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  • EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

    - by Lorenzo
    In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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  • How to combine these two JavaScript functions?

    - by user289346
    var curtext = "View large image"; function changeSrc() { if (curtext == "View large image") { document.getElementById("boldStuff").innerHTML = "View small image"; curtext="View small image"; } else { document.getElementById("boldStuff").innerHTML = "View large image"; curtext = "View large image"; } } var curimage = "cottage_small.jpg"; function changeSrc() { if (curimage == "cottage_small.jpg") { document.getElementById("myImage").src = "cottage_large.jpg"; curimage = "cottage_large.jpg"; } else { document.getElementById("myImage").src = "cottage_small.jpg"; curimage = "cottage_small.jpg"; } } </script> </head> <body> <!-- Your page here --> <h1> Pink Knoll Properties</h1> <h2> Single Family Homes</h2> <p> Cottage:<strong>$149,000</strong><br/> 2 bed, 1 bath, 1,189 square feet, 1.11 acres <br/><br/> <a href="#" onclick="changeSrc()"><b id="boldStuff" />View large image</a></p> <p><img id="myImage" src="cottage_small.jpg" alt="Photo of a cottage" /></p> </body> I need help, how to put as one function with two arguments? That means when you click, the image and text both will be change. Thank you! Bianca

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  • Python: OSX Library for fast full screen jpg/png display

    - by Parand
    Frustrated by lack of a simple ACDSee equivalent for OS X, I'm looking to hack one up for myself. I'm looking for a gui library that accommodates: Full screen image display High quality image fit-to-screen (for display) Low memory usage Fast display Reasonable learning curve (the simpler the better) Looks like there are several choices, so which is the best? Here are some I've run across: PyOpenGL PyGame PyQT wxpython I don't have any particular experience with any of these, nor any strong desire to become an expert - I'm looking for the simplest solution. What do you recommend? [Update] For those not familiar with ACDSee, here's what it does that I care about: Simple list/thubmnail display of images in a directory Sort by name/size/type Ability to view images full screen Single-key delete while viewing full screen Move to next/previous image while viewing full screen Ability to select a group of images for: move to / copy to directory delete resize ACDSee has a bunch of niceties as well, such as remembering directories you've moved images to in the past, remembering your resize settings, displaying the total size of the images you've selected, etc. I've tried most of the options I could find (including Xee) and none of them quite get there. Please keep in mind that this is a programming/library question, not a criticism of any of the existing tools.

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  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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  • client-server syncing methodology [theoretical]

    - by Kenneth Ballenegger
    I'm in the progress of building an web-app that syncs with an iOS client. I'm currently tackling trying to figure out how to go about about syncing. I've come up with following two directions: I've got a fairly simple server web-app with a list of items. They are ordered by date modified and as such syncing the order does not matter. One direction I'm considering is to let the client deal with syncing. I've already got an API that lets the client get the data, as well as do certain actions on it, such as update, add or remove single items. I was considering: 1) on each sync asking the server for all items modified since the last successful sync and updating the local records based on what's returned by the server, and 2) building a persistent queue of create / remove / update requests on the client, and keeping them until confirmation by the server. The risk with this approach is that I'm basically asking each side to send changes to the other side, hoping it works smoothly, but risking a diversion at some point. This would probably be more bandwidth-efficient, though. The other direction I was considering was a more traditional model. I would have a "sync" process in which the client would send its whole list to the server (or a subset since last modified sync), the server would update the data on the server (by fixing conflicts by keeping the last modified item, and keeping deleted items with a deleted = 1 field), and the server would return an updated list of items (since last successful sync) which the client would then replace its data with. Thoughts?

