b563355243796dd8496e17d36329" name="target" id="target"> <input type="submit" value="Follow" name="commit" id="connection_submit"> </form> Since I want to store the user_id in the database and not the username, options 1 and 2 will force me to do a database query to get the actual user_id, whereas option 3 will allow me to store the user_id in a hidden form field so that I don't have to do any database lookups. I can just get the id from the params hash on form submission. I have successfully got each of these methods working, but I would like to know what is the best way to do this. Which way is more semantic, secure, better for spiders, etc...? Is there a reason both twitter and github don't use forms to do this? Any guidance would be appreciated. I am leaning towards using the form method since then I don't have to query the db to get the id of the user, but I am worried that there must be a reason the big guys are just using anchors or buttons for this. I am a newb so go easy on me if I am totally missing something. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • array_map applied on a function with 2 parameters

    - by mat
    I've 2 arrays ($numbers and $letters) and I want to create a new array based on a function that combines every $numbers with every $letters. The parameters of this function involes the value of both $numbers and $letters. (Note: $numbers and $letters doesn't have the same amount of values). I need something like this: $numbers = array(1,2,3,4,5,6,...); $letters = array('a','b','c','d','e',...); function myFunction($x,$y){ // $output = some code that use $x and $y return $output; }; $array_1 = array( (myFunction($numbers[0],$letters[0])), (myFunction($numbers[0],$letters[1])), myFunction($numbers[0],$letters[2]), myFunction($numbers[0],$letters[3]), etc); $array_2 = array( (myFunction($numbers[1],$letters[0])), (myFunction($numbers[1],$letters[1])), myFunction($numbers[1],$letters[2]), myFunction($numbers[1],$letters[3]), etc); $array_3 = array( (myFunction($numbers[2],$letters[0])), (myFunction($numbers[2],$letters[1])), myFunction($numbers[2],$letters[2]), myFunction($numbers[2],$letters[3]), etc); ... $array_N = array( (myFunction($numbers[N],$letters[0])), (myFunction($numbers[N],$letters[1])), myFunction($numbers[N],$letters[2]), myFunction($numbers[N],$letters[3]), etc); $array = array($array_1, $array_2, $array_3, etc.); I know that this may work, but it's a lot of code, especially if I have a many values for each array. Is there a way to get the same result with less code? I tried this, but it's not working: $array = array_map("myFunction($value, $letters)",$numbers)); Any help would be appriciated!

    Read the article

  • Conditional column values in NSTableView?

    - by velocityb0y
    I have an NSTableView that binds via an NSArrayController to an NSMutableArray. What's in the array are derived classes; the first few columns of the table are bound to properties that exist on the base class. That all works fine. Where I'm running into problem is a column that should only be populated if the row maps to one specific subclass. The property that column is meant to display only exists in that subclass, since it makes no sense in terms of the base class. The user will know, from the first two columns, why the third column's cell is populated/editable or not. The binding on the third column's value is on arrangedObjects, with a model path of something like "foo.name" where foo is the property on the subclass. However, this doesn't work, as the other subclasses in the hierarchy are not key-value compliant for foo. It seems like my only choice is to have foo be a property on the base class so everybody responds to it, but this clutters up the interfaces of the model objects. Has anyone come up with a clean design for this situation? It can't be uncommon (I'm a relative newcomer to Cocoa and I'm just learning the ins and outs of bindings.)

    Read the article

  • how to send on users profile page on selecting username( using json autosuggest script)

    - by I Like PHP
    i m using auto suggest using Ajax Json . now when a user select a user name , i want to send user on the link of that user name my json data is coming in this way { query:'hel', suggestions:["hello world","hell boy ","bac to hell"], data:["2","26","34"] } now what i want that user goes to http://userProfile.php?uid=26 on select username(suppose user select "hell boy") how to do this?? UPDATE: i describe what i m doing step by step i m using a searchbox using jquery ajax, when user write some text on input box , we show (suggest) value regarading their search STEP 1. when user write atleast(2 letter) <input type="text" name="q" id="query" />then a function(below) in invoked in which i send the value written on text box(eg. hell). <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> var options, a; jQuery(function(){ options = { serviceUrl:'rpc.php' }; var a = $('#query').autocomplete({ serviceUrl:'rpc.php', minChars:3, delimiter: /(,|;)\s*/, // regex or character maxHeight:400, width:300, zIndex: 9999, deferRequestBy: 0, //miliseconds }); }); </script> STEP 3: on rpc.php, i collect the data and show using JSON my final data come in below format { query:'hell', suggestions:["hello world","hell boy ","bac to hell"], data:["2","26","34"] } where suggestion list having username and data is userid( from user_tables). above data comes in a div (on frontend) where user name displayed in a list STEP 4: now if i select any username using uparrow, downarrow then that name is filled in input box, STEP 5: now what i want that when user select usename then page automatically goes to that user's profile section ( userprofile.php?uid=2)

    Read the article

  • How can click on a java show link programatically?

