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  • Does WCF use the ThreadPool to bring up new instances for a PerCall service?

    - by theburningmonk
    Hi, for a PerCall WCF service whose throttling has been set to be high (say, 200 max concurrent calls) would WCF bring up a new instance and invoke the request on a threadpool thread? If it does, then does this have an impact on the total number of concurrent calls allowed? I ask because I don't seem to ever hit the max number of concurrent calls I've set in the service throttling config but instead a fraction of that number - up to 50 on a 100 MaxConcurrentCalls setting and 160 on a 200 MaxConcurrentCalls setting. Thanks,

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  • What to choose.... web service or WCF in asp.net 3.5

    - by HotTester
    The current project i am working on is extensively using web services and is made in .net 3.5. Now as we are going for implementation of second phase we are confused if we should either use WCF or web service as done previously ? Further is there anything new that can be useful and is coming up with .net 4.0 regarding web services or WCF. Thanks in advance. A good link for this is here.

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  • Is the WCF REST Starter Kit dead in the water?

    - by Richard Ev
    We are looking at switching from using WCF for our service layer in applications to REST. So far we are assuming that the way to do this is to use the WCF REST Starter Kit. However this is still in Preview 2 and hasn't been updated since March 2009. Is this project dead in the water? If so, what alternatives do we have for creating .NET-based REST services? (Some are suggesting using ASP.NET MVC, which we're already using for our UI layer)

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  • Is there a way to create a WCF DataContract on a third party type?

    - by Michael Hedgpeth
    I am migrating to wcf and trying to figure out how I'm going to declare my Data Contracts properly. Some of the types I have been demoting are from a third party that I am unable to change. Are attributes the only way to explicitly declare data contracts in wcf? I know about the auto data contract functionality in 3.5, but the books I'm readin discourage that. And besides, that way assumes all state is publically available, which is oftentimes not the case.

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  • Watchguard config, drop-in or mixed-routing mode?

    - by vfilby
    I have a Watchguard XTM 2 that is currently acting as a firewall and a router for my business network, I currently have the WG setup in mixed-routing mode and am happy with the current configuration. The reason I am curious about drop-in mode is because I would like to use all the interfaces on the back of the watchguard for the same subnet. My understanding is that drop-in mode will put them all on the same subnet, but it is unclear from the manual that the routing/firewall/vpn will still work as expected. This WG is right behind a DSL modem that is setup in bridge mode, so the WG is handling all PPPoE auth and routing for the network.

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  • Routing for IPSec tunnel

    - by Emre A
    For Juniper NetScreen-NS25, I configured a site-to-site IPSec tunnnel. For the outside interface of remote site, I also needed to go through tunnel which has the same IP as IPSec gateway. Now, when I add static route to route that outside interface IP through tunnel while tunnel is up, there would be no problem at all but if the tunnel is down for some reason, it cannot be re-established as the routing for the IPSec gateway IP which is the same as outside interface IP is set to go through tunnel which it needed to re-etablish at that time. So, packets won't hit that IP. I tried adding another routing entry which has metric 2 through other gateway but it did'nt succeeded. So, what type of routing should I configure to reach that IP when tunnel is down. Thanks in advance.

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  • Routing for IPSec tunnel

    - by Emre A
    Hello. For Juniper NetScreen-NS25, I configured a site-to-site IPSec tunnnel. For the outside interface of remote site, I also needed to go through tunnel which has the same IP as IPSec gateway. Now, when I add static route to route that outside interface IP through tunnel while tunnel is up, there would be no problem at all but if the tunnel is down for some reason, it cannot be re-established as the routing for the IPSec gateway IP which is the same as outside interface IP is set to go through tunnel which it needed to re-etablish at that time. So, packets won't hit that IP. I tried adding another routing entry which has metric 2 through other gateway but it did'nt succeeded. So, what type of routing should I configure to reach that IP when tunnel is down. Thanks in advance.

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  • Specific IP routing for VPN

    - by Roy
    Is there a way that I can prevent an entire subnet from using internal routing. The VPN server is supposed to be a way to access the company's intranet websites for some people, while for others it is supposed to do routing to the outside only and therefore not having access to any internal websites. The VPN server has a DNS on the actual server but not all should be using this DNS. Some of the users should be directly sent out of the server to the internet. Example: 10.0.0.1 is the DNS on the server, gateway for the VPN 10.0.0.2 is a user (A) on the VPN having access to the intranet websites (subnet is 10.0.0.0/25) 10.0.0.192 is a user (B) only needing routing and no access to intranet websites (subnet is 10.0.0.192/26) All traffic of user B should be directly rerouted out of the server. I have tried several iptables but without success.

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  • Laptop connectd to 2 VPNs (1st for Internet over WiFi, 2nd to access shared folders on another network) is failing to route traffic over 2nd VPN

    - by Triynko
    I set up a VPN on Windows Server 2008 through its routing and remote access services. I connected to the VPN, and configured the client to allow for split tunneling (Internet traffic goes to my default gateway, and traffic directed to the VPN server goes through the VPN gateway). I had to adjust the routing table, adding an entry to ensure traffic to my VPN server goes through the tunnel by running the command "route add [VPN.IP] mask 255.255.255.255 [VPN.GATEWAY.IP] IF [VPN_INTERFACE_#]". Adding the correct route makes everything work flawlessly on all my machines, except for one. The problematic machine is a laptop that's not directly connected to a network. It connects to WiFi, and then connects to a VPN to obtain internet access. Finally, it connects to the target VPN server for file sharing. The "route add" trick doesn't work for that laptop, I'm assuming because it's connected to two VPNs, and I'm getting the routing wrong. Can anyone familiar with routing explain what routes I may need to add?

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  • Step by Step screencasts to do Behavior Driven Development on WCF and UI using xUnit

    - by oazabir
    I am trying to encourage my team to get into Behavior Driven Development (BDD). So, I made two quick video tutorials to show how BDD can be done from early requirement collection stage to late integration tests. It explains breaking user stories into behaviors, and then developers and test engineers taking the behavior specs and writing a WCF service and unit test for it, in parallel, and then eventually integrating the WCF service and doing the integration tests. It introduces how mocking is done using the Moq library. Moreover, it shows a way how you can write test once and do both unit and integration tests at the flip of a config setting. Watch the screencast here: Doing BDD with xUnit, Subspec and on a WCF Service  Warning: you might hear some noise in the audio in some places. Something wrong with audio bit rate. I suggest you let the video download for a while and then play it. If you still get noise, go back couple of seconds earlier and then resume play. It eliminates the noise.  The next video tutorial is about doing BDD to do automated UI tests. It shows how test engineers can take behaviors and then write tests that tests a prototype UI in isolation (just like Service Contract) in order to ensure the prototype conforms to the expected behaviors, while developers can write the real code and build the real product in parallel. When the real stuff is done, the same test can test the real stuff and ensure the agreed behaviors are satisfied. I have used WatiN to automate UI and test UI for expected behaviors. Doing BDD with xUnit and WatiN on a ASP.NET webform Hope you like it!

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  • ASP.NET MVC, areas, routing and a controller factory.

    - by Kieron
    Hi, I've an interesting problem with some routing with an ASP.NET MVC app. I'm building a CMS and I've got a catch-all handler that takes the URL and checks to see if there's some matching content in a database. If so, it displays it, otherwise we get a 404. Now I've got all that working with some test data, I moved on to write a quick admin system. I thought I'd use some of the new Area functionality baked into MVC 2, so I've created an area called Admin with a controller called Home. Now however I have a problem of the default HomeController in the Admin Area is being returned when requesting the application root path. The problem is that there is no other HomeController for the 'root' application (the one hosting all of the areas), instead the root would be redirected to the my catch-all handler and populated from the database. So now the controller factory is returning the best matching controller, which it thinks is the admin area one, what I really need is for it to not match it at all - as it did previously. Apart from renaming the Admin HomeController to something else, is there another solution?

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  • How to use routing in a ASP MVC website to localize in two languages - But keeping exiting URLs

    - by Anders Pedersen
    We have a couple ASP MVC websites just using the standard VS templates default settings - Working as wanted. But now I want to localize these website ( They are now in Dutch and I will add the English language ) I would like to use routing and not Resource because: 1. Languages will differ in content, numbers of pages, etc. 2. The content is mostly text. I would like the URLs to look some thing like this - www.domain.com/en/Home/Index, www.domain.nl/nl/Home/Index. But the last one should also work with - www.domain.nl/Home/Index - Witch is the exciting URLs. I have implemented Phil Haacks areas ViewEngine from this blogpost - http://haacked.com/archive/2008/11/04/areas-in-aspnetmvc.aspx. But only putting the English website in the areas and keeping the Dutch in old structure. Witch are served as Phils default fallback. But the problem is here that I have to duplicate my controllers for both language's. So I tried the work method described in this tread - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1712167/asp-net-mvc-localization-route. It works OK with the ?en? and /nl/ but not with the old URLs. When using this code in the global.asax the URL without the culture isn't working. public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { //routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{culture}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { culture = "nl-NL", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWitoutCulture", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } I properly overlooking some thing simple but I can't get this to work for me. Or are there a better way of doing this?

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  • Rails routing problem

    - by Steve
    I am new to Rails routing and I currently have a problem and hope someone can explain it to me. I am using Rails 2.3.5 Firstly, let me describe my working-fine code: I have a text example, which has a controller (cars_controller) with an update action (along with some other actions). The update action needs the :id parameter. The edit.html.erb has a form: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' } % ... # rest of the form content. In the configuration/routes.rb, I have a self-defined routing rule for update: map.connect 'car/update/:id', :controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' This works fine. Secondly, I change the code. All I change is the self-defined routing rule to map.connect 'car/:action/:id, :controller = 'cars' To me, this rule covers the self-written routing rule. Of course, this rule is also used by other actions such as edit. But the edit.html.erb doesn't work. It complains that update action misses the :id parameter. I have to change the form_for helper to: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update', :id = @car }% ... # @car is the instance passed to edit view. I know that if missing the :id parameter, update action will complain. What I don't understand is why my first code works (with my self-defined routing rule) but my second code fails. It seems to me that I didn't provide :id parameter in my self-defined routing rule. Anyone has an idea?

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  • JQuery object expected error when accessing page via url routing.

    - by Andy Evans
    In my global.asax I have url routing setup like below: routes.MapPageRoute("User Logon", "{Vendor}/Logon", "~/Logon.aspx"); In the logon.aspx page, I have a script that "stylizes" the logon button: <link href="jquery/css/flick/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="images/style.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="jquery/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery/js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#<%= ButtonLogon.ClientID %>').button(); }); </script> When I access the page us a url (in debug mode) http://localhost/logon.aspx?v=1 the page loads correctly and the jquery button command loads correctly. But then I access the page using the new url route, I get this error. Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected Anyone have an idea why this occurs? Thanks.

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  • Rails 3 : Can't get form_for to work as a 'delete' following the RESTful achitecture => always giving a ROUTING ERROR

    - by Alex
    I have a very simple render that goes as follow: <%= form_for(:relationships, :url => relationships_path, :html => {:method => 'delete'}) do |f| %> <div><%= f.hidden_field :user_id_to_unfollow, :value => @user.id %></div> <div class="actions"><%= f.submit "Unfollow" %></div> <% end %> When I submit this form it will always give me a Routing Error No route matches "/relationships" on my page. In my relationships controller, I have created all the propers methods: def create ... end def destroy ... end def update ... end def show ... end And in my routes config I have made sure to allow all routes for the relationships controller resources :relationships But I can't seem to get into the destroy method of the controller :( However if I remove the :html => {:method => 'delete'} method parameter in the form_for then I get to the create method of the controller no pb. I don't get it.... Alex

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  • Elmah for non-HTTP protocol applications OR Elmah without HttpContext