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  • javascript to reference input IDs in php loop and pass values back to same input ID

    - by Smudger
    I have a form which is essentially an autocomplete input box. I can get this to work perfectly for a single text box. What I need to do is create unique input boxes by using a php for loop. This will use the counter $i to give each input box a unique name and id. The problem is that the unique value of the input box needs to be passed to the javascript. this will then pass the inputted data to the external php page and return the mysql results. As mentioned I have this working for a single input box but need assistance with passing the correct values to the javascript and returning it to correct input box. existing code for working solution (first row works only, all other rows update first row input box) <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function lookup(inputString) { if(inputString.length == 0) { // Hide the suggestion box. $('#suggestions').hide(); } else { $.post("autocompleteperson.php", {queryString: ""+inputString+""}, function(data){ if(data.length >0) { $('#suggestions').show(); $('#autoSuggestionsList').html(data); } }); } } // lookup function fill(thisValue) { $('#inputString').val(thisValue); setTimeout("$('#suggestions').hide();", 200); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="form1" id="form1" action="addepartment.php" method="post"> <table> <? for ( $i = 1; $i <=10; $i++ ) { ?> <tr> <td> <? echo $i; ?></td> <td> <div> <input type="text" size="30" value="" id="inputString" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);" onblur="fill();" /> </div> <div class="suggestionsBox" id="suggestions" style="display: none;"> <img src="upArrow.png" style="position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px;" alt="upArrow" /> <div class="suggestionList" id="autoSuggestionsList"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </td> </tr> <? } ?> </table> </body> </html> code for autocompleteperson.php is: $query = $db->query("SELECT fullname FROM Persons WHERE fullname LIKE '$queryString%' LIMIT 10"); if($query) { while ($result = $query ->fetch_object()) { echo '<li onClick="fill(\''.$result->fullname.'\');">'.$result->fullname.'</li>'; } } in order to get it to work for all rows, I include the counter $i in each of the file names as below: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function lookup(inputString<? echo $i; ?>) { if(inputString<? echo $i; ?>.length == 0) { // Hide the suggestion box. $('#suggestions<? echo $i; ?>').hide(); } else { $.post("autocompleteperson.php", {queryString: ""+inputString<? echo $i; ?>+""}, function(data){ if(data.length >0) { $('#suggestions<? echo $i; ?>').show(); $('#autoSuggestionsList<? echo $i; ?>').html(data); } }); } } // lookup function fill(thisValue) { $('#inputString<? echo $i; ?>').val(thisValue); setTimeout("$('#suggestions<? echo $i; ?>').hide();", 200); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="form1" id="form1" action="addepartment.php" method="post"> <table> <? for ( $i = 1; $i <=10; $i++ ) { ?> <tr> <td> <? echo $i; ?></td> <td> <div> <input type="text" size="30" value="" id="inputString<? echo $i; ?>" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);" onblur="fill();" /> </div> <div class="suggestionsBox" id="suggestions<? echo $i; ?>" style="display: none;"> <img src="upArrow.png" style="position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px;" alt="upArrow" /> <div class="suggestionList" id="autoSuggestionsList<? echo $i; ?>"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </td> </tr> <? } ?> </table> </body> </html> The autocomplete suggestion works (although always shown on first row) but when selecting the data always returns to row 1, even if input was on row 5. I have a feeling this has to do with the fill() but not sure? is it due the the autocomplete page code? or does the fill referencing ThisValue have something to do with it. example of this page (as above) can be found here Thanks for the assistance, much appreciated. UPDATE - LOLO <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function lookup(i, inputString) { if(inputValue.length == 0) { // Hide the suggestion box. $('#suggestions' + i).hide(); } else { $.post("autocompleteperson.php", {queryString: ""+inputString+""}, function(data){ if(data.length >0) { $('#suggestions' + i).show(); $('#autoSuggestionsList' + i).html(data); } }); } } // lookup function fill(i, thisValue) { $('#inputString' + i).val(thisValue); setTimeout("$('#suggestions' + i).hide();", 200); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="form1" id="form1" action="addepartment.php" method="post"> <table> <? for ( $i = 1; $i <=10; $i++ ) { ?> <tr> <td> <? echo $i; ?></td> <td> <div> <input type="text" size="30" value="" id="inputString<?php echo $i; ?>" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);" onblur="fill();" /> </div> <div class="suggestionsBox" id="suggestions<? echo $i; ?>" style="display: none;"> <img src="upArrow.png" style="position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px;" alt="upArrow" /> <div class="suggestionList" id="autoSuggestionsList<? echo $i; ?>"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </td> </tr> <? } ?> </table> </body> </html> google chrome catched the following errors: first line on input, second line on loosing focus