    - by Jules
    I'm trying to develop a new feature for our vb.net order entry system. At the moment I provide an assisted paypal login which loops through transactions and copies the transactions. My program then looks at this data and copies it into text boxes. The operator then approves and saves the record. So my code uses IHTMLFormElement and loops round form elements and adds values. However I only really use this to log in to paypal. See my code... Dim theObject As Object = Nothing theObject = "https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_login-run" WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.Navigate2(theObject) While WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.ReadyState <> tagREADYSTATE.READYSTATE_COMPLETE Application.DoEvents() End While Dim HtmlDoc As IHTMLDocument2 = CType(WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.Document, IHTMLDocument2) Dim FormCol As IHTMLElementCollection = HtmlDoc.forms Dim iForms As Integer = FormCol.length Dim i As Integer Dim x As Integer For i = 0 To iForms - 1 Dim oForm As IHTMLFormElement = CType(FormCol.item(CType(i, Object), CType(i, Object)), IHTMLFormElement) For x = 0 To oForm.length - 1 If oForm.elements(x).tagname = "INPUT" Then If oForm.elements(x).name = "login_email" Then oForm.elements(x).value = "[email protected]" End If If oForm.elements(x).name = "login_password" Then oForm.elements(x).value = "mypassword" End If If oForm.elements(x).type = "submit" Or _ oForm.elements(x).type = "SUBMIT" Then oForm.elements(x).click() End If End If Next Next i I'm now trying this page https://www.paypal.com/uk/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_history&nav=0.3.0 Which is the history page, which allows you to search on the paypal transaction id. Unfortunately you need to click on 'find a transaction' which then uses some javascript to shows the post fields. So the problem is that the fields I need to use are hidden. How can I click on this java link in code ?

    Read the article

  • Getting the most recent post based on date

    - by camcim
    Hi guys, How do I go about displaying the most recent post when I have two tables, both containing a column called creation_date This would be simple if all I had to do was get the most recent post based on posts created_on value however if a post contains replies I need to factor this into the equation. If a post has a more recent reply I want to get the replies created_on value but also get the posts post_id and subject. The posts table structure: CREATE TABLE `posts` ( `post_id` bigint(20) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `cat_id` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `user_id` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `subject` tinytext NOT NULL, `comments` text NOT NULL, `created_on` datetime NOT NULL, `status` varchar(10) NOT NULL default 'INACTIVE', `private_post` varchar(10) NOT NULL default 'PUBLIC', `db_location` varchar(10) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`post_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=7 ; The replies table structure: CREATE TABLE `replies` ( `reply_id` bigint(20) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `post_id` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `user_id` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `comments` text NOT NULL, `created_on` datetime NOT NULL, `notify` varchar(5) NOT NULL default 'YES', `status` varchar(10) NOT NULL default 'INACTIVE', `db_location` varchar(10) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`reply_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=5 ; Here is my query so far. I've removed my attempt of extracting the dates. $strQuery = "SELECT posts.post_id, posts.created_on, replies.created_on, posts.subject "; $strQuery = $strQuery."FROM posts ,replies "; $strQuery = $strQuery."WHERE posts.post_id = replies.post_id "; $strQuery = $strQuery."AND posts.cat_id = '".$row->cat_id."'";

    Read the article

  • How to handle checkboxes in ASP.NET MVC forms?

    - by Will
    This seems a bit bizarre to me, but as far as I can tell, this is how you do it. I have a collection of objects, and I want users to select one or more of them. This says to me "form with checkboxes." My objects don't have any concept of "selected" (they're rudimentary POCO's formed by deserializing a wcf call). So, I do the following: public class SampleObject{ public Guid Id {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} } In the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%foreach (var o in ViewData.Model) {%> <%=Html.CheckBox(o.Id)%>&nbsp;<%= o.Name %> <%}%> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <%}%> And, in the controller, this is the only way I can see to figure out what objects the user checked: public ActionResult ThisLooksWeird(FormCollection result) { var winnars = from x in result.AllKeys where result[x] != "false" select x; // yadda } Its freaky in the first place, and secondly, for those items the user checked, the FormCollection lists its value as "true false" rather than just true. Obviously, I'm missing something. I think this is built with the idea in mind that the objects in the collection that are acted upon within the html form are updated using UpdateModel() or through a ModelBinder. But my objects aren't set up for this; does that mean that this is the only way? Is there another way to do it?

