Search Results

Search found 206 results on 9 pages for 'seth weiner'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 7/9 | < Previous Page | 3 4 5 6 7 8 9  | Next Page >

  • Opening URL in New Tab doesn't work in existing, programmatically-opened New Window (Firefox)

    - by seth
    I am building a web app, for myself, to control some servers on my home network, and discovered what I think is very odd behavior in Firefox. If you open a pop-up, via javascript, in Firefox, is it then impossible to open a new tab, via javascript in that pop-up? If not impossible, how do you do it? Given a clean, default Firefox 3.6.3 installation... If I open a page in Firefox and then call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); A brand new "pop-up" window opens. However, if instead I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); A get a new tab. HOWEVER... If I call the first version var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); And then in the new "pop-up" that opens, I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); It opens a new tab in the original window, not a new tab in the pop-up. This seems very odd, and not intuitive at all. Why would the call in the pop-up open a tab in the "parent" window?

    Read the article

  • problems with async jquery and loops

    - by Seth Vargo
    I am so confused. I am trying to append portals to a page by looping through an array and calling a method I wrote called addModule(). The method gets called the right number of times (checked via an alert statement), in the correct order, but only one or two of the portals actually populate. I have a feeling its something with the loop and async, but it's easier explained with the code: moduleList = [['weather','test'],['test']]; for(i in moduleList) { $('#content').append(''); for(j in moduleList[i]) { addModule(i,moduleList[i][j]); //column,name } } function addModule(column,name) { alert('adding module ' + name); $.get('/modules/' + name.replace(' ','-') + '.php',function(data){ $('#'+column).append(data); }); } for each array in the main array, I append a new column, since that's what each sub-array is - a column of portals. Then I loop through that sub array and call addModule on that column and the name of that module (which works correctly). Something buggy happens in my addModule method that it only adds the first and last modules, or sometimes a middle one, or sometimes none at all... im so confused!

    Read the article

  • Go - Using a map for its set properties with user defined types

    - by Seth Hoenig
    I'm trying to use the built-in map type as a set for a type of my own (Point, in this case). The problem is, when I assign a Point to the map, and then later create a new, but equal point and use it as a key, the map behaves as though that key is not in the map. Is this not possible to do? // maptest.go package main import "fmt" func main() { set := make(map[*Point]bool) printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 0)] = true printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 2)] = true printSet(set) _, ok := set[NewPoint(3, 3)] // not in map if !ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for non existent element\n") } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for non existent element\n") } c, ok := set[NewPoint(0, 2)] // another one just like it already in map if ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for existent element\n") // should get this } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for existent element\n") // get this } fmt.Printf("c: %t\n", c) } func printSet(stuff map[*Point]bool) { fmt.Print("Set:\n") for k, v := range stuff { fmt.Printf("%s: %t\n", k, v) } } type Point struct { row int col int } func NewPoint(r, c int) *Point { return &Point{r, c} } func (p *Point) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("{%d, %d}", p.row, p.col) } func (p *Point) Eq(o *Point) bool { return p.row == o.row && p.col == o.col }

    Read the article

  • Problem creating a custom input element using FluentHtml (MVCContrib)

    - by seth
    Hi there, I just recently started dabbling in ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and came across the wonderful MVCContrib. I had originally gone down the path of creating some extended html helpers, but after finding FluentHTML decided to try my hand at creating a custom input element. Basically I am wanting to ultimately create several custom input elements to make it easier for some other devs on the project I'm working on to add their input fields to the page and have all of my preferred markup to render for them. So, in short, I'd like to wrap certain input elements with additional markup.. A TextBox would be wrapped in an <li /> for example. I've created my custom input elements following Tim Scott's answer in another question on here: DRY in the MVC View. So, to further elaborate, I've created my class, "TextBoxListItem": public class TextBoxListItem : TextInput<TextBox> { public TextBoxListItem (string name) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name) { } public TextBoxListItem (string name, MemberExpression forMember, IEnumerable<IBehaviorMarker> behaviors) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name, forMember, behaviors) { } public override string ToString() { var liBuilder = new TagBuilder(HtmlTag.ListItem); liBuilder.InnerHtml = ToString(); return liBuilder.ToString(TagRenderMode.SelfClosing); } } I've also added it to my ViewModelContainerExtensions class: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem<T>(this IViewModelContainer<T> view, Expression<Func<T, object>> expression) where T : class { return new TextBoxListItem(expression.GetNameFor(view), expression.GetMemberExpression(), view.Behaviors) .Value(expression.GetValueFrom(view.ViewModel)); } And lastly, I've added it to ViewDataContainerExtensions as well: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem(this IViewDataContainer view, string name) { return new TextBox(name).Value(view.ViewData.Eval(name)); } I'm calling it in my view like so: <%= this.TextBoxListItem("username").Label("Username:") %> Anyway, I'm not getting anything other than the standard FluentHTML TextBox, not wrapped in <li></li> elements. What am I missing here? Thanks very much for any assistance.

    Read the article

  • SVN Feature Branch Method

    - by Seth
    I am getting a SVN server setup and will be using the feature branch method. I plan on having 1+ branches making up a release tag. How do I merge (?) multiple branches into the release tag, while still maintaining diffs and such? I've given an example of our workflow below. Multiple devs pull to local Create feature branch Commit to branch Use branch to build QA (Here is where my question starts) I need to have all the branches for the next build to be put into a build tag to be used to build Production

    Read the article

  • Best Practice: Access form elements by HTML id or name attribute?

    - by seth
    As any seasoned JavaScript developer knows, there are many (too many) ways to do the same thing. For example, say you have a text field as follows: <form name="myForm"> <input type="text" name="foo" id="foo" /> There are many way to access this in JavaScript: [1] document.forms[0].elements[0]; [2] document.myForm.foo; [3] document.getElementById('foo'); [4] document.getElementById('myForm').foo; ... and so on ... Methods [1] and [3] are well documented in the Mozilla Gecko documentation, but neither are ideal. [1] is just too general to be useful and [3] requires both an id and a name (assuming you will be posting the data to a server side language). Ideally, it would be best to have only an id attribute or a name attribute (having both is somewhat redundant, especially if the id isn't necessary for any css, and increases the likelihood of typos, etc). [2] seems to be the most intuitive and it seems to be widely used, but I haven't seen it referenced in the Gecko documentation and I'm worried about both forwards compatibility and cross browser compatiblity (and of course I want to be as standards compliant as possible). So what's best practice here? Can anyone point to something in the DOM documentation or W3C specification that could resolve this? Note I am specifically interested in a non-library solution (jQuery/Prototype).

    Read the article

  • CSS style submit like href tag

    - by seth.vargo
    Hi all, I have a button class that I wrote in CSS. It essentially displays block, adds some styles, etc. Whenever I add the class to a tags, it works fine - the a tag spans the entire width of its container like display:block should do... However, when I add the button class to an input button, Chrome, Safari, and Firefox all add a margin-right: 3px... I've used the DOM inspector in both Chrome and Safari and NO WHERE should it be adding a extra 3px padding. I tried adding margin: 0 !important; and/or margin-right: 0 !important to my button class in my CSS, but the browser STILL renders a 3px right margin! Is this a known issue, and is there a CSS-based solution (i.e. not jQuery/javascript) CODE FOLLOWS: .button { position: relative; display: block; margin: 0; border: 1px solid #369; color: #fff; font-weight: bold; padding: 11px 20px; line-height: 18px; text-align: center; text-transform: uppercase; cursor: hand; cursor: pointer; }

    Read the article

  • Override app.config settings embedded into a MSI?

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    I have a .NET solution with an installer project that generates an MSI. One of the projects installed by the MSI contains an App.Config file. It appears that the values of that config file are embedded into the MSI at compile time. Is there a way to override them at runtime? For instance, the App.Config I'm working with sets the URL of a web service that the installer talks to. Is it possible to override this URL at runtime, so that I don't have to recompile the MSI if the URL changes?

    Read the article

  • jQuery sortable: Revert changes if update callback makes an AJAX call that fails?

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    I am using the jQuery sortable() feature to re-order a list of items. After an item is drug to a new location, I kick off an AJAX form post to the server to save the new order. How can I undo the sort (e.g. return the drug item to its original position in the list) if I receive an error message from the server? Basically, I only want the re-order to "stick" if the server confirms that the changes were saved.

    Read the article

  • Problem with 2 levels of inheritance in hibernate mapping

    - by Seth
    Here's my class structure: class A class B extends A class C extends A class D extends C class E extends C And here are my mappings (class bodies omitted for brevity): Class A: @Entity @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @MappedSuperclass @DiscriminatorColumn( name="className", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING ) @ForceDiscriminator public abstract class A Class B: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("B") public class B extends A Class C: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("C") @MappedSuperclass @DiscriminatorColumn( name="cType", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING ) @ForceDiscriminator public abstract class C extends A Class D: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("D") public class D extends C Class E: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("E") public class E extends C I've got a class F that contains a set of A: @Entity public class F { ... @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable( name="F_A", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="A_ID"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="F_ID") ) private Set<A> aSet = new HashSet<A>(); ... The problem is that whenever I add a new E instance to aSet and then call session.saveOrUpdate(fInstance), hibernate saves with "A" as the discrimiator string. When I try to access the aSet in the F instance, I get the following exception (full stacktrace ommitted for brevity): org.hibernate.InstantiationException: Cannot instantiate abstract class or interface: path.to.class.A Am I mapping the classes incorrectly? How am I supposed to map multiple levels of inheritance? Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • SQLInForm.com like plug-in for SQL Server 2008

    - by Vishal Seth
    Is there a plug-in like the java applet @ SQLinForm.com for MS SQL Server Management Studio 2008? I tried SSMS tools based on someone's answer to my previous question but I don't find any functionality to format (beautify/tabify) SQL. If somebody could please point out that in SSMS tools or suggest some other tool (preferably free) Thanks :)

    Read the article

  • Most concise way to convert from date format: yyyy[3 digit day of year] to SQL datetime

    - by Seth Reno
    I'm working with an existing database where all dates are stored as integers in the following format: yyyy[3 digit day of year]. For example: 2010-01-01 == 2010001 2010-12-31 == 2010356 I'm using the following SQL to convert to a datetime: DATEADD(d, CAST(SUBSTRING( CAST(NEW_BIZ_OBS_DATE AS VARCHAR), 5, LEN(NEW_BIZ_OBS_DATE) - 4 ) AS INT) - 1, CAST('1/1/' + SUBSTRING(CAST(NEW_BIZ_OBS_DATE AS VARCHAR),1,4) AS DATETIME)) Does anyone have a more concise way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Facebook Site Linking Support

    - by Seth
    When someone posts a link to a web site in Facebook, it populates the link preview box with a photo and some text from the site. If someone posts a link to my site in Facebook, it is generally just get the site's domain name and one of the images that appears on the site. No text appears. I would like to be able to control what text and images appear in the link. Is there a specification that they use? Can I provide some metadata so Facebook will display what I want?

    Read the article

  • Bind jQuery UI autocomplete using .live()

    - by seth.vargo
    I've searched everywhere, but I can't seem to find any help... I have some textboxes that are created dynamically via JS, so I need to bind all of their classes to an autocomplete. As a result, I need to use the new .live() option. As an example, to bind all items with a class of .foo now and future created: $('.foo').live('click', function(){ alert('clicked'); }); It takes (and behaves) the same as .bind(). However, I want to bind an autocomplete... This doesn't work: $('.foo').live('autocomplete', function(event, ui){ source: 'url.php' // (surpressed other arguments) }); How can I use .live() to bind autocomplete? UPDATE Figured it out with Framer: $(function(){ $('.search').live('keyup.autocomplete', function(){ $(this).autocomplete({ source : 'url.php' }); }); });

    Read the article

  • jquery dialog is clearing my form fields and I need to return a value from a jquery dialog

    - by Seth
    1.) I have a jQuery dialog that is opened whenever a particular textbox is focused. The dialog's contents are loaded from ajax and the unique ID of the textbox that was focused is passed in the ajax call (like this): $('[name=start_airport[]],[name=finish_airport[]]').click(function(){   var id = $(this).attr('id');   if($('#use_advanced_airport_selector').attr('checked')) {     $('#advanced_airport_selector').dialog({       open : function() {         $(this).load('/flight-booker/advanced-airport-selector.php?callerID='+id);       }     });     $('#advanced_airport_selector').dialog('open');   } }); (where advanced_airport_selector is an empty div) THAT PART WORKS FINE. However, when I make my ajax call within my dialog, all my form values are reset! No matter what I do, when that dialog opens, all form values are reset (not just the value of the textbox that was focused). I simply don't understand what would cause this behavior! But that's only issue #1. 2.) I need to be able to return a value from that dialog box. I am passing the ID in the ajax query so that I can use a jquery selector to update the caller's value after certain actions are performed within the dialog box. However, I can't actually access that textbox because of DOM_ERRORS that I've never come across. It doesn't make any sense! There's way to much code to post, and it's really hard to explain, so sorry if I'm unclear as to what I'm asking.

    Read the article

  • What's the Microsoft Ajax equivalent to jquery.ajaxSetup() or .ajaxError()?

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    I have an ASP.NET MVC site that uses both Microsoft Ajax [Ajax.BeginForm()] and jQuery to make asynchronous requests. I want to configure both frameworks such that a generic error handler is automatically attached if the developer does not explicitly specify a failure callback. In jQuery I can accomplish this with either .ajaxSetup() or .ajaxError(). What is the equivalent in the Microsoft Ajax client library? I'm fairly sure it's something in the Sys object but I can't find it...

    Read the article

  • PHP IDE with Integrated Web Server

    - by seth
    Note: This is not another "What is the best PHP IDE?" question. I'm looking for a PHP IDE with a specific feature, namely an integrated / embedded (php enabled) web server; ideally with xdebug pre-bundled. I already know that Aptana 1.5 has this functionality (and some older versions of Zend Studio as well), but Aptana 1.5 hasn't been supported for quite some time and as we make the transition to PHP 5.3 and beyond, it's usefulness will diminish significantly. I've looked at some options including Eclipse PDT and NetBeans, but it seems every PHP IDE relies on a separate local/remote web server to actually interpret the code. I know installing a web server locally is fairly trivial, but this is for a classroom solution, where installing, configuring, and maintaining a web server on 1000 machines is simply not feasible. A remote server solution will also not work due to the need to use debugging functionality (xdebug currently requires a hardcoded IP for the debug client). This seems like such an obvious feature/plugin for a PHP IDE, but my research thus far has turned up no results.

    Read the article

  • Form Submits to white page?

    - by Seth
    So I have a form for my register system. When the form submits and there's errors, (like 'Enter a username first!' or 'You must provide a password!') it successfully refreshes the page and shows those errors. HOWEVER, when the form submits and the user has filled out all of the data, and there is NO errors, the form goes to a white page. I looked in the source, and all that shows is the javascript at the top of my page, but it looks like no PHP/HTML is being executed. What is happening?!

    Read the article

  • Best Practice: Accessing radio button group

    - by seth
    Looking for the best, standards compliant, cross browser compatible, forwards compatible way to access a group of radio buttons in the DOM (this is closely related to my other most recent post...), without the use of any external libraries. <input type="radio" value="1" name="myRadios" />One<br /> <input type="radio" value="2" name="myRadios" />Two<br /> I've read conflicting information on getElementsByName(), which seems like the proper way to do this, but I'm unclear if this is a standards compliant, forwards compatible solution. Perhaps there is a better way?

    Read the article

  • access properties of current model in has_many declaration

    - by seth.vargo
    Hello, I didn't exactly know how to pose this question other than through example... I have a class we will call Foo. Foo :has_many Bar. Foo has a boolean attribute called randomize that determines the order of the the Bars in the :has_many relationship: class CreateFoo < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :foos do |t| t.string :name t.boolean :randomize, :default => false end end end   class CreateBar < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bars do |t| t.string :name t.references :foo end end end   class Bar < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :foo end   class Foo < ActiveRecord::Base # this is the line that doesn't work has_many :bars, :order => self.randomize ? 'RAND()' : 'id' end How do I access properties of self in the has_many declaration? Things I've tried and failed: creating a method of Foo that returns the correct string creating a lambda function crying Is this possible? UPDATE The problem seems to be that the class in :has_many ISN'T of type Foo: undefined method `randomize' for #<Class:0x1076fbf78> is one of the errors I get. Note that its a general Class, not a Foo object... Why??

    Read the article

  • In Scala 2.8 collections, why was the Traversable type added above Iterable?

    - by Seth Tisue
    I know that to be Traversable, you need only have a foreach method. Iterable requires an iterator method. Both the Scala 2.8 collections SID and the "Fighting Bitrot with Types" paper are basically silent on the subject of why Traversable was added. The SID only says "David McIver... proposed Traversable as a generalization of Iterable." I have vaguely gathered from discussions on IRC that it has to do with reclaiming resources when traversal of a collection terminates? The following is probably related to my question. There are some odd-looking function definitions in TraversableLike.scala, for example: def isEmpty: Boolean = { var result = true breakable { for (x <- this) { result = false break } } result } I assume there's a good reason that wasn't just written as: def isEmpty: Boolean = { for (x <- this) return false true }

    Read the article

  • Rails always include (join) on initialize

    - by Seth
    Hello, I have a User model as illustrated below: class User < ActiveRecord belongs_to :college belongs_to :class_level end I want to ALWAYS join with those other two tables returning one simplified User object. How do I accomplish this in my User model. I'm aware that I can do this in another model: class Foo < ActiveRecord has_many :users, :include => [:college, :class_level] end But I want to do this in my User model, so Foo.users will either be eager loaded OR be joined already. Is there a way to create an initialize this in the User model?

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 3 4 5 6 7 8 9  | Next Page >