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  • SSAS Cube reprocessing fails - then succeeds if I try again

    - by EdgarVerona
    So I'm basically brand new to the concept of BI, and I've inherited an existing ETL process that is a two step process: 1) Loads the data into a database that is only used by the cube processing 2) Starts off the SSAS cube processing against said database It seems pretty well isolated, but occasionally (once a week, sometimes twice) it will fail with the following exception: "Errors in the OLAP storage engine: The attribute key cannot be found" Now the interesting thing is that: 1) The dimension having the issue is not usually the same one (i.e. there's no single dimension that consistently has this failure) 2) The source table, when I inspect it, does actually contain the attribute key that it says could not be found And, most interestingly... 3) If I then immediately reprocess the dimensions and cubes manually through SSMS, they reprocess successfully and without incident. In both the aforementioned job and when I reprocess them through SSMS, I am using "ProcessFull", so it should be reprocessing them completely. Has anyone run into such an issue? I'm scratching my head about it... because if it was a genuine data integrity issue, reprocessing the cube again wouldn't fix it. What on earth could be happening? I've been tasked with finding out why this happens, but I can neither reproduce it consistently nor can I point to a data integrity problem as the root cause. Thanks for any input you can provide!

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  • ASP.NET NamingContainer naming convention

    - by EOLeary
    The Background Hello! I'm working on a project in which the client has required a lot of things to happen on a single page, and this has resulted in a rather large blob of HTML being rendered out to the client browser. The main issue is with input tags (where runat="server" attribute is set), these tend to cause a drastic increase in markup size due to validation, updatepanel triggers, viewstate, and the control markup itself. I've done what I can to reduce the amount of triggers I'm using, I'm compressing the viewstate (to something like 8% of the original viewstate size), I've gotten rid of a lot of ASP.NET Validators and rolled my own, and and I've been using ClientIdMode to reduce the length of the ID attributes of many asp.net elements. All of these combined significantly reduces the amount of HTML being sent to the client, (for example going from 2 megabytes for a request down to 500-600 kb - these are HUGE pages, mind you). The Issue One area which I've been having trouble reducing is simply the auto-generated 'name' attribute of input elements. <input name="ctl00$ctl00$ctl00$_main$_main$_bodyMatterPhase$_phaseTree$ctl00$_taskTree$ctl00$_taskDetails$_detailList$ctrl0$_row$_descriptionText" type="text" value="Investigation Week 1" maxlength="100" id="_taskTree_0__taskDetails_0__detailList_0__row_0__descriptionText_0" style="width:170px;"> As you can see above, the name attribute is 139 out of 297 characters, that's almost 50% of the tag markup taken up by that HUGE name. Does anyone have any ideas on how to stick a hook in somewhere in ASP.NET where I can somehow translate these or generate them differently; say instead of ctl00$ctl00$ctl00$_main$_main$_bodyMatterPhase$_phaseTree$ctl00$_taskTree$ctl00$_taskDetails$_detailList$ctrl0$_row$_descriptionText, it could be a GUID like 0x0AEED4B6445A11E08F873606E0D72085, which is 105 characters shorter. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • TimeoutException when WCF Host and Client are in the same process

    - by Pharao2k
    I've ran into a really weird problem. I am building a heavily distributed application where each app instance can either be a Host and/or Client to a WCF-Service (very p2p-like). Everything works fine, as long as the Client and the targeted Host (By which I mean the app, not the Host, since currently everything runs on a single computer (so no Firewall problems etc.)) are NOT the same. IF they are the same, then the app hangs for exactly 1 Minute and then throws a TimeoutException. WCF-Logging did not produce anything helpful. Here is a small app which demonstrates the Problem: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var binding = new NetTcpBinding(); var baseAddress = new Uri(@"net.tcp://localhost:4000/Test"); ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(TestService), baseAddress); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ITestService), binding, baseAddress); var debug = host.Description.Behaviors.Find<ServiceDebugBehavior>(); if (debug == null) host.Description.Behaviors.Add(new ServiceDebugBehavior { IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true }); else debug.IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true; host.Open(); var clientBinding = new NetTcpBinding(); var testProxy = new TestProxy(clientBinding, new EndpointAddress(baseAddress)); testProxy.Test(); } } [ServiceContract] public interface ITestService { [OperationContract] void Test(); } public class TestService : ITestService { public void Test() { MessageBox.Show("foo"); } } public class TestProxy : ClientBase<ITestService>, ITestService { public TestProxy(NetTcpBinding binding, EndpointAddress remoteAddress) : base(binding, remoteAddress) { } public void Test() { Channel.Test(); } } What am I doing wrong? Regards, Pharao2k

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  • Number Algorithm

    - by James
    I've been struggling to wrap my head around this for some reason. I have 15 bits that represent a number. The bits must match a pattern. The pattern is defined in the way the bits start out: they are in the most flush-right representation of that pattern. So say the pattern is 1 4 1. The bits will be: 000000010111101 So the general rule is, take each number in the pattern, create that many bits (1, 4 or 1 in this case) and then have at least one space separating them. So if it's 1 2 6 1 (it will be random): 001011011111101 Starting with the flush-right version, I want to generate every single possible number that meets that pattern. The # of bits will be stored in a variable. So for a simple case, assume it's 5 bits and the initial bit pattern is: 00101. I want to generate: 00101 01001 01010 10001 10010 10100 I'm trying to do this in Objective-C, but anything resembling C would be fine. I just can't seem to come up with a good recursive algorithm for this. It makes sense in the above example, but when I start getting into 12431 and having to keep track of everything it breaks down.

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  • MySql scoping problem with correlated subqueries

    - by Rolf
    Hi, I'm having this Mysql query, It works: SELECT nom ,prenom ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(category_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT category_en FROM categories c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT category_id FROM m3allems_to_categories m2c WHERE m3allem_id = 37) ) cS ) categories ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(area_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT area_en FROM areas c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT area_id FROM m3allems_to_areas m2a WHERE m3allem_id = 37) ) aSq ) areas FROM m3allems m WHERE m.id = 37 The result is: nom prenom categories areas Man Multi Carpentry,Paint,Walls Beirut,Baalbak,Saida It works correclty, but only when i hardcode into the query the id that I want (37). I want it to work for all entries in the m3allem table, so I try this: SELECT nom ,prenom ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(category_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT category_en FROM categories c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT category_id FROM m3allems_to_categories m2c WHERE m3allem_id = m.id) ) cS ) categories ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(area_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT area_en FROM areas c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT area_id FROM m3allems_to_areas m2a WHERE m3allem_id = m.id) ) aSq ) areas FROM m3allems m And I get an error: Unknown column 'm.id' in 'where clause' Why? From the MySql manual: 13.2.8.7. Correlated Subqueries [...] Scoping rule: MySQL evaluates from inside to outside. So... do this not work when the subquery is in a SELECT section? I did not read anything about that. Does anyone know? What should I do? It took me a long time to build this query... I know it's a monster query but it gets what I want in a single query, and I am so close to getting it to work! Can anyone help?

