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  • how to redirect user depending on user type at time of login (codeignitor)

    - by Anam Tahir
    im facing problem while redirecting my user according to its type. how can do it here's my code plz suggest how to do it. <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); class VerifyLogin extends CI_Controller { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } function index() { $this->load->model('user','',TRUE); //This method will have the credentials validation $this->load->library('form_validation'); $this->load->library('session'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('username', 'Username','trim|required|xss_clean'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('password', 'Password' 'trim|required|xss_clean|callback_check_database'); if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { //Field validation failed.&nbsp; User redirected to login page validation_errors(); $this->load->view('error'); } else { //Go to private area basically here i want to redirect if user is admin then redirect to admin page else redirect to home how can i do this ??? redirect('home', 'refresh'); } } function check_database($password) { //Field validation succeeded.&nbsp; Validate against database $username = $this->input->post('username'); //query the database $result = $this->user->login($username, $password); if($result) { $sess_array = array(); foreach($result as $row) { $sess_array = array( 'id' => $row->id, 'username' => $row->username ); $this->session->set_userdata('logged_in', $sess_array); } return TRUE; } else { $this->form_validation->set_message('check_database', 'Invalid username or password'); return false; } } } ?>

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  • reporting tool/viewer for large datasets

    - by FrustratedWithFormsDesigner
    I have a data processing system that generates very large reports on the data it processes. By "large" I mean that a "small" execution of this system produces about 30 MB of reporting data when dumped into a CSV file and a large dataset is about 130-150 MB (I'm sure someone out there has a bigger idea of "large" but that's not the point... ;) Excel has the ideal interface for the report consumers in the form of its Data Lists: users can filter and segment the data on-the-fly to see the specific details that they are interested in - they can also add notes and markup to the reports, create charts, graphs, etc... They know how to do all this and it's much easier to let them do it if we just give them the data. Excel was great for the small test datasets, but it cannot handle these large ones. Does anyone know of a tool that can provide a similar interface as Excel data lists, but that can handle much larger files? The next tool I tried was MS Access, and found that the Access file bloats hugely (30 MB input file leads to about 70 MB Access file, and when I open the file, run a report and close it the file's at 120-150 MB!), the import process is slow and very manual (currently, the CSV files are created by the same plsql script that runs the main process so there's next to no intervention on my part). I also tried an Access database with linked tables to the database tables that store the report data and that was many times slower (for some reason, sqlplus could query and generate the report file in a minute or soe while Access would take anywhere from 2-5 minutes for the same data) (If it helps, the data processing system is written in PL/SQL and runs on Oracle 10g.)

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  • Integrated Windows authentication in IIS causing ADO.NET failure

    - by TrueWill
    We have a .NET 3.5 Web Service running under IIS. It must use identity impersonate="true" and Integrated Windows authentication in order to authenticate to third-party software. In addition, it connects to a SQL Server database using ADO.NET and SQL Server Authentication (specifying a fixed User ID and Password in the connection string). Everything worked fine until the database was moved to another SQL Server. Then the Web Service would throw the following exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) This error only occurs if identity impersonate is true in the Web.config. Again, the connection string hasn't changed and it specifies the user. I have tested the connection string and it works, both under the impersonated account and under the service account (and from both the remote machine and the server). What needs to be changed to get this to work with impersonation?

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  • How to optimize a postgreSQL server for a "write once, read many"-type infrastructure ?

    - by mhu
    Greetings, I am working on a piece of software that logs entries (and related tagging) in a PostgreSQL database for storage and retrieval. We never update any data once it has been inserted; we might remove it when the entry gets too old, but this is done at most once a day. Stored entries can be retrieved by users. The insertion of new entries can happen rather fast and regularly, thus the database will commonly hold several millions elements. The tables used are pretty simple : one table for ids, raw content and insertion date; and one table storing tags and their values associated to an id. User search mostly concern tags values, so SELECTs usually consist of JOIN queries on ids on the two tables. To sum it up : 2 tables Lots of INSERT no UPDATE some DELETE, once a day at most some user-generated SELECT with JOIN huge data set What would an optimal server configuration (software and hardware, I assume for example that RAID10 could help) be for my PostgreSQL server, given these requirements ? By optimal, I mean one that allows SELECT queries taking a reasonably little amount of time. I can provide more information about the current setup (like tables, indexes ...) if needed.

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  • Why represent shopping carts and order invoices differently in a domain model?

    - by Todd
    I've built some shopping cart systems in the past, but I always designed them such that the final order invoice is just a shopping cart that has been marked as "purchased". All the logic for adding/removing/changing items in a cart is also the logic for the order. All data is stored in the same tables in the database. But it seems this is not the proper way to design an e-commerce site.. Can someone explain the benefit of separating the shopping cart from invoices in the domain model? It seems to me this would lead to a lot of duplicated code, an extra set of tables in the database, and make it harder to maintain in the event the system need to start accommodating more complicated orders (like specifying selected options for an item which may or may not change the price/availability/shipping time of the order). I'm assuming I just haven't seen the light, as every book and other example I see seems to separate these two seemingly similar concerns -- but I can't find any explanation as to the benefit of doing such! It's also the case in the systems that I design that changes are often made after the initial order is confirmed. It's not uncommon for items to be removed, replaced, or added afterwards (but prior to fulfillment).

