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  • Splitting a set of object into several subsets of 'similar' objects

    - by doublep
    Suppose I have a set of objects, S. There is an algorithm f that, given a set S builds certain data structure D on it: f(S) = D. If S is large and/or contains vastly different objects, D becomes large, to the point of being unusable (i.e. not fitting in allotted memory). To overcome this, I split S into several non-intersecting subsets: S = S1 + S2 + ... + Sn and build Di for each subset. Using n structures is less efficient than using one, but at least this way I can fit into memory constraints. Since size of f(S) grows faster than S itself, combined size of Di is much less than size of D. However, it is still desirable to reduce n, i.e. the number of subsets; or reduce the combined size of Di. For this, I need to split S in such a way that each Si contains "similar" objects, because then f will produce a smaller output structure if input objects are "similar enough" to each other. The problems is that while "similarity" of objects in S and size of f(S) do correlate, there is no way to compute the latter other than just evaluating f(S), and f is not quite fast. Algorithm I have currently is to iteratively add each next object from S into one of Si, so that this results in the least possible (at this stage) increase in combined Di size: for x in S: i = such i that size(f(Si + {x})) - size(f(Si)) is min Si = Si + {x} This gives practically useful results, but certainly pretty far from optimum (i.e. the minimal possible combined size). Also, this is slow. To speed up somewhat, I compute size(f(Si + {x})) - size(f(Si)) only for those i where x is "similar enough" to objects already in Si. Is there any standard approach to such kinds of problems? I know of branch and bounds algorithm family, but it cannot be applied here because it would be prohibitively slow. My guess is that it is simply not possible to compute optimal distribution of S into Si in reasonable time. But is there some common iteratively improving algorithm?

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  • designing an ASP.NET MVC partial view - showing user choices within a large set of choices

    - by p.campbell
    Consider a partial view whose job is to render markup for a pizza order. The desire is to reuse this partial view in the Create, Details, and Update views. It will always be passed an IEnumerable<Topping>, and output a multitude of checkboxes. There are lots... maybe 40 in all (yes, that might smell). A-OK so far. Problem The question is around how to include the user's choices on the Details and Update views. From the datastore, we've got a List<ChosenTopping>. The goal is to have each checkbox set to true for each chosen topping. What's the easiest to read, or most maintainable way to achieve this? Potential Solutions Create a ViewModel with the List and List. Write out the checkboxes as per normal. While writing each, check whether the ToppingID exists in the list of ChosenTopping. Create a new ViewModel that's a hybrid of both. Perhaps call it DisplayTopping or similar. It would have property ID, Name and IsUserChosen. The respective controller methods for Create, Update, and Details would have to create this new collection with respect to the user's choices as they see fit. The Create controller method would basically set all to false so that it appears to be a blank slate. The real application isn't pizza, and the organization is a bit different from the fakeshot, but the concept is the same. Is it wise to reuse the control for the 3 different scenarios? How better can you display the list of options + the user's current choices? Would you use jQuery instead to show the user selections? Any other thoughts on the potential smell of splashing up a whole bunch of checkboxes?

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  • Strange JPA one-to-many behavior when trying to set the "many" on the "one" entity

    - by errr
    I've mapped two entities using JPA (specifically Hibernate). Those entities have a one-to-many relationship (I've simplified for presentation): @Entity public class A { @ManyToOne public B getB() { return b; } } @Entity public Class B { @OneToMany(mappedBy="b") public Set<A> getAs() { return as; } } Now, I'm trying to create a relationship between two instances of these entities by using the setter of the one-side/not-owner-side of the relationship (i.e the table being referenced to): em.getTransaction().begin(); A a = new A(); B b = new B(); Set<A> as = new HashSet<A>(); as.add(a); b.setAs(as); em.persist(a); em.persist(b); em.getTransaction().commit(); But then, the relationship isn't persisted to the DB (the row created for entity A isn't referencing the row created for entity B). Why is it so? I'd excpect it to work. Also, if I remove the "mappedBy" property from the @OneToMany annotation it will work. Again - why is it so? and what are the possible effects for removing the "mappedBy" property?

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  • Partitioning data set in r based on multiple classes of observations

    - by Danny
    I'm trying to partition a data set that I have in R, 2/3 for training and 1/3 for testing. I have one classification variable, and seven numerical variables. Each observation is classified as either A, B, C, or D. For simplicity's sake, let's say that the classification variable, cl, is A for the first 100 observations, B for observations 101 to 200, C till 300, and D till 400. I'm trying to get a partition that has 2/3 of the observations for each of A, B, C, and D (as opposed to simply getting 2/3 of the observations for the entire data set since it will likely not have equal amounts of each classification). When I try to sample from a subset of the data, such as sample(subset(data, cl=='A')), the columns are reordered instead of the rows. To summarize, my goal is to have 67 random observations from each of A, B, C, and D as my training data, and store the remaining 33 observations for each of A, B, C, and D as testing data. I have found a very similar question to mine, but it did not factor in multiple variables. I feel silly asking this question because it seems so simple, but I'm stumped. Also, this is my first question on this site, so I apologize in advance for any faux pas on my part.

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  • Delphi set Panel visible after post

    - by Daan Kleijngeld
    this is my code: if DRelatiebeheer.ContactpersoonID.Post = Action then KJSMDBGrid1.RefreshData; KJPanel4.Visible := true; my question is how can i set the panel on visible when the post is succesfully ended. I dont know how to fix it, tried many ways but didn't find a solution for the problem. I think the code doesn't work, because i put it invisible on the OnGetCellParams event. And I only want to set the last panel visible when the information is posted procedure TFRelatiebeheer.KJSMDBGrid1GetCellParams(Sender: TObject); begin if DRelatiebeheer.ACCID.AsInteger <= 0 then KJPanel3.Visible := false; KJPanel4.Visible := false; else begin KJPanel3.Visible := true; end; this is my OnGetCellParams event, this is the other procedure TFRelatiebeheer.SaveCancel(Sender: TObject); begin if (DRelatiebeheer.CID.State in [dsEdit, dsInsert]) then DRelatiebeheer.CID.Post; DRelatiebeheer.AID.Post; if DRelatiebeheer.CID.Post = Action then KJSMDBGrid1.RefreshData; KJPanel4.Visible := true; end;

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  • I can't login to my Django app when debug is set to False

    - by Eric
    I have a very strange problem, and I don't know how to fix or debug it. Short Story: I get locked out of my Django app when Debug is set to False. Long story: Case 1 (the first time it happened): 1. I enter my login info, but It just redirects to the login page. 2. I restart the server, try to login, and it works fine, I get in. 3. a few hours later I come back, log out, try to log back in and I can't. It just redirects to the login page. Case 2 (I figure out how to provoke the login failure): 1. I restart the server and am able to login to the site. 2. I log in and log out several times, everything is fine. 3. I go to a non-existing page and get a server error. 4. I log out and try to log back in, and I can't, just get redirected back to the login page. Case 3 (I can't provoke the login failure with Debug set to True): 1. I restart the server and am able to login to the site. 2. I log in and log out several times, everything is fine. 3. I go to a non-existing page and get a traceback. 4. I log out and log back in, everything works. 5. I wait and play around with it and can't get the login to fail while in Debug mode. Please help!

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  • Set a color as transparent in palette-based image

    - by NeDark
    Hello there! I want to convert a alpha transparent png image to palette based png image. In GD I can do it easy: // We have already the image loaded in $source_img $w=200; $h=200; // We supose that img dimensions are 200x200 $img = imagecreatetruecolor($w, $h); // New black image list($r, $g, $b) = array(200, 200, 200); // Some color that doesn't appear in image to avoid conflict $color = imagecolorallocate($img, $r, $g, $b); imagefill($img, 0, 0, $color); // Fill the black image with the chosen color. imagecolortransparent($img, $color); // Set the chosen color as transparent $res = imagecopyresampled($img, $source_img, 0, 0, 0, 0, $w, $h, $w, $h); But in Imagick I don't know how set a color as transparent (imagecolortransparent() in GD). I have spent hours searching on the internet, but the help in the php site isn't very comphrensive and there are many undocumented functions. Thanks.

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  • JQuery - Set TBODY

    - by Villager
    Hello, I have a table defined as follows: <table id="myTable" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <thead><tr> <th>Date</th> <th>First Name</th> <th>Last Name</th> </tr></thead> <tbody> <!-- rows will go here --> </tbody> </table> I am trying to dynamically populate 'myTable' at runtime via JavaScript. To accomodate for this, I am using JQuery. I want to write some HTML into the tbody element within 'myTable'. However, I am having problems understanding how to do this with the selectors. I know that I can get 'myTable' using: $("#myTable") I know that I can set the HTML of myTable by using the following: $("#myTable").html(someHtmlString); However, that sets the HTML of the entire table. In reality, I just want to set the HTML within the TBODY of 'myTable'. How do I do this with JQuery? Thank you!

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  • Set request attributes when a Form is POSTed

    - by ssahmed555
    Is there any way to set request attributes (not parameters) when a form is posted? The problem I am trying to solve is: I have a JSP page displaying some data in a couple of dropdown lists. When the form is posted, my Controller servlet processes this request (based on the parameters set/specified in the form) and redirects to the same JSP page that is supposed to display addition details. I now want to display the same/earlier data in the dropdown lists without having to recompute or recalculate to get that same data. And in the said JSP page, the dropdown lists in the form are populated by data that is specified through request attributes. Right now, after the Form is POSTed and I am redirected to the same JSP page the dropdown lists are empty because the necessary request attributes are not present. I am quite the n00b when it comes to web apps, so an obvious & easy solution to this problem escapes me at the moment! I am open to suggestions on how to restructure the control flow in the Servlet. Some details about this app: standard Servlet + JSP, JSTL, running in Apache Tomcat 6.0. Thanks.

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  • Compact data structure for storing a large set of integral values

    - by Odrade
    I'm working on an application that needs to pass around large sets of Int32 values. The sets are expected to contain ~1,000,000-50,000,000 items, where each item is a database key in the range 0-50,000,000. I expect distribution of ids in any given set to be effectively random over this range. The operations I need on the set are dirt simple: Add a new value Iterate over all of the values. There is a serious concern about the memory usage of these sets, so I'm looking for a data structure that can store the ids more efficiently than a simple List<int>or HashSet<int>. I've looked at BitArray, but that can be wasteful depending on how sparse the ids are. I've also considered a bitwise trie, but I'm unsure how to calculate the space efficiency of that solution for the expected data. A Bloom Filter would be great, if only I could tolerate the false negatives. I would appreciate any suggestions of data structures suitable for this purpose. I'm interested in both out-of-the-box and custom solutions. EDIT: To answer your questions: No, the items don't need to be sorted By "pass around" I mean both pass between methods and serialize and send over the wire. I clearly should have mentioned this. There could be a decent number of these sets in memory at once (~100).

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  • set width of bars in matlab bar plot on logarithmic scale

    - by KatyB
    I am a bit confused on how to draw a bar graph for the following example: x_lims = [1000,10000;10000,100000;100000,1000000;1000000,10000000;10000000,... 100000000;100000000,1000000000;1000000000,10000000000;... 10000000000,100000000000;100000000000,1e12]; ex1 = [277422033.049038;24118536.4203188;2096819.03295482;... 182293.402068030;15905;1330;105;16;1]; Here, x_lims is the x axis limits for each individual bar and ex1 is the count. How can I plot these on a bar graph so that the width of each individual bar along the x axis is defined by the distance between x_lims(:,1) and x_lims(:,2) and the y value is defined by ex1? So far I have: bar(log10(x_lims(:,1)),log10(ex1)); set(gca,'Xtick',3:11,'YTick',0:9); set(gca,'Xticklabel',10.^get(gca,'Xtick'),... 'Yticklabel',10.^get(gca,'Ytick')); But I would like to (1) have the labels to be the same as if they were created using semilogx or semilogy e.g. 10^9, and (2) I would like to remove the space between the bars, for the first bar, for example, I would like to have it extend horizontally from 1000 to 10000 and then the second bar from 10000 to 100000, and so on. How can this be done?