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  • SubSonic 3.0 Simple Repository Adding a DateTime Property To An Object

    - by Blounty
    I am trying out SubSonic to see if it is viable to use on production projects. I seem to have stumbled upon an issue whith regards to updating the database with default values (String and DateTime) when a new column is created. If a new property of DateTime or String is added to an object. public class Bug { public int BugId { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public string Overview { get; set; } public DateTime TrackedDate { get; set; } public DateTime RemovedDate { get; set; } } When the code to add that type of object to the database is run var repository = new SimpleRepository(SimpleRepositoryOptions.RunMigrations); repository.Add(new Bug() { Title = "A Bug", Overview = "An Overview", TrackedDate = DateTime.Now }); it creates the following sql: UPDATE Bugs SET RemovedDate=''01/01/1900 00:00:00'' For some reason it is adding double 2 single quotes to each end of the string or DateTime. This is causing the following error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException - Incorrect syntax near '01' I am connecting to SQL Server 2005 Any help would be appreicated as apart from this issue i am finding SubSonic to be a great product. I have created a screen cast of my error here:

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  • Getting content from PHP: Trouble with POST and query.

    - by vgm64
    Apologies for my longest question on SO ever. I'm trying to interface with a php frontend for a mysql database in ROOT (a CERN framework in C++ for high energy physics analysis). To start off with, I tried to get this php interface to play nice with wget and curl first because I'm more familiar with them. The following command works: wget --post-data "hostname=localhost:3306&un=joeuser&pw=psswd&myquery=show_spazio_databases;" http://some.host.edu/log/log_query_matlab.php The results are: database1 database2 That's good. If I leave out the --post-data then I get the result: Warning: mysql_connect() [function.mysql-connect]: Access denied for user 'admin'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in /log/log_query_matlab.php on line 6 i'm dead! Access denied for user 'admin'@'localhost' (using password: NO) Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: Access denied for user 'admin'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in /log/log_query_matlab.php on line 29 Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: A link to the server could not be established in /log/log_query_matlab.php on line 29 I have access to the php script (read only), but the error itself isn't too important. What matters it that using ROOT, I use a function called as socket.SendRaw(message, message.Length()) (socket is a TSocket) and this gives me the same "error" as wget without the post data switch if my "message" is "POST http://some.host.edu/log/log_query_matlab.php?hostname=localhost:3306&un=joeuser&pw=psswd&myquery=show_spazio_databases" This may be in vain, but does someone knows a way I should format the "message" that includes something that is equivalent to the --post-data switch. Or, is there a standard way to format POST requests in a single line (I've seen multi-line stuff. Is that right?) Sorry I'm clueless! PS. The mysql query is show databases but the space has been replaced with _spazio_, Italian for space. The author of the db and php interface requires it (and various replacements for symbols), but has anyone seen this before? Trying to troubleshoot that was terrible!

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  • Security implications of writing files using PHP

    - by susmits
    I'm currently trying to create a CMS using PHP, purely in the interest of education. I want the administrators to be able to create content, which will be parsed and saved on the server storage in pure HTML form to avoid the overhead that executing PHP script would incur. Unfortunately, I could only think of a few ways of doing so: Setting write permission on every directory where the CMS should want to write a file. This sounds like quite a bad idea. Setting write permissions on a single cached directory. A PHP script could then include or fopen/fread/echo the content from a file in the cached directory at request-time. This could perhaps be carried out in a Mediawiki-esque fashion: something like index.php?page=xyz could read and echo content from cached/xyz.html at runtime. However, I'll need to ensure the sanity of $_GET['page'] to prevent nasty variations like index.php?page=http://www.bad-site.org/malicious-script.js. I'm personally not too thrilled by the second idea, but the first one sounds very insecure. Could someone please suggest a good way of getting this done?