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  • Fix DB duplicate entries (MySQL bug)

    - by Silence
    I'm using MySQL 4.1. Some tables have duplicates entries that go against the constraints. When I try to group rows, MySQL doesn't recognise the rows as being similar. Example: Table A has a column "Name" with the Unique proprety. The table contains one row with the name 'Hach?' and one row with the same name but a square at the end instead of the '?' (which I can't reproduce in this textfield) A "Group by" on these 2 rows return 2 separate rows This cause several problems including the fact that I can't export and reimport the database. On reimporting an error mentions that a Insert has failed because it violates a constraint. In theory I could try to import, wait for the first error, fix the import script and the original DB, and repeat. In pratice, that would take forever. Is there a way to list all the anomalies or force the database to recheck constraints (and list all the values/rows that go against them) ? I can supply the .MYD file if it can be helpful.

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  • Running Cargo From Maven antrun Plugin

    - by Frank
    I have a maven (multi-module) project creating some WAR and EAR files for JBoss AS 7.1.x. For one purpose, I need to deploy one generated EAR file of one module to a fresh JBoss instance and run it, call some REST web service calls against it and stop JBoss. Then I need to package the results of these calls that were written to the database. Currently, I am trying to use CARGO and the maven ant run plugin to perform this task. Unfortunately, I cannot get the three (maven, ant run and CARGO) to play together. I don't have the uberjar that is used in the ant examples of cargo. How can I configure the ant run task so that the cargo ant task can create, start, deploy my JBoss? Ideally the one unpacked and configured by the cargo-maven2-plugin in another phase? Or, is there a better way to achieve my goal of creating the database? I cannot really use the integration-test phase, as it is executed after the package phase. So, I plan to do it all in compile phase using antrun.

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  • Not getting key value from Identity column back after inserting new row with SubSonic ActiveRecord

    - by mikedevenney
    I'm sure I'm missing the obvious answer here, but could use a hand. I'm new to SubSonic and using version 3. I've got myself to the point of being able to query and insert, but I'm stuck with how I would get the value of the identity column back after my insert. I saw another post that mentioned Linq Templates. I'm not using those (at least I don't think I am...?) TIA ... UPDATE ... So I've been debugging through my code watching how the SubSonic code works and I found where the indentity column is being ignored. I use int as the datatype for my ID columns in the database and set them as identity. Since int is a non-nullable data type in c# the logical test in the Add method (public void Add(IDataProvider provider)) that checks if there is a value in the key column by doing a (key==null) could be the issue. The code that gets the new value for the identity field is in the 'true path', since an int can't be null and I use ints as my identity column data types this test will never pass. The ID field for my object has a 0 in it that I didn't put there. I assume it's set during the initialization of the object. Am I off base here? Is the answer to change my data types in the database? Another question (more a curiosity). I noticed that some of the properties in the generated classes are declared with a ? after the datatype. I'm not familiar with this declaration construct... what gives? There are some declared as an int (non key fields) and others that are declared as int? (key fields). Does this have something to do with how they're treated at initialization? Any help is appreciated! --BUMP--

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  • Create Session Variable from different datasources?

    - by Szafranamn
    Currently I am developing a dynamic website using Dreamweaver cs5 with ColdFusion 9 and using Access to create my databases along with QuickBooks and QODBC to create database. I have established a login session variable stemming from the login page. This session variable is being drawn from one Datasource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" but I wanted to create another session variable either at this point or further into the member's page to use in a query sequence. This session variable would stem from another Datasoucre "QBs" Table "Invoice" Field "CustomerRefFullName" which is generated through Quickbooks and QODBC. I am not sure if this is possible but if it is how do I do it. I want to do this so I can query the Invoice database to upload the customer's Invoices unique to them onto their page. So it would have to be related to their login credentials. If there is another better route to take I would greatly appreciate the advice. Below is the login code if there is additional information needed let me know. This is my current thinking/plan to do what I wish to intend hence the need to create the session variable: I have another Datasource "QBs" with a Table "Invoice" when I create another webpage for the customer to see their invoice I need to create a recordset that accesses that Table. In order to do so I think the best way would some home convert the session.FullName (which came from Access Datasource, Logininfor Table) into a session.CustomerRefFullName (which would have to come from (Datasource: QBs Table: Invoice Field: CustomerRefFullName) that way I could set the query WHERE CustomerRefFullName and have each logged in user see their specific Invoices. So is there a way to turn the session variable off one datasource/table into a different sessionvariable off a new datasource/table even if it is unique just to that page??? <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username= AND Password=

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  • In mysql, is "explain ..." always safe?

    - by tye
    If I allow a group of users to submit "explain $whatever" to mysql (via Perl's DBI using DBD::mysql), is there anything that a user could put into $whatever that would make any database changes, leak non-trivial information, or even cause significant database load? If so, how? I know that via "explain $whatever" one can figure out what tables / columns exist (you have to guess names, though) and roughly how many records are in a table or how many records have a particular value for an indexed field. I don't expect one to be able to get any information about the contents of unindexed fields. DBD::mysql should not allow multiple statements so I don't expect it to be possible to run any query (just explain one query). Even subqueries should not be executed, just explained. But I'm not a mysql expert and there are surely features of mysql that I'm not even aware of. In trying to come up with a query plan, might the optimizer actual execute an expression in order to come up with the value that an indexed field is going to be compared against? explain select * from atable where class = somefunction(...) where atable.class is indexed and not unique and class='unused' would find no records but class='common' would find a million records. Might 'explain' evaluate somefunction(...)? And then could somefunction(...) be written such that it modifies data?

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  • JPA returning null for deