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  • Problem with mathamatical calculation in JQUERY

    - by Param-Ganak
    Hello friends! I have two text boxes. I enter number in one textbox. I write following JQUERY for that textbox which get executed when the focus out from first text box. The JQUERY code takes the entered value from first text box and multiply it by a decimal number 34.95 and display the answer in second text box. The code is doing the calculation little bit ok because when I enter the value 1000 in first text box it gives answer 34950 in second textbox and when I enter the value 100 in first text box it gives answer 3495.0000000000005 in second text box. **Please any one tell me what is the problem. is problem is in my JQUERY code. I also want to show the answer always in decimal point. Answer should always dislply only two digits after decimal point. so How to achieve this too.** This is my JQUERY code. $("#id_pvalue").focusout(function() { q=$("#id_pvalue").val(); var ans=q*34.95; $("#id_tvalue").val(ans); }); Please guide me friends! Thank You!

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  • VB.NET CInt(Long) behaving differently in 32- and 64-bit environments

    - by LocoDelAssembly
    Hello everybody, this is my first message here. Today I had a problem converting a Long (Int64) to an Integer (Int32). The problem is that my code was always working in 32-bit environments, but when I try THE SAME executable in a 64-bit computer it crashes with a System.OverflowException exception. I've prepared this test code in VS2008 in a new project with default settings: Module Module1 Sub Main() Dim alpha As Long = -1 Dim delta As Integer Try delta = CInt(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("CINT OK") delta = Convert.ToInt32(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("Convert.ToInt32 OK") Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.GetType().ToString()) Finally Console.ReadLine() End Try End Sub End Module On my 32-bit setups (Windows XP SP3 32-bit and Windows 7 32-bit) it prints "CINT OK", but in the 64-bit computer (Windows 7 64-bit) that I've tested THE SAME executable it prints the exception name only. Is this behavior documented? I tried to find a reference but failed miserably. For reference I leave the MSIL code too: .method public static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint .custom instance void [mscorlib]System.STAThreadAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) // Code size 88 (0x58) .maxstack 2 .locals init ([0] int64 alpha, [1] int32 delta, [2] class [mscorlib]System.Exception ex) IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0002: conv.i8 IL_0003: stloc.0 IL_0004: nop .try { .try { IL_0005: ldloc.0 IL_0006: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0007: conv.u8 IL_0008: and IL_0009: conv.ovf.i4 IL_000a: stloc.1 IL_000b: ldstr "CINT OK" IL_0010: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0015: nop IL_0016: ldloc.0 IL_0017: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0018: conv.u8 IL_0019: and IL_001a: call int32 [mscorlib]System.Convert::ToInt32(int64) IL_001f: stloc.1 IL_0020: ldstr "Convert.ToInt32 OK" IL_0025: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_002a: nop IL_002b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end .try catch [mscorlib]System.Exception { IL_002d: dup IL_002e: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::SetProjectError(class [mscorlib]System.Exception) IL_0033: stloc.2 IL_0034: nop IL_0035: ldloc.2 IL_0036: callvirt instance class [mscorlib]System.Type [mscorlib]System.Exception::GetType() IL_003b: callvirt instance string [mscorlib]System.Type::ToString() IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0045: nop IL_0046: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::ClearProjectError() IL_004b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end handler } // end .try finally { IL_004d: nop IL_004e: call string [mscorlib]System.Console::ReadLine() IL_0053: pop IL_0054: endfinally } // end handler IL_0055: nop IL_0056: nop IL_0057: ret } // end of method Module1::Main I suspect that the instruction that is behaving differently is either conv.ovf.i4 or the ldc.i4.m1/conv.u8 pair. If you know what is going on here please let me know Thanks

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  • How to end a thread in perl