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  • How do I show information to users belonging to different groups (web) in modx

    - by Gaurav Sharma
    Hello Everyone, I have created a website using modx evolution v1.0.2. The website that I have developed has 12 different types of users (categorized in groups). Each user will be shown a different price depending on the group to which he belongs. Till now I have been able to fetch the group name of current logged in user (created a snippet for that), but how can I achieve the above mentioned functionality so that each user should be able to see only the price that I have coded according to his group. For example: If a user is associated with the 'ocassional' group then he should be shown the price as , say, 50 bucks and if a user is associated with the 'regular' group then he should be shown the price as, say, 40 bucks I can easily do this by coding a single snippet for every product's variant, but there are a lot of variants (more than 100 and growing). I have created a resource(page) for every product and it's variant. Every variant has a price. It is this price that I want to be shown according to the logged in user group membership. I hope I am able to explain my query clearly. Please help me do this functionality. Thanks

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  • Javascript: Multiple mouseout events triggered

    - by Channel72
    I'm aware of the different event models in Javascript (the WC3 model versus the Microsoft model), as well as the difference between bubbling and capturing. However, after a few hours reading various articles about this issue, I'm still unsure how to properly code the following seemingly simple behavior: If I have an outer div and an inner div element, I want a single mouse-out event to be triggered when the mouse leaves the outer-div. When the mouse crosses from the inner-div to the outer-div, nothing should happen, and when the mouse crosses from the outer-div to the inner-div nothing should happen. The event should only fire if the mouse moves from the outer-div to the surrounding page. <div id="outer" style = "width:20em; height:20em; border:1px solid #F00" align = "center" onmouseout="alert('mouseout event!')" > <div id="inner" style = "width:18em; height:18em; border:1px solid #000"></div> </div> Now, if I place the "mouseout" event on the outer-div, two mouse-out events are fired when the mouse moves from the inner-div to the surrounding page, because the event fires once when the mouse moves from inner to outer, and then again when it moves from outer to the surrounding page. I know I can cancel the event using ev.stopPropagation(), so I tried registering an event handler with the inner-div to cancel the event propagation. However, this won't prevent the event from firing when the mouse moves from the outer-div to the inner-div. So, unless I'm overlooking something, it seems to me this behavior can't be accomplished without complex mouse-tracking functions. In the future, I plan to reimplement a lot of this code using a more advanced framework, like JQuery, but for now, I'm wondering if there is a simple way to implement the above behavior in regular Javascript.

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  • gdb reverse debugging error

    - by Werner
    Hi, i started to try reverse debugging with gdb 7, followin the tutorial: http://www.sourceware.org/gdb/wiki/ProcessRecord/Tutorial and I thought, great! Then I started to debug a real program which gives an error at the end. So I run it with gdb, and I put a breakpoint just before the place I think the error appears. Then I type "record" in order to start to recrd actions for future reverse-debugging. But after some steps I get Process record doesn't support instruction 0xf0d at address 0x2aaaab4c4b4e. Process record: failed to record execution log. Program received signal SIGTRAP, Trace/breakpoint trap. 0x00002aaaab4c4b4e in memcpy () from /lib64/libc.so.6 (gdb) n Single stepping until exit from function memcpy, which has no line number information. Process record doesn't support instruction 0xf0d at address 0x2aaaab4c4b4e. Process record: failed to record execution log. Program received signal SIGABRT, Aborted. 0x00002aaaab4c4b4e in memcpy () from /lib64/libc.so.6 Before I look at in in detail, I wonder if this feature is still buggy, or if I should start to record from the beginning. Where this "record" error happens, just an object is created as a copy of other: Thanks

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  • WPF : Multiple views, one DataContext

    - by zapho
    Hi, I'm working on a WPF application which must handle multiple screens (two at this this time). One view can be opened on several screens and user actions must be reflected consistently on all screens. To achieve this, for a given type of view, a single DataContext is instantiated. Then, when a view is displayed on a screen, the unique DataContext is attached to it. So, one DataContext, several views (same type of view/xaml). So far so good. It works quite well in most cases. I do have a problem with a specific view which relies on ItemsControl. These ItemsControl are used to display UIElements dynamically build in the ViewModel/DataContext (C# code). These UIElements are mostly Path objects. Example : <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding WindVectors}"> <ItemsControl.Template> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type ItemsControl}"> <Canvas IsItemsHost="True" /> </ControlTemplate> </ItemsControl.Template> </ItemsControl> Here, WindVectors is a ObservableCollection<UIElement>. When the view is opened the first time, everything is fine. The problem is that when the view is opened one another screen, all ItemsControl are removed from the first screen and displayed one the second screen. Other WPF components (TextBlock for instance) on this view react normally and are displayed on both screens. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. Fabrice