    - by Josh
    We are working on a 3-tier application, and we've been allowed to use the latest and greatest (MVC2, IIS7.5, WCF, SQL2k8, etc). The application tier is exposed to the various web applications by WCF services. Since we control both the service and client side, we've decided to use net.tcp bindings for their performance advantage over HTTP. We would like to use ELMAH for the error logging, both on the web apps and services. Here's my question. There's lots of information about using ELMAH with WCF, but it is all for HTTP bindings. Does anyone know if/how you can use ELMAH with WCF services exposing non-HTTP endpoints? My guess is no, because ELMAH wants the HttpContext, which requires the AspNetCompatibilityEnabled flag to be true in the web.config. From MSDN: IIS 7.0 and WAS allows WCF services to communicate over protocols other than HTTP. However, WCF services running in applications that have enabled ASP.NET compatibility mode are not permitted to expose non-HTTP endpoints. Such a configuration generates an activation exception when the service receives its first message. If it is true that you cannot use ELMAH with WCF services having non-HTTP endpoints, then the follow-up question is: Can we use ELMAH in such a way that doesn't need HttpContext? Or more generally (so as not to commit the thin metal ruler error), is there ANY way to use ELMAH with WCF services having non-HTTP endpoints?

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  • ServiceRoute + WebServiceHostFactory kills WSDL generation? How to create extensionless WCF service

    - by Ethan J. Brown
    I'm trying to use extenionless / .svc-less WCF services. Can anyone else confirm or deny the issue I'm experiencing? I use routing in code, and do this in Application_Start of global.asax.cs: RouteTable.Routes.Add(new ServiceRoute("Data", new WebServiceHostFactory(), typeof(DataDips))); I have tested in both IIS 6 and IIS 7.5 and I can use the service just fine (ie my extensionless handler is correctly configured for ASP.NET). However, metadata generation is totally screwed up. I can hit my /mex endpoint with the WCF Test Client (and I presume svcutil.exe) -- but the ?wsdl generation you typically get with .svc is toast. I can't hit it with a browser (get 400 bad request), I can't hit it with wsdl.exe, etc. Metadata generation is configured correctly in web.config. This is a problem of course, because the service is exposed as basicHttpBinding so that an old style ASMX client can get to it. But of course, the client can't generate the proxy without a WSDL description. If I instead use serviceActivation routing in config like this, rather than registering a route in code: <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"> <serviceActivations> <add relativeAddress="Data.svc" service="DataDips" /> </serviceActivations> </serviceHostingEnvironment> Then voila... it works. But then I don't have a clean extensionless url. If I change relativeAddress from Data.svc to Data, then I get a configuration exception as this is not supported by config. (Must use an extension registered to WCF). I've also attempted to use this code in conjunction with the above config: RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("","Data/{*data}","~/Data.svc/{*data}",false); My thinking is that I can just point the extensionless url at the configured .svc url. This doesn't work -- the /Data.svc continues to work, but /Data returns a 404. Anyone with any bright ideas?

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  • Why can't I use WCF DataContract and ISerializable on the same class?

    - by Dave
    Hi all, I have a class that I need to be able to serialize to a SQLServer session variable and be available over a WCF Service. I have declared it as follows namespace MyNM { [Serializable] [DataContract(Name = "Foo", Namespace = "http://www.mydomain.co.uk")] public class Foo : IEntity, ISafeCopy<Foo> { [DataMember(Order = 0)] public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } [DataMember(Order = 1)] public virtual string a { get; set; } DataMember(Order = 2)] public virtual Bar c { get; set; } /* ISafeCopy implementation */ } [Serializable] [DataContract(Name = "Bar ", Namespace = "http://www.mydomain.co.uk")] public class Bar : IEntity, ISafeCopy<Bar> { #region Implementation of IEntity DataMember(Order = 0)] public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } [DataMember(Order = 1)] public virtual Baz y { get; set; } #endregion /* ISafeCopy implementation*/ } [Serializable] [DataContract] public enum Baz { [EnumMember(Value = "one")] one, [EnumMember(Value = "two")] two, [EnumMember(Value = "three")] three } But when I try and call this service, I get the following error in the trace log. "System.Runtime.Serialization.InvalidDataContractException: Type 'BarProxybcb100e8617f40ceaa832fe4bb94533c' cannot be ISerializable and have DataContractAttribute attribute." If I take out the Serializable attribute, the WCF service works, but when the object can't be serialized to session. If I remove the DataContract attribute from class Bar, the WCF service fails saying Type 'BarProxy3bb05a31167f4ba492909ec941a54533' with data contract name 'BarProxy3bb05a31167f4ba492909ec941a54533:http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/' is not expected. Add any types not known statically to the list of known types - for example, by using the KnownTypeAttribute attribute or by adding them to the list of known types passed to DataContractSerializer I've tried adding a KnownType attribute to the foo class [KnownType(typeof(Bar))] But I still get the same error. Can anyone help me out with this? Many thanks Dave

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  • 4.0/WCF: Best approach for bi-idirectional message bus?

    - by TomTom
    Just a technology update, now that .NET 4.0 is out. I write an application that communicates to the server through what is basically a message bus (instead of method calls). This is based on the internal architecture of the application (which is multi threaded, passing the messages around). There are a limited number of messages to go from the client to the server, quite a lot more from the server to the client. Most of those can be handled via a separate specialized mechanism, but at the end we talk of possibly 10-100 small messages per second going from the server to the client. The client is supposed to operate under "internet conditions". THis means possibly home end users behind standard NAT devices (i.e. typical DSL routers) - a firewalled secure and thus "open" network can not be assumed. I want to have as little latency and as little overhad for the communication as possible. What is the technologally best way to handle the message bus callback? I Have no problem regularly calling to the server for message delivery if something needs to be sent... ...but what are my options to handle the messagtes from the server to the client? WsDualHttp does work how? Especially under a NAT scenario? Just as a note: polling is most likely out - the main problem here is that I would have a significant overhead OR a significant delay, both aren ot really wanted. Technically I would love some sort of streaming appraoch, where the server can write messags to a stream while he generates them and they get sent to the client as they come. Not esure this is doable with WCF, though (if not, I may acutally decide to handle the whole message part outside of WCF and just do control / login / setup / destruction via WCF).

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  • WCF and ASP.NET - Server.Execute throwing object reference not set to an instance of an object

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET page that calls to a WCF service. This WCF service uses a BackgroundWorker to asynchronously create an ASP.NET page on my server. Oddly, when I execute the WCF Service [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public void PostRequest(string comments) { // Do stuff // If everything went o.k. asynchronously render a page on the server. I do not want to // block the caller while this is occurring. BackgroundWorker myWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); myWorker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(myWorker_DoWork); myWorker.RunWorkerAsync(HttpContext.Current); } private void myWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Set the current context so we can render the page via Server.Execute HttpContext context = (HttpContext)(e.Argument); HttpContext.Current = context; // Retrieve the url to the page string applicationPath = context.Request.ApplicationPath; string sourceUrl = applicationPath + "/log.aspx"; string targetDirectory = currentContext.Server.MapPath("/logs/"); // Execute the other page and load its contents using (StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter()) { // Write the contents out to the target url // NOTE: THIS IS WHERE MY ERROR OCCURS currentContext.Server.Execute(sourceUrl, stringWriter); // Prepare to write out the result of the log targetPath = targetDirectory + "/" + DateTime.Now.ToShortDateString() + ".aspx"; using (StreamWriter streamWriter = new StreamWriter(targetPath, false)) { // Write out the content to the file sb.Append(stringWriter.ToString()); streamWriter.Write(sb.ToString()); } } } Oddly, when the currentContext.Server.Execute method is executed, it throws an "object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The reason this is so strange is because I can look at the currentContext properties in the watch window. In addition, Server is not null. Because of this, I have no idea where this error is coming from. Can someone point me in the correct direction of what the cause of this could be? Thank you!

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