    - by user1672190
    I am new to perl and i have a question about perl thread. I am trying to create a new thread to check if the running function is timed out, and my way of doing it is as below. Logic is 1.create a new thread 2.run the main function and see if it is timed out, if ture, kill it Sample code: $exit_tread = false; # a flag to make sure timeout thread will run my $thr_timeout = threads->new( \&timeout ); execute main function here; $exit_thread = true # set the flag to true to force thread ends $thr_timeout->join(); #wait for the timeout thread ends Code of timeout function sub timeout { $timeout = false; my $start_time = time(); while (!$exit_thread) { sleep(1); last if (main function is executed); if (time() - $start_time >= configured time ) { logmsg "process is killed as request timed out"; _kill_remote_process(); $timeout = true; last; } } } now the code is running as i expected, but i am just not very clear if the code $exit_thread = true works because there is a "last" at the end of while loop. Can anybody give me a answer? Thanks

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  • .NET port with Java's Map, Set, HashMap

    - by Nikos Baxevanis
    I am porting Java code in .NET and I am stuck in the following lines that (behave unexpectedly in .NET). Java: Map<Set<State>, Set<State>> sets = new HashMap<Set<State>, Set<State>>(); Set<State> p = new HashSet<State>(); if (!sets.containsKey(p)) { ... } The equivalent .NET code could possibly be: IDictionary<HashSet<State>, HashSet<State>> sets = new Dictionary<HashSet<State>, HashSet<State>>(); HashSet<State> p = new HashSet<State>(); if (!sets.containsKey(p)) { /* (Add to a list). Always get here in .NET (??) */ } However the code comparison fails, the program think that "sets" never contain Key "p" and eventually results in OutOfMemoryException. Perhaps I am missing something, object equality and identity might be different between Java and .NET. I tried implementing IComparable and IEquatable in class State but the results were the same. Edit: What the code does is: If the sets does not contain key "p" (which is a HashSet) it is going to add "p" at the end of a LinkedList. The State class (Java) is a simple class defined as: public class State implements Comparable<State> { boolean accept; Set<Transition> transitions; int number; int id; static int next_id; public State() { resetTransitions(); id = next_id++; } // ... public int compareTo(State s) { return s.id - id; } public boolean equals(Object obj) { return super.equals(obj); } public int hashCode() { return super.hashCode(); }

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  • HELP Retrieving the url parameter from a JSON store from a EXTJS ComboBox

    - by Newbie
    I am having a problem retrieving the parameters from the url section of a json store for a combobox in EXTJS from my code behind page in c#. The following is the code in the store: var ColorStore = new Ext.data.JsonStore( { autoLoad: true, url: '/proxies/ReturnJSON.aspx?view=rm_colour_view', root: 'Rows', fields: ['company', 'raw_mat_col_code', 'raw_mat_col_desc'] }); And the following code is in my code behind page: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string jSonString = ""; connectionClass.connClass func = new connectionClass.connClass(); DataTable dt = func.getDataTable("sELECT * from rm_colour_view"); //Response.Write(Request.QueryString["view"]); string w = Request.Params.Get("url"); string z = Request.Params.Get("view"); string x = Request.Params.Get("view="); string c = Request.Params.Get("?view"); string s = Request.QueryString.Get("view"); string d = Request.Params["?view="]; string f = Request.Form["ColorStore"]; jSonString = Serialize(dt); Response.Write(jSonString); } The string w has gives the following output: /proxies/ReturnJSON.aspx but all the others strings return null... How can rm_colour_view from the datastore then be retrived??? Any help would be appreciated! Thanks

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  • Blocking HTML and Javascript from being displayed on my site

    - by Tim Powell
    I am working on this new social networking site. One of it's various functions is posting. You can post to Facebook and my site, or Twitter and my site. That being said, I couldn't help but try and post HTML as I was testing sql injection. When I did, I noticed that there where ways to manipulate the site to, for instance, using a element to completely screw up the CSS design, or redirect a user to another site using javascript. That being said, I want to make my site a safe environment for my users... not a site that is used to distribute computer viruses, porn, and other things that might make someone tend to stay off of my site. When I searched this topic, I found ways to "strip" the HTML out of the $post variable before submitting it to the database. However, I would just like to make it so you can post any text, including HTML and Javascript, without the browser interpreting it as "run this..." code: I want to display it as plane text. I've seen it on Facebook, and when I looked at it the source code of a post, it showed <, /, and as regular text. I tried "dissecting" Facebook's source code, but found nothing. I have tried using tags such as <pre> and <code>, but because of the lack of ability to style and control them, I gave up and went back to just allowing HTML. Please, anyone who knows how to do this, please help me out. Thanks in advance, TP

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  • getting string.substring(N) not to choke when N > string.length

    - by aape
    I'm writing some code that takes a report from the mainframe and converts it to a spreadsheet. They can't edit the code on the MF to give me a delimited file, so I'm stuck dealing with it as fixed width. It's working okay now, but I need to get it more stable before I release it for testing. My problem is that in any given line of data, say it could have three columns of numbers, each five chars wide at positions 10, 16, and 22. If on this one particular row, there's no data for the last two cols, it won't be padded with spaces; rather, the length of the string will be only 14. So, I can't just blindly have dim s as string = someStream.readline a = s.substring(10, 5) b = s.substring(16, 5) c = s.substring(22, 5) because it'll choke when it substrings past the length of the string. I know I could test the length of the string before processing each row, and I have automated the filling of some of the vsariables using a counter and a loop, and using the counter*theWidthOfTheGivenVariable to jump around, but this project was a dog to start with (come on! turning a report into a spreadsheet?), but there are many different types of rows (it's not just a grid), and the code's getting ugly fast. I'd like this to be clean, clear, and maintainable for the poor sucker that gets this after me. If it matters, here's my code so far (it's really crufty at the moment). You can see some of my/its idiocy in the processSection#data subs So, I'm wondering 1) is there a way baked in to .NET to have string.substring not error when reading past the end of a string without wrapping it in a try...catch? and 2) would it be appropriate in this situation to write a new string class that inherits from string that has a more friendly substring function in it? ETA: Thanks for all the advice and knowledge everyone. I'll go with the extension. Hopefully one of these years, I'll get my chops up enough to pay someone back in kind. :)

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  • How to use .htaccess to redirect to an url that includes a query parameter

    - by wbervoets
    Hi guys, I've been struggling with a redirect where the final URL includes a query parameter that is an URL. It seems htaccess is escaping some characters. Here is my htaccess: Code: RewriteRule ^mypath http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 [L,R=302] First, if I put Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 in my browser address bar, www.otherserver.com will do its thing and then redirect to otherserver2 (including the &param2=1 which is a parameter of that URL and not of the URL otherserver.com) That's the behaviour I need :-) Now when I try to use the htaccess redirect from my site: http://mysite/mypath; the behaviour is not the same then putting the same URL in the browser address bar; it now tries to redirect to http ://otherserver2.com/ (no param2=1 anymore). (ps: otherserver1 and otherserver2 are not under my control.) I've tried escaping the redirectto parameter in my htaccess, like below, but it didn't work either: Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http%3a%2f%otherserver2.com%2f%3fparam2%3d1 Because then my browser tries to go to httpotherserver.com (all special characters are gone) In the end I would like to see http ://mysite/mypath to show the contents of Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 (preferred solution) or do a redirect to that URL. I hope my message is not to confusing, I hope someone can help me out; as I've already spent hours on this :-)

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  • Jquery Modal Popup opens twice on Single Click with ASP.Net MVC3

    - by user1704379
    I am using Modal Popup in my MVC3 application it works fine but opens twice for a single Click on the link. The Modal pop is triggered from the 'Index' view of my Home Controller. I am calling a view 'PopUp.cshtml' in my modal popup. The related ActionMethod 'PopUp' for the respective view is in my 'Home' controller. Here is the code, Jquery code on layout.cshtml page, <script type="text/javascript"> $.ajaxSetup({ cache: false }); $(document).ready(function () { $(".openPopup").live("click", function (e) { e.preventDefault(); $("<div></div><p>") .attr("id", $(this).attr("data-dialog-id")) .appendTo("body") .dialog({ autoOpen: true, title: $(this).attr("data-dialog-title"), modal: true, height: 250, width: 900, left: 0, buttons: { "Close": function () { $(this).dialog("close"); } } }) .load(this.href); }); $(".close").live("click", function (e) { e.preventDefault(); $(this).dialog("close"); }); }); </script> cshtml code in 'PopUp.cshtml' @{ ViewBag.Title = "PopUp"; Layout = null; } <h2>PopUp</h2> <p> Hello this is a Modal Pop-Up </p> Call modal popup code in Index view of Home Controller, <p> @Html.ActionLink("Click here to open modal popup", "Popup", "Home",null, new { @class = "openPopup", data_dialog_id = "popuplDialog", data_dialog_title = "PopUp" }) </p> What am I doing wrong that the modal pop up opens twice ? Thanks in Advance !

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  • Elegant solution to retrieve custom date and time?

    - by kefs
    I am currently using a date and time picker to retrieve a user-submitted date and time, and then I set a control's text to the date and time selected. I am using the following code: new DatePickerDialog(newlog3.this, d, calDT.get(Calendar.YEAR), calDT.get(Calendar.MONTH), calDT.get(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH)).show(); new TimePickerDialog(newlog3.this, t, calDT.get(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY), calDT.get(Calendar.MINUTE), true).show(); optCustom.setText(fmtDT.format(calDT.getTime())); Now, while the above code block does bring up the date and time widgets and sets the text, the code block is being executed in full before the user can select the date.. ie: It brings up the date box first, then the time box over that, and then updates the text, all without any user interaction. I would like the date widget to wait to execute the time selector until the date selection is done, and i would like the settext to execute only after the time widget is done. How is this possible? Or is there is a more elegant solution that is escaping me? Edit: This is the code for DatePickerDialog/TimePickerDialog which is located within the class: DatePickerDialog.OnDateSetListener d=new DatePickerDialog.OnDateSetListener() { public void onDateSet(DatePicker view, int year, int monthOfYear, int dayOfMonth) { calDT.set(Calendar.YEAR, year); calDT.set(Calendar.MONTH, monthOfYear); calDT.set(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, dayOfMonth); //updateLabel(); } }; TimePickerDialog.OnTimeSetListener t=new TimePickerDialog.OnTimeSetListener() { public void onTimeSet(TimePicker view, int hourOfDay, int minute) { calDT.set(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY, hourOfDay); calDT.set(Calendar.MINUTE, minute); //updateLabel(); } }; Thanks in advance

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  • Externally disabling signals for a Linux program.

    - by Harry
    Hello, On Linux, is it possible to somehow disable signaling for programs externally... that is, without modifying their source code? Context: I'm calling a C (and also a Java) program from within a bash script on Linux. I don't want any interruptions for my bash script, and for the other programs that the script launches (as foreground processes). While I can use a... trap '' INT ... in my bash script to disable the Ctrl C signal, this works only when the program control happens to be in the bash code. That is, if I press Ctrl C while the C program is running, the C program gets interrupted and it exits! This C program is doing some critical operation because of which I don't want it be interrupted. I don't have access to the source code of this C program, so signal handling inside the C program is out of question. #!/bin/bash trap 'echo You pressed Ctrl C' INT # A C program to emulate a real-world, long-running program, # which I don't want to be interrupted, and for which I # don't have the source code! # # File: y.c # To build: gcc -o y y.c # # #include <stdio.h> # int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { # printf("Performing a critical operation...\n"); # for(;;); // Do nothing forever. # printf("Performing a critical operation... done.\n"); # } ./y Regards, /HS

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  • Time out when creating a site collection

    - by Daeko
    I am trying to create a site collection programmatically. It has worked for about 6 months, but after the servers have been updated (various patches) it doesn’t work anymore (we have 3 servers: 1 development, 1 test, 1 production). It is still working in my development environment which hasn’t been updated, but not on the two others. I don’t receive any error messages, it just hangs at the code that is supposed to add the site collection (see code below). I am using Windows Server 2003 R2 and Sharepoint 2007 (version 12.0.0.6421 ). It doesn’t give me any errors, it just hangs until Internet Explorer comes with a “request timed out” response. If I try and debug the code, the code just stops there and nothing happens. No error messages or anything. public static string CreateSPAccountSite(string siteName) { string url = ""; SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { SPWeb web = SPContext.Current.Web; using (SPSite siteCollectionOuter = new SPSite(web.Site.ID)) { SPWebApplication webApp = siteCollectionOuter.WebApplication; SPSiteCollection siteCollection = webApp.Sites; SPSite site = siteCollection.Add("sites/" + siteName, siteName, "Auto generated Site collection.", 1033, "STS#0", siteCollectionOuter.Owner.LoginName, siteCollectionOuter.Owner.Name, siteCollectionOuter.Owner.Email); //Hangs here site.PortalName = "Portal"; site.PortalUrl = mainUrl; // https://www.ourdomain.net url = site.Url; } }); return url; //Should be "https://www.outdomain.net/sites/siteName" }

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  • How can I create an Assembly program WITHOUT using libraries?

    - by Newbie
    Hello. I've literally only just started looking to learn Assembly language. I'm using the NASM assembler on Windows Vista. Usually, when I begin to learn a new language, I'll copy someone else's Hello World code and try to understand it line-by-line. However, I'm finding it suprisingy difficult to find a Hello World program that doesn't reference other libraries! You see, there's no point trying to understand each line of the code if it is closely linked with a whole library of additional code! One of the reasons I want to learn Assembly is so that I can have near complete control over the programs I write. I don't want to be depending on any libraries. And so my question is this: Can anyone give me NASM-compatible Assembly code to a completely stand-alone Hello World program that can output to the Windows Vista console? Alternatively, I appreciate that a library may be required to tell the pogram WHERE to print the output (ie. the Windows console). Other than that, I can't see why any libraries should be required. Am I overlooking anything?

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  • How to strip out 0x0a special char from utf8 file using c# and keep file as utf8?

    - by user1013388
    The following is a line from a UTF-8 file from which I am trying to remove the special char (0X0A), which shows up as a black diamond with a question mark below: 2464577 ????? True s6620178 Unspecified <1?1009-672 This is generated when SSIS reads a SQL table then writes out, using a flat file mgr set to code page 65001. When I open the file up in Notepad++, displays as 0X0A. I'm looking for some C# code to definitely strip that char out and replace it with either nothing or a blank space. Here's what I have tried: string fileLocation = "c:\\MyFile.txt"; var content = string.Empty; using (StreamReader reader = new System.IO.StreamReader(fileLocation)) { content = reader.ReadToEnd(); reader.Close(); } content = content.Replace('\u00A0', ' '); //also tried: content.Replace((char)0X0A, ' '); //also tried: content.Replace((char)0X0A, ''); //also tried: content.Replace((char)0X0A, (char)'\0'); Encoding encoding = Encoding.UTF8; using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(fileLocation, FileMode.Create)) { using (BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(stream, encoding)) { writer.Write(encoding.GetPreamble()); //This is for writing the BOM writer.Write(content); } } I also tried this code to get the actual string value: byte[] bytes = { 0x0A }; string text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(bytes); And it comes back as "\n". So in the code above I also tried replacing "\n" with " ", both in double quotes and single quotes, but still no change. At this point I'm out of ideas. Anyone got any advice? Thanks.

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  • How to execute python script on the BaseHTTPSERVER created by python?

    - by user1731699
    I have simply created a python server with : python -m SimpleHTTPServer I had a .htaccess (I don't know if it is usefull with python server) with: AddHandler cgi-script .py Options +ExecCGI Now I am writing a simple python script : #!/usr/bin/python import cgitb cgitb.enable() print 'Content-type: text/html' print ''' <html> <head> <title>My website</title> </head> <body> <p>Here I am</p> </body> </html> ''' I make test.py (name of my script) an executed file with: chmod +x test.py I am launching in firefox with this addres: (http : //) 0.0.0.0:8000/test.py Problem, the script is not executed... I see the code in the web page... And server error is: localhost - - [25/Oct/2012 10:47:12] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 200 - localhost - - [25/Oct/2012 10:47:13] code 404, message File not found localhost - - [25/Oct/2012 10:47:13] "GET /favicon.ico HTTP/1.1" 404 - How can I manage the execution of python code simply? Is it possible to write in a python server to execute the python script like with something like that: import BaseHTTPServer import CGIHTTPServer httpd = BaseHTTPServer.HTTPServer(\ ('localhost', 8123), \ CGIHTTPServer.CGIHTTPRequestHandler) ###  here some code to say, hey please execute python script on the webserver... ;-) httpd.serve_forever() Or something else...

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  • Optimization of a c++ matrix/bitmap class

    - by Andrew
    I am searching a 2D matrix (or bitmap) class which is flexible but also fast element access. The contents A flexible class should allow you to choose dimensions during runtime, and would look something like this (simplified): class Matrix { public: Matrix(int w, int h) : data(new int[x*y]), width(w) {} void SetElement(int x, int y, int val) { data[x+y*width] = val; } // ... private: // symbols int width; int* data; }; A faster often proposed solution using templates is (simplified): template <int W, int H> class TMatrix { TMatrix() data(new int[W*H]) {} void SetElement(int x, int y, int val) { data[x+y*W] = val; } private: int* data; }; This is faster as the width can be "inlined" in the code. The first solution does not do this. However this is not very flexible anymore, as you can't change the size anymore at runtime. So my question is: Is there a possibility to tell the compiler to generate faster code (like when using the template solution), when the size in the code is fixed and generate flexible code when its runtime dependend? I tried to achieve this by writing "const" where ever possible. I tried it with gcc and VS2005, but no success. This kind of optimization would be useful for many other similar cases.

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  • How to tell if leaving iOS app entered foreground from fast-app switching or manually?

    - by JPK
    Is there a way to tell if an iOS app enters the foreground from fast-app switching or manually? I need to know by the time applicationWillEnterForeground is called, so some specific code can be executed (or not executed) depending on the condition in which the app entered the foreground. EDIT: It turned out that this was more of a design issue for me. I moved my code to applicationDidBecomeActive. I also added a BOOL property to the appDelegate called fastAppSwitching (probably the wrong name for it). I set this to YES in application:handleOpenURL and application:openURL:sourceApplication:annotation. Then I added the following code to application:didFinishLaunchingWithOptions: if (launchOptions) { self.fastAppSwitching = YES; } else { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; } In applicationDidBecomeActive, I used the following code: if (fastAppSwitching == YES) { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; //stop, don't go any further } else { ... } EDIT2: MaxGabriel makes a good point below: "Just a warning to others taking the solution described here, applicationDidBecomeActive: is called when the user e.g. ignores a phone call or text message, unlike applicationWillEnterForeground". This is actually also true for in-app purchases and Facebook in-app authorization (new in iOS 6). So, with some further testing, this is the current solution: Add a new Bool called passedThroughWillEnterForeground. In applicationWillResignActive: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; In applicationDidEnterBackground: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; In applicationWillEnterForeground: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = YES; In applicationDidBecomeActive: if (passedThroughWillEnterForeground) { //we are NOT returning from 6.0 (in-app) authorization dialog or in-app purchase dialog, etc //do nothing with this BOOL - just reset it self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; } else { //we ARE returning from 6.0 (in-app) authorization dialog or in-app purchase dialog - IE //This is the same as fast-app switching in our book, so let's keep it simple and use this to set that self.fastAppSwitching = YES; } if (fastAppSwitching == YES) { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; } else { ... } EDIT3: I think we also need a bool to tell if app was launched from terminated.