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  • CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

    - by Philip Rich
    I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

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  • Silverlight logging out causes "Object reference not set to an instance"

    - by Alex
    I am using the Silverlight 4 Business Application Template. I've created a DomainDataSource in XAML like so: <riaControls:DomainDataSource x:Name="LogData" QueryName="GetLogs" AutoLoad="True" LoadSize="20" > <riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> <local:AdminDomainContext /> </riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> <riaControls:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> <riaControls:Parameter ParameterName="UserLoginID" Value="{Binding Path=User.UserLoginID, Source={StaticResource WebContext}}" /> </riaControls:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> </riaControls:DomainDataSource> The problem I'm experiencing is that whenever I log out, I get: Load operation failed for query 'GetLogs'. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. I assume that because I've logged out, User.UserLoginID is now null and is causing the exception. So... anybody know a good way for me to solve this? I don't really want to set the QueryParameter programmatically.

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  • TextColor not showing when row backgroundcolor set

    - by RuAware
    if my row is colored red the text wont set to green and bold italic. When debugging I can see it telling the TextView to set each textViews setting. Thanks TableRow row = new TableRow(getContext()); row.setLayoutParams(new TableRow.LayoutParams(LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT, LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); String[] items = list.get(l).split(":"); for(int i=0; i < items.length; i++){ //see if i need to colour row if(items[i].startsWith("colorme_") == true) { if (items[i].substring(8).equals("red") == true) { row.setBackgroundColor(Color.RED); } } else { //create a temp textview then add to row TextView tempTV = new TextView(getContext()); tempTV.setText(items[i].toString()); //test against correct answers and colour text view green if correct if (correctAnswers != null && correctAnswers.size() > i) { if (correctAnswers.get(i).equals(items[i].toString()) == true) { tempTV.setTextColor(Color.GREEN); tempTV.setTypeface(null, Typeface.BOLD_ITALIC); } } row.addView(tempTV,lpTextView); } } //add the row tempTable.addView(row);

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  • Dropdownlist value not being set when there is a default blank option

    - by uriDium
    I am using ASP.Net MVC. I have a partial view which has a form with dropdownlists. The dropdownlists are set via ViewData. The partial view is used in a Create and Edit page. The create works fine. I get the dropdownlists and the blank option is a "Please select", like so <%= Html.DropDownList("ContactNrType", ViewData["ContactNrType"] as SelectList, "Please Select") %> But this doesn't seem to work for my edit. If I have that extra "Please select" parameter then it does not select the value for the drop down. I am setting the value of the drop down in the controller like so ViewData["ContactNrType"] = new SelectList(new List<string> { "Mobile", "Home", "Work", "Friend" }, candidate.ContactNrType); Any idea as to what I am doing wrong? I want to share the partial view which contains the form between the two pages. So I need the "Please Select" option for the Create. And I need the value set for the Edit (I don't mind that it has an option that still says "Please Select").

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  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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  • Perl help dereferencing a reference to an array of hash references, containing record set data

    - by user1724150
    I'm using the a Amazon Perl module that returns a reference to an array of hash references as $record_sets, containing record set data and I'm having a hard time dereferencing it. I can print the data using data dumper but I need to be able to manipulate the data. Below is the documentation provided for the module Thanks In Advance: #list_resource_record_sets #Lists resource record sets for a hosted zone. #Called in scalar context: $record_sets = $r53->list_resource_record_sets(zone_id => '123ZONEID'); #Returns: A reference to an array of hash references, containing record set data. Example: $record_sets = [ { name => 'example.com.', type => 'MX' ttl => 86400, records => [ '10 mail.example.com' ] }, { name => 'example.com.', type => 'NS', ttl => 172800, records => [ 'ns-001.awsdns-01.net.', 'ns-002.awsdns-02.net.', 'ns-003.awsdns-03.net.', 'ns-004.awsdns-04.net.' ]

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  • Delay PHP execution until JavaScript cookie set?