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  • Getting jQuery to return an ajax object

    - by japancheese
    Hello, The question title is a bit strange because I'm not exactly sure how to phrase the problem. The issue is that I have many links to which I want to bind a click event with an ajax call, and I'm just looking to refactor some duplicate code into a single area. The links I'm trying to bind an ajax call only have one thing that differentiates them, and that's an id from a previously declared object. So I have lots of code that looks like this: $("a.link").bind('click', function() { id = obj.id; $.ajax({ url: "/set/" + id, dataType: 'json', type: "POST" }) }); I was trying to refactor it into something like this: $("a.link").bind('click', ajax_link(obj.id)); function ajax_link(id) { $.ajax({ url: "/set/" + id, dataType: 'json', type: "POST" }) }); However, as you can imagine, this just actually makes the ajax call when the element is binded with the click event. Is there an easy way to refactor this code so I can extract out the common ajax code into its own function, and hopefully reduce the number of lines of jQuery in my current script?

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  • How to record different authentication types (username / password vs token based) in audit log

    - by RM
    I have two types of users for my system, normal human users with a username / password, and delegation authorized accounts through OAuth (i.e. using a token identifier). The information that is stored for each is quite different, and are managed by different subsytems. They do however interact with the same tables / data within the system, so I need to maintain the audit trail regardless of whether human user, or token-based user modified the data. My solution at the moment is to have a table called something like AuditableIdentity, and then have the two types inheriting off that table (either in the single table, or as two seperate tables with 1 to 1 PK with AuditableIdentity. All operations would use the common AuditableIdentity PK for CreatedBy, ModifiedBy etc columns. There isn't any FK constraint on the audit columns, so any text can go in there, but I want an easy way to easily determine whether it was a human or system that made the change, and joining to the one AuditableIdentity table seems like a clean way to do that? Is there a best practice for this scenario? Is this an appropriate way of approaching the problem - or would you not bother with the common table and just rely on joins (to the two seperate un-related user / token tables) later to determine which user type matches which audit records?

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  • Boost::Mutex & Malloc

    - by M. Tibbits
    Hi all, I'm trying to use a faster memory allocator in C++. I can't use Hoard due to licensing / cost. I was using NEDMalloc in a single threaded setting and got excellent performance, but I'm wondering if I should switch to something else -- as I understand things, NEDMalloc is just a replacement for C-based malloc() & free(), not the C++-based new & delete operators (which I use extensively). The problem is that I now need to be thread-safe, so I'm trying to malloc an object which is reference counted (to prevent excess copying), but which also contains a mutex pointer. That way, if you're about to delete the last copy, you first need to lock the pointer, then free the object, and lastly unlock & free the mutex. However, using malloc to create a boost::mutex appears impossible because I can't initialize the private object as calling the constructor directly ist verboten. So I'm left with this odd situation, where I'm using new to allocate the lock and nedmalloc to allocate everything else. But when I allocate a large amount of memory, I run into allocation errors (which disappear when I switch to malloc instead of nedmalloc ~ but the performance is terrible). My guess is that this is due to fragmentation in the memory and an inability of nedmalloc and new to place nice side by side. There has to be a better solution. What would you suggest?

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  • encodeURIComponent is really useful?