    Read the article

  • Flushing writes in buffer of Memory Controller to DDR device

    - by Rohit
    At some point in my code, I need to push the writes in my code all the way to the DIMM or DDR device. My requirement is to ensure the write reaches the row,ban,column of the DDR device on the DIMM. I need to read what I've written to the main memory. I do not want caching to get me the value. Instead after writing I want to fetch this value from main memory(DIMM's). So far I've been using Intel's x86 instruction wbinvd(write back and invalidate cache). However this means the caches and TLB are flushed. Write-back requests go to the main memory. However, there is a reasonable amount of time this data might reside in the write buffer of the Memory Controller( Intel calls it integrated memory controller or IMC). The Memory Controller might take some more time depending on the algorithm that runs in the Memory Controller to handle writes. Is there a way I force all existing or pending writes in the write buffer of the memory controller to the DRAM devices ?? What I am looking for is something more direct and more low-level than wbinvd. If you could point me to right documents or specs that describe this I would be grateful. Generally, the IMC has a several registers which can be written or read from. From looking at the specs for that for the chipset I could not find anything useful. Thanks for taking the time to read this.

    Read the article

  • javascript error handeling

    - by pankaj
    I have a javascript function for checking errors which i am callin on OnClicentClick event of a button. Once it catch a error i want to stop execution of click event . But in my case it always it always executes the onclick event. Following is my function: function DisplayError() { if (document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length < 6 || document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length > 12) { document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Password length must be between 6 to 12 characters"; return false; } var str = <%=PhoneNumber()%>; if(str.length <10) { alert('<%=phoneNum%>'.length); document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Phone Number not in correct format"; return false; } } button html code: <asp:Button runat="server" Text="Submit" ID="btnSubmit" ValidationGroup="submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="DisplayError()"/> It should not execute the button click event once it satisfies any of the IF condition in javascript function.

    Read the article

  • javascript: "Object doesn't support this property or method" when ActiveX object called.

    - by agnieszka
    I've got simple html on Login.aspx with an ActiveX object: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head><title></title> <script language="javaScript" type="text/javascript"> function getUserInfo() { var userInfo = MyActiveX.GetInfo(); form1.info.value = userInfo; form1.submit(); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:getUserInfo()"> <object id="MyActiveX" name="MyActiveX" codebase="MyActiveX.cab" classid="CLSID:C63E6630-047E-4C31-H457-425C8412JAI25"></object> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Login.aspx"> <input type="hidden" id="info" name="info" value="" /> </form> </body> </html> The code works perfectly fine on my machine (edit: hosted and run), it does't work on the other: there is an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" in the first line of javascript function. The cab file is in the same folder as the page file. I don't know javascript at all and have no idea why is the problem occuring. Googling didn't help. Do you ave any idea? Edit: on both machines IE was used and activex was enabled. Edit2: I also added if (document.MyActiveX) at the beggining of the function and I still get error in the same line of code - I mean it looks like document.MyActiveX is true but calling the method still fails

    Read the article

  • Rename files and directories using substitution and variables

    - by rednectar
    I have found several similar questions that have solutions, except they don't involve variables. I have a particular pattern in a tree of files and directories - the pattern is the word TEMPLATE. I want a script file to rename all of the files and directories by replacing the word TEMPLATE with some other name that is contained in the variable ${newName} If I knew that the value of ${newName} was say "Fred lives here", then the command find . -name '*TEMPLATE*' -exec bash -c 'mv "$0" "${0/TEMPLATE/Fred lives here}"' {} \; will do the job However, if my script is: newName="Fred lives here" find . -name '*TEMPLATE*' -exec bash -c 'mv "$0" "${0/TEMPLATE/${newName}}"' {} \; then the word TEMPLATE is replaced by null rather than "Fred lives here" I need the "" around $0 because there are spaces in the path name, so I can't do something like: find . -name '*TEMPLATE*' -exec bash -c 'mv "$0" "${0/TEMPLATE/"${newName}"}"' {} \; Can anyone help me get this script to work so that all files and directories that contain the word TEMPLATE have TEMPLATE replaced by whatever the value of ${newName} is eg, if newName="A different name" and a I had directory of /foo/bar/some TEMPLATE directory/with files then the directory would be renamed to /foo/bar/some A different name directory/with files and a file called some TEMPLATE file would be renamed to some A different name file

    Read the article

  • SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

    - by Adam Kane
    In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

    Read the article

  • Validate HAML from ActiveRecord: scope/controller/helpers for link_to etc?

    - by Chris Boyle
    I like HAML. So much, in fact, that in my first Rails app, which is the usual blog/CMS thing, I want to render the body of my Page model using HAML. So here is app/views/pages/_body.html.haml: .entry-content= Haml::Engine.new(body, :format => :html5).render ...and it works (yay, recursion). What I'd like to do is validate the HAML in the body when creating or updating a Page. I can almost do that, but I'm stuck on the scope argument to render. I have this in app/models/page.rb: validates_each :body do |record, attr, value| begin Haml::Engine.new(value, :format => :html5).render(record) rescue Exception => e record.errors.add attr, "line #{(e.respond_to? :line) && e.line || 'unknown'}: #{e.message}" end end You can see I'm passing record, which is a Page, but even that doesn't have a controller, and in particular doesn't have any helpers like link_to, so as soon as a Page uses any of that it's going to fail to validate even when it would actually render just fine. So I guess I need a controller as scope for this, but accessing that from here in the model (where the validator is) is a big MVC no-no, and as such I don't think Rails gives me a way to do it. (I mean, I suppose I could stash a controller in some singleton somewhere or something, but... excuse me while I throw up.) What's the least ugly way to properly validate HAML in an ActiveRecord validator?

    Read the article

  • MMS2R and Multiple Images Rails

    - by Maletor
    Here's my code: require 'mms2r' class IncomingMailHandler < ActionMailer::Base ## # Receives email(s) from MMS-Email or regular email and # uploads that content the user's photos. # TODO: Use beanstalkd for background queueing and processing. def receive(email) begin mms = MMS2R::Media.new(email) ## # Ok to find user by email as long as activate upon registration. # Remember to make UI option that users can opt out of registration # and either not send emails or send them to a [email protected] # type address. ## # Remember to get SpamAssasin if (@user = User.find_by_email(email.from) && email.has_attachments?) mms.media.each do |key, value| if key.include?('image') value.each do |file| @user.photos.push Photo.create!(:uploaded_data => File.open(file), :title => email.subject.empty? ? "Untitled" : email.subject) end end end end ensure mms.purge end end end and here's my error: /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.4/lib/commands/runner.rb:48: undefined method photos' for true:TrueClass (NoMethodError) from /usr/home/xxx/app/models/incoming_mail_handler.rb:23:in each' from /usr/home/xxx/app/models/incoming_mail_handler.rb:23:in receive' from /usr/home/xxx/app/models/incoming_mail_handler.rb:21:in each' from /usr/home/xxx/app/models/incoming_mail_handler.rb:21:in receive' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionmailer-2.3.4/lib/action_mailer/base.rb:419:in receive' from (eval):1 from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in eval' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.4/lib/commands/runner.rb:48 from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in gem_original_require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `require' from /home/xxx/script/runner:3 I sent an email to the server with two image attachments. Upon receiving the email the server runs "| ruby /xxx/script/runner 'IncomingMailHandler.receive STDIN.read'" What is going on? What am I doing wrong? MMS2R docs are here: http://mms2r.rubyforge.org/mms2r/

    Read the article

  • JSF Form is not showing up

    - by AnAmuser
    My server is glassfish v3, my browser is firefox 3.6.3 and i am using Netbeans 6.8 My question is why the textfield is not showing up in my browser. I only see the label. <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" xmlns:f="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core"> <h:head> <title>Lookup</title> </h:head> <h:body> <fieldset> <legend>Enter Your Customer ID</legend> <p>Legal ids are id001, id002, and id003.</p> <f:view> <h:form> Customer ID: <h:inputText value="#{bankForm.customerId}" /> <h:commandButton value="Show Current Balance" action="#{bankForm.findBalance}" /> </h:form> </f:view> </fieldset> </h:body> </html>

    Read the article

  • css Checkbox Label Selector

    - by HW90
    I'm developing a MVC3 application and need to select the checkboxes label. In ASP MVC3 you have helper methods which creat a part of the code. So the code for a checkbox looks like this: <input id="Jumping_successleicht" type="checkbox" value="true" name="Jumping_successleicht"> <input type="hidden" value="false" name="Jumping_successleicht"> <label for="Jumping_successleicht"> <span>leicht (4)</span> </label> Now I've thought I can use following code to select the label: input[type=checkbox] + label { background: url("../../Images/Controls/Checkbox.png") no-repeat scroll left center transparent; clear: none; cursor: pointer; margin: 0; padding: 5px 0 4px 24px; } But it does not work. It looks like label and input have to be next to each other. Does any ony have a solution how to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • How to send XML and other post parameters via cURL in PHP