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  • jquery getscript <script> tags

    - by user1871612
    To ask about getscript html Code as follows: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "- / / W3C / / DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional / / EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>jQuery GetScript</title> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type = "text / javascript "> $(document). ready(function () { $getScript ('script.js', function (jd) { $.each (test, function (index, value) { console.log (value); }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="dest"> </div> </body> </html> js (1) code are as follows: - <script type='text/javascript'> var test = []; test [0] = ['111 ', '222']; </ script> js (2) Code as follows: - var test = []; test [0] = ['111 ', '222']; The problem is as follows: - Run js (1) code will appear: - Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token < No problem running js (2) Would like to ask how we can run js (1) can not go wrong Thank! Badly written, please forgive me.

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  • OSX launchctl programmatically as root

    - by Lukas1
    I'm trying to start samba service using launchctl from OSX app as root, but I get error status -60031. I can run without problems the command in Terminal: sudo launchctl load -F /System/Library/LaunchDaemons/com.apple.AppleFileServer.plist` In the objective-c code, I'm using (I know it's deprecated, but that really shouldn't be the issue here) AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges method. Here's the code: NSString *command = @"launchctl"; // Conversion of NSArray args to char** args here (not relevant part of the code) OSStatus authStatus = AuthorizationCreate(NULL, kAuthorizationEmptyEnvironment, kAuthorizationFlagDefaults, &_authRef); if (authStatus != errAuthorizationSuccess) { NSLog(@"Failed to create application authorization: %d", (int)authStatus); return; } FILE* pipe = NULL; AuthorizationFlags flags = kAuthorizationFlagDefaults; AuthorizationItem right = {kAuthorizationRightExecute, 0, NULL, 0}; AuthorizationRights rights = {1, &right}; // Call AuthorizationCopyRights to determine or extend the allowable rights. OSStatus stat = AuthorizationCopyRights(_authRef, &rights, NULL, flags, NULL); if (stat != errAuthorizationSuccess) { NSLog(@"Copy Rights Unsuccessful: %d", (int)stat); return; } OSStatus status = AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges(_authRef, command.UTF8String, flags, args, &pipe); if (status != errAuthorizationSuccess) { NSLog(@"Error executing command %@ with status %d", command, status); } else { // some other stuff } I have also tried using different flags then kAuthorizationFlagDefaults, but that led to either the same problem or error code -60011 - invalid flags. What am I doing wrong here, please?

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  • How to prevent VC++ 9 linker from linking unnecessary global variables?

    - by sharptooth
    I'm playing with function-level linking in VC++. I've enabled /OPT:REF and /OPT:ICF and the linker is happy to eliminate all unused functions. Not so with variables. The following code is to demonstrate the problem only, I fully understand that actually having code structured that way is suboptimal. //A.cpp SomeType variable1; //B.cpp extern SomeType variable1; SomeType variable2; class ClassInB { //actually uses variable1 }; //C.cpp extern SomeType variable2; class ClassInC { //actually uses variable2; }; All those files are compiled into a static lib. The consumer project only uses ClassInC and links to the static library. Now comes the VC++ 9 linker. First the linker sees that C.obj references variable2 and includes B.obj. B.obj references variable1, so it includes A.obj. Then the unreferenced stuff elimination phase starts. It removes all functions in A.obj and B.obj, but not the variables. Both variable and variable2 are preserved together with their static initializers and deinitializers. That inflates the image size and introduces a delay for running the initializers and deinitializes. The code above is oversimplified, in actual code I really can't move variable2 into C.cpp easily. I could put it into a separate .cpp file, but that looks really dumb. Is there any better option to resolve the problem with Visual C++ 9?

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  • Is there a faster way to access a property member of a class using reflection?

    - by Ross Goddard
    I am currently using the following code to access the property of an object using reflection: Dim propInfo As Reflection.PropertyInfo = myType.GetProperty(propName) Dim objValue As Object = propInfo.GetValue(myObject, Nothing) I am having some issues with the speed since this type of code is being called many times and is causing some slowdown. I have been looking into using Refelction.Emit or dynamic methods, but I am not sure exactly how to make use of them. Background Information: I am creating a list of a subset of the properties of the object, associating then with some meta information (such as if they can be loaded from the database or xml, if they are editable, can the user see them). This is for later consumption so we can write code such as : foreach prop as BaseWrapper in graphNode.NodeProperties prop.LoadFromDataRow(dr) next The application makes heavy use of having access to this list. The problem is that on the initial load of a project, a larger number of objects are being created that make use of this, so for each object created it is looping through this code a number of times. I initially tried adding each property to the list manually, but this ran into problems with not everything being initialized at the correct time and some other issues. If there is no other good way, then I may have to rethink some of the design and see what else can be done to improve the performance.