    - by Adam184
    I am trying to delay PHP execution until a cookie is set through JavaScript. The code is below, I trimmed the createCookie JavaScript function for simplicity (I've tested the function itself and it works). <?php if(!isset($_COOKIE["test"])) { ?> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { // createCookie script createCookie("test", 1, 3600); }); </script> <?php // Reload the page to ensure cookie was set if(!isset($_COOKIE["test"])) { header("Location: http://localhost/asdf.php/"); } } ?> At first I had no idea why this didn't work, however after using microtime() I figured out that the PHP after the <script> was executing before the jQuery ready function. I reduced my code significantly to show a simple version that is answerable, I am well aware that I am able to use setcookie() in PHP, the requirements for the cookie are client-side. I understand mixing PHP and JavaScript is incorrect, but any help on how to make this work (is there a PHP delay? - I tried sleep(), didn't work and didn't think it would work, since the scripts would be delayed as well) would be greatly appreciated.

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  • UPDATE Table SET Field

    - by davlyo
    This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

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  • Set the background color for a fixed range of cells

    - by Count Boxer
    I have VBA code in an Excel spreadsheet. It is used to set the font and background color of a cell based on the value in that cell. I am doing it in VBA instead of "Conditional Formatting" because I have more than 3 conditions. The code is: Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) Dim c As Range, d As Range, fc As Long, bc As Long, bf As Boolean Set d = Intersect(Range("A:K"), Target) If d Is Nothing Then Exit Sub For Each c In d If c >= Date And c <= Date + 5 Then fc = 2: fb = True: bc = 3 Else Select Case c Case "ABC" fc = 2: fb = True: bc = 5 Case 1, 3, 5, 7 fc = 2: fb = True: bc = 1 Case "D", "E", "F" fc = 2: fb = True: bc = 10 Case "1/1/2009" fc = 2: fb = True: bc = 45 Case "Long string" fc = 3: fb = True: bc = 1 Case Else fc = 1: fb = False: bc = xlNone End Select End If c.Font.ColorIndex = fc c.Font.Bold = fb c.Interior.ColorIndex = bc c.Range("A1:D1").Interior.ColorIndex = bc Next End Sub The problem is in the "c.Range" line. It always uses the current cell as "A" and then goes four cells to the right. I want it to start in the "real" cell "A" of the current row and go to the "real" cell "D" of the current row. Basically, I want a fixed range and not a dynamic one.

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  • Java servlet's request parameter's name set to entire json object

    - by Geren White
    I'm sending a json object through ajax to a java servlet. The json object is key-value type with three keys that point to arrays and a key that points to a single string. I build it in javascript like this: var jsonObject = {"arrayOne": arrayOne, "arrayTwo": arrayTwo, "arrayThree": arrThree, "string": stringVar}; I then send it to a java servlet using ajax as follows: httpRequest.open('POST', url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); var jsonString = jsonObject.toJSONString(); httpRequest.send(jsonString); This will send the string to my servlet, but It isn't showing as I expect it to. The whole json string gets set to the name of one of my request's parameters. So in my servlet if I do request.getParameterNames(); It will return an enumeration with one of the table entries' key's to be the entire object contents. I may be mistaken, but my thought was that it should set each key to a different parameter name. So I should have 4 parameters, arrayOne, arrayTwo, arrayThree, and string. Am I doing something wrong or is my thinking off here? Any help is appreciated. Thanks

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  • Linq2Sql - attempting to update but the Set statement in sql is empty

    - by MrTortoise
    This is weird ... done updates loads of times before but cannot spot why this is different. I have a client class from the dbml I added a method called update public void UpdateSingle() { L2SDataContext dc = new L2SDataContext(); Client c = dc.Clients.Single<Client>(p => p.ID == this.ID); c.CopyToMe(this); c.updatedOn = DateTime.Now; dc.SubmitChanges(); dc.Dispose(); } The CopytoMe method public void CopyToMe(Client theObject) { if (ID != theObject.ID) { ID = theObject.ID; } /// this is redundant as generated code checks field for a change. deleted = theObject.deleted; deletedBy = theObject.deletedBy; deletedOn = theObject.deletedOn; insertedBy = theObject.insertedBy; insertedOn = theObject.insertedOn; name = theObject.name; updatedBy = theObject.updatedBy; updatedOn = theObject.updatedOn; } Im taking a client that was selected, changing its name and then calling this update method. The generated sql is as follows exec sp_executesql N'UPDATE [dbo].[tblClient] SET WHERE ([ID] = @p0) AND ([name] = @p1) AND ([insertedOn] = @p2) AND ([insertedBy] = @p3) AND ([updatedOn] = @p4) AND ([updatedBy] = @p5) AND ([deletedOn] IS NULL) AND ([deletedBy] IS NULL) AND (NOT ([deleted] = 1))',N'@p0 int,@p1 varchar(8000),@p2 datetime,@p3 int,@p4 datetime,@p5 int',@p0=103,@p1='UnitTestClient',@p2=''2010-05-17 11:33:22:520'',@p3=3,@p4=''2010-05-17 11:33:22:520'',@p5=3 I have no idea why this is not working ... used this kind of select object, set field to new value submit the selected object pattern many times and not had this problem. there is also nothing obviously wrong with the dbml - although this is probably a false statement any ideas?

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  • how to set custom tab in jquery ui and use with rails

    - by Katyal
    I'm using jqueryUI for tabs on a page. I initialize it like below: $("#tabs").tabs(); <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-4">Part A</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-2">Part B</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-5">Part C</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-4"> ..... </div> <div id="tabs-2"> .... </div> <div id="tabs-5"> .... </div> </div> I have 2 questions. How do I set the tab to be custom. say I want second tab to be shown first. $('#tabs').tabs(2) does not work. i got that from this link Let say I click on a button inside tab1. Clicking on the button takes control back to an action and then control comes back to this page. When the control comes back...then is it possible to set a custom tab?. For example. in tab 1 I click something...go back to the action...and then I want to come back to tab 2.

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  • UIImageView not displaying image when property is set too early

    - by Undeadlegion
    I have an image I want to display inside a UIView. In Interface Builder, the UIView is the root and a UIImageView is its child. The view is connected to view controller's view outlet, and the image view is connected to the image view outlet: @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIImageView *imageView; If I try to set the image property of UIImageView before it's visible, the image doesn't show up. TestView *testView = [[TestView alloc] initWithNibName:@"TestView" bundle:nil]; testview.imageView.image = [logos objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:testView animated:YES]; If, however, I pass the image to the controller and set the image property in view did load, the image becomes visible. TestView *testView = [[TestView alloc] initWithNibName:@"TestView" bundle:nil]; testview.image = [logos objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:testView animated:YES]; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; imageView.image = image; } What is causing the image to not show up in the first scenario?

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  • Silverlight IConvertible TypeConverter