    - by Marco Demaio
    Something I still don't understand when perfoming an http-get request to the server is what the advantage is in using JS fucntion encodeURIcomponent to encode each component of the http-get. Doing some tests I saw the server (using PHP) gets the values of the http-get request properly also if I don't use encodeURIcomponent!!! Obviuosly I still need to encode at client level the special character & ? = / : otherwise an http-get value like this "peace&love=virtue" would be considered as new key value pair of the http-get request instead of a one single value. But why does encodeURIcompenent encodes also many other charcaters like 'è' for example wich is translated into %C3%A8 that must be decoded on a PHP server using the utf8_decode function. By using encodeURIcomponent all values of the http-get request are utf8 encoded, therefor when getting them in PHP I have to call each time the utf8_decode function on each $_GET value which is quite annoying. Why can't we just encode only the & ? = / : charcaters??? see also: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2607946/js-encodeuricomponent-result-different-from-the-one-created-by-form It shows that encodeURIComponent does not even encode properly because a simple browser FORM GET encodes charactrs like '€', in different way. So I still wonder what does this encodeURIComponent is for?

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  • django html/css windows mac problem width additional space on the top of the page

    - by rafal
    Hi, my problem is really strange... We are developing shopping-cart system in django. The problem is, when I change anything even single letter on my computer, strange space on the top of the page appears, see the picture... I don't know since when the problem appears. But if i go back to previous version (in this case 210, we use svn), everything is ok, until i change something. I'm using windows 7 and i tried to edit this file in notepad, notepad++, e and so on... In the case when my friend changes something in this 210 version on Macbook everything is ok. Have anyone any ideas? Also in source code of the page strange "-" is added before doctype, but it is only visible in chrome. But the problem is for all browsers...! what is more... for example my home page extends, categories.html and base.html, and in this case a have two "--". Of course If i change something in this two files base and home... PLEASE HELP!:) http://img402.imageshack.us/img402/5655/buguh.png [2]:

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  • Private Java class properties mysteriously reset between method calls....

    - by Michael Jones
    I have a very odd problem. A class property is mysteriously reset between method calls. The following code is executed so the constructor is called, then the parseConfiguration method is called. Finally, processData is called. The parseConfiguration method sets the "recursive" property to "true". However, as soon as it enters "processData", "recursive" becomes "false". This problem isn't isolated to a single class -- I have several examples of this in my code. How can this possibly be happening? I've tried initialising properties when they're declared outside any methods, I've tried initialising them in constructors... nothing works. The only complication I can think of here is that this class is invoked by an object that runs in a thread -- but here is one instance per thread, so surely no chance that threads are interfering. I've tried setting both methods to "synchronized", but this still happens. Please help! /** * This class or its superclasses are NOT threaded and don't extend Thread */ public class DirectoryAcquirer extends Manipulator { /** * @var Whether to recursively scan directories */ private boolean recursive = false; /** * Constructor */ public DirectoryAcquirer() { } /** * Constructor that initialises the configuration * * @param config * @throws InvalidConfigurationException */ public DirectoryAcquirer(HierarchicalConfiguration config) throws InvalidConfigurationException { super(config); } @Override protected void parseConfiguration() throws InvalidConfigurationException { // set whether to recurse into directories or not if (this.config.containsKey("recursive")) { // this.recursive gets set to "true" here this.recursive = this.config.getBoolean("recursive"); } } @Override public EntityCollection processData(EntityCollection data) { // here this.recursive is "false" this.logger.debug("processData: Entered method"); } }

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  • Working around "one executable per project" in Visual C# for many small test programs

    - by Kevin Ivarsen
    When working with Visual Studio in general (or Visual C# Express in my particular case), it looks like each project can be configured to produce only one output - e.g. a single executable or a library. I'm working on a project that consists of a shared library and a few application, and I already have one project in my solution for each of those. However, during development I find it useful to write small example programs that can run one small subsystem in isolation (at a level that doesn't belong in the unit tests). Is there a good way to handle this in Visual Studio? I'd like to avoid adding several dozen separate projects to my solution for each small test program I write, especially when these programs will typically be less than 100 lines of code. I'm hoping to find something that lets me continue to work in Visual Studio and use its build system (rather than moving to something like NAnt). I could foresee the answer being something like: A way of setting this up in Visual Studio that I haven't found yet A GUI like NUnit's graphical runner that searches an assembly for classes with defined Main() functions that you can select and run A command line tool that lets you specify an assembly and a class with a Main function to run

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