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  • switch statemt functioning improperly and giving error when i put break;

    - by nav
    The following is the code i used in a program - over here the month variable is an integer switch(month) { case 1: case 3: case 5: case 7: case 8: case 10: case 12: return 31; break; case 2: return 28; break; case 4: case 6: case 9: case 11: return 30; break; default: System.out.println("Invalid month."); return 0; } surprisingly, when i use the above switch construct.. it gives an error saying.. code unreachable for statements after each break statement Then i removed all the break statements, and the new code looks like this --- switch(month) { case 1: case 3: case 5: case 7: case 8: case 10: case 12: return 31; case 2: return 28; case 4: case 6: case 9: case 11: return 30; default: System.out.println("Invalid month."); return 0; } Now.. after removing the break statements .. the code worked perfectly well.. My question is... in the switch construct.. it is mandatory to use break.. or else the control flow continued.. and all the conditions are tested and executed!! right??? So why in the world is the previous ** syntactically Right** version giving an error.. and the modified syntactically incorrect version running perfectly well.. Any explanation.. anyone!!

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  • Jquery, how to escape quotes

    - by Sandro Antonucci
    I'm using a simple jquery code that grabs html code form a tag and then puts this content into a form input <td class="name_cat" ><span class="name_cat">It&#039;s a &quot;test&quot; </span> (5)</td> jquery gets the content into span.name_catand returns it as It's a "test". So when I print this into an input it becomes <input value="It's a "test"" /> which as you can imagine will only show as It's a , the following double quote will close the value tag. What's the trick here to keep the original string while not showing utf8 code in the input? Jquery code $(".edit_cat").click(function(){ tr = $(this).parents("tr:first"); id_cat = $(this).attr("id"); td_name = tr.find(".name_cat"); span_name = tr.find("span.name_cat").html(); form = '<form action="/admin/controllers/edit_cat.php" method="post" >'+ '<input type="hidden" name="id_cat" value="'+id_cat+'" />'+ '<input type="text" name="name_cat" value="'+span_name+'" />'+ '<input type="submit" value="save" />'+ '</form>'; td_name.html(form); console.log(span_name); } ); I basically need html() not to decode Utf8

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  • Redirecting Pages with PHP causing problems

    - by psp
    I have a page which has a link to a php page which takes data from $_GET and updates a database. After that it returns the user to the homepage with: header("Location: http://localhost/"); The thing is that this seems to "interrupt" the mysql part of the code. If I remove this redirect, everything in the database is updated, but when I put it back, nothing gets updated... This is the database update code, I am using a class of mine as a mysql wrapper: $conn->where('hash',$data1['hash']); $conn->update(TABLE_ITEMS,$newData1); $conn->where('hash',$data2['hash']); $conn->update(TABLE_ITEMS,$newData2); Notes: -There is no text or echo()'s on the page and no space before the <?php tag Order of Code: Data received from $_SESSION and $_GET Data processed and placed into arrays Data placed into mysql database header(); used to redirect page Code <?php require_once('config.php'); import(); if ( isset ( $_GET['g'] ) && isset ( $_SESSION['itemA'] ) && isset ( $_SESSION['itemB'] ) ) { $itemA = $_SESSION['gameA']; $itemB = $_SESSION['gameB']; $newData1 = processData($itemA); $newData2 = processData($itemB); $conn->update(TABLE_ITEMS,$newData1); $conn->update(TABLE_ITEMS,$newData2); header('Location: http://localhost/'); } else { header('Location: http://localhost/'); }

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  • How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

    - by Quigrim
    Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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