    - by tomaszs
    Hello. I've used code below to send XML to my REST API. $xml_string_data contains proper XML, and it is passed well to mypi.php: //set POST variables $url = 'http://www.server.cu/mypi.php'; $fields = array( 'data'=>urlencode($xml_string_data) ); //url-ify the data for the POST $fields_string = ""; foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value.'&'; } rtrim($fields_string,'&'); echo $fields_string; //open connection $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POST,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,$fields_string); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER,array ( "Expect: " )); //execute post $result = @curl_exec($ch); But when I've added other field: $fields = array( 'method' => "methodGoPay", 'data'=>urlencode($xml_string_data) ); It stopped to work. On the mypi.php I don't recieve any more POST parameters at all! Could you you please tell me what to do to send XML and other post parameters in one cURL request? Please don't suggest using any libraries, I wan't to acomplish it in plain PHP.

    Read the article

  • In a combobox, how do I determine the highlighted item (not selected item)?

    - by Harold Bamford
    First, fair warning: I am a complete newbie with C# and WPF. I have a combobox (editable, searchable) and I would like to be able to intercept the Delete key and remove the currently highlighted item from the list. The behavior I'm looking for is like that of MS Outlook when entering in email addresses. When you give a few characters, a dropdown list of potential matches is displayed. If you move to one of these (with the arrow keys) and hit Delete, that entry is permanently removed. I want to do that with an entry in the combobox. Here is the XAML (simplified): <ComboBox x:Name="Directory" KeyUp="Directory_KeyUp" IsTextSearchEnabled="True" IsEditable="True" Text="{Binding Path=CurrentDirectory, Mode=TwoWay}" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={x:Static self:Properties.Settings.Default}, Path=DirectoryList, Mode=TwoWay}" / The handler is: private void Directory_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { ComboBox box = sender as ComboBox; if (box.IsDropDownOpen && (e.Key == Key.Delete)) { TrimCombobox("DirectoryList", box.HighlightedItem); // won't compile! } } When using the debugger, I can see box.HighlightedItem has the value I want but when I try and put in that code, it fails to compile with: System.Windows.Controls.ComboBox' does not contain a definition for 'HighlightedItem'... So: how do I access that value? Keep in mind that the item has not been selected. It is merely highlighted as the mouse hovers over it. Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Changing where a resource is pulled during runtime?

    - by Brandon
    I have a website that goes out to multiple clients. Sometimes a client will insist on minor changes. For reasons beyond my control, I have to comply no matter how minor the request. Usually this isn't a problem, I would just create a client specific version of the user control or page and overwrite the default one during build time or make a configuration setting to handle it. Now that I am localizing the site, I'm curious about the best way to go about making minor wording changes. Lets say I have a resource file called Resources.resx that has 300 resources in it. It has a resource called Continue. English value is "Continue", the French value is "Continuez". Now one client, for whatever reason, wants it to say "Next" and "Après" and the others want to keep it the same. What is the best way to accomodate a request like this? (This is just a simple example). The only two ways I can think of is to Create another Resources.resx specific to the client, and replace the .dll during build time. Since I'd be completely replacing the dll, the new resource file would have to contain all 300 strings. The obvious problem being that I now have 2 resource files, each with 300 strings to maintain. Create a custom user control/page and change it to use a custom resource file. e.g. SignIn.ascx would be replaced during the build and it would pull its resources from ClientName.resx instead of Resources.resx. Are there any other things I could try? Is there any way to change it so that the application will always look in a ClientResources.resx file for the overridden values before actually look at the specified resource file?

    Read the article

  • JQuery checkbox state is updated differently between group click() and $.each(obj.click())

    - by teerapap
    The code below doesn't work in the same behavior. The sequence of click event and calling foo() is different. I want to know why they behave different sequence between call click() and iterate the objects before call click() on each. <script type="text/javascript"> function foo(obj){ alert(obj.id+" ->"+obj.checked); } function clickAll(val){ if (val) { $(":checkbox").click(); } else { $(":checkbox").each(function(i,obj){ obj.click(); }); } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="checkbox" id="check1" onclick="foo(this)" /> a <input type="checkbox" id="check2" onclick="foo(this)" /> b <input type="checkbox" id="check3" onclick="foo(this)" /> c <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(true)" value="click all" /> <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(false)" value="click all each" /> </body>

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 691 692 693 694 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702  | Next Page >