    - by codingbloke
    I recently answered the following question on stackoverflow:  Silverlight 3 custom control: only ‘int’ as numeric type for a property? [e.g. long or int64 seems to break] I quickly knocked up the class ConvertibleTypeConverter<T> that I posted in the question (listed later here as well). Afterward I fully expected to find that of the usual clever “bods who blog” to have covered this probably with a better solution than I.  So far though I’ve not found one so I thought I’d blog it myself. The Problem Here is a classic gotcha I’ve seen asked more than once on stackoverflow :- public class MyClass {     public float SomeValue { get; set; } } <local:MyClass SomeValue="45.15" /> This fails with the error  “Failed to create a 'System.Single' from the text '45.15'”  and results in much premature hair loss.  Fortunately this is SL4, in SL3 the error message is almost meaningless.  So what gives, how can it be that this fails when we can see other very similar values parsing happily all over the place? It comes down the fact that the Xaml parser only handles a few of the primitive data types namely: bool, int, string and double.  Since the parser has no idea how to convert a string to a float we get the above error. The Solution The sensible solution is “use double not float” but lets not dwell on that, there has to be occasions where such an answer isn’t acceptable. In order to achieve parsing of other types we need an implementation of TypeConverter for the type of the property and then we need to use the TypeConverterAttribute to decorate the property .  As an example the Silverlight SDK provides one for DateTime the DateTimeTypeConverter (yes I know DateTime isn’t really a primitive). The following class will parse in Xaml:- public class MyClass {     [TypeConverter(typeof(DateTimeTypeConverter))]     public DateTime SomeValue {get; set; } } So far though we would need to create a TypeConverter for each primitive type we are using, what if I had the following mad class to support in Xaml:- public class StrangePrimitives {     public Boolean BooleanProp { get; set; }     public Byte ByteProp { get; set; }     public Char CharProp { get; set; }     public DateTime DateTimeProp { get; set; }     public Decimal DecimalProp { get; set; }     public Double DoubleProp { get; set; }     public Int16 Int16Prop { get; set; }     public Int32 Int32Prop { get; set; }     public Int64 Int64Prop { get; set; }     public SByte SByteProp { get; set; }     public Single SingleProp { get; set; }     public String StringProp { get; set; }     public UInt16 UInt16Prop { get; set; }     public UInt32 UInt32Prop { get; set; }     public UInt64 UInt64Prop { get; set; } } Then I want to fill an instance of StrangePrimitives with the following Xaml which of course fails. <local:StrangePrimitives x:Key="MyStrangePrimitives"                          BooleanProp="True"                          ByteProp="156"                          CharProp="A"                          DateTimeProp="06 Jun 2010"                          DecimalProp="123.56"                          DoubleProp="8372.937803"                          Int16Prop="16532"                          Int32Prop="73738248"                          Int64Prop="12345678909298"                          SByteProp="-123"                          SingleProp="39.0"                          StringProp="Hello, World!"                          UInt16Prop="40000"                          UInt32Prop="4294967295"                          UInt64Prop="18446744073709551615"      /> I got to thinking, though, one thing all these primitive types have in common is that they all implement IConvertible so it should be possible to write just one converter to handle them all.  Here it is:- The ConvertibleTypeConverter public class ConvertibleTypeConverter<T> : TypeConverter where T : IConvertible {     public override bool CanConvertFrom(ITypeDescriptorContext context, Type sourceType)     {         return sourceType.GetInterface("IConvertible", false) != null;     }     public override bool CanConvertTo(ITypeDescriptorContext context, Type destinationType)     {         return destinationType.GetInterface("IConvertible", false) != null;     }     public override object ConvertFrom(ITypeDescriptorContext context, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture, object value)     {         return ((IConvertible)value).ToType(typeof(T), culture);     }     public override object ConvertTo(ITypeDescriptorContext context, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture, object value, Type destinationType)     {         return ((IConvertible)value).ToType(destinationType, culture);     } } I won’t bore you with an explanation of how it works, it simply adapts one existing interface (the IConvertible) and exposes it as another (the TypeConverter).   With that in place the previous strange primitives class can be modified as:- public class StrangePrimitives {     public Boolean BooleanProp { get; set; }     [TypeConverter(typeof(ConvertibleTypeConverter<Byte>))]     public Byte ByteProp { get; set; }     [TypeConverter(typeof(ConvertibleTypeConverter<Char>))]     public Char CharProp { get; set; }     [TypeConverter(typeof(ConvertibleTypeConverter<DateTime>))]     public DateTime DateTimeProp { get; set; }     [TypeConverter(typeof(ConvertibleTypeConverter<Decimal>))]     public Decimal DecimalProp { get; set; }     public Double DoubleProp {get; set; }     [TypeConverter(typeof(ConvertibleTypeConverter<Int16>))]     public Int16 Int16Prop { get; set; }     public Int32 Int32Prop { get; set; }     [TypeConverter(typeof(ConvertibleTypeConverter<Int64>))]     public Int64 Int64Prop { get; set; }     [TypeConverter(typeof(ConvertibleTypeConverter<SByte>))]     public SByte SByteProp { get; set; }     [TypeConverter(typeof(ConvertibleTypeConverter<Single>))]     public Single SingleProp { get; set; }     public String StringProp { get; set; }     [TypeConverter(typeof(ConvertibleTypeConverter<UInt16>))]     public UInt16 UInt16Prop { get; set; }     [TypeConverter(typeof(ConvertibleTypeConverter<UInt32>))]     public UInt32 UInt32Prop { get; set; }     [TypeConverter(typeof(ConvertibleTypeConverter<UInt64>))]     public UInt64 UInt64Prop { get; set; } } This results in the previous Xaml parsing happily.  Now it seems such an obvious thing to do that one may wonder why such a class doesn’t already existing in Silverlight or at least in the SDK.   I would not be surprised if there were some very good reasons hence use the ConvertibleTypeConverter with caution.  It does seem to me to be a useful little class to have lying around in the toolbox for the odd occasion where it may be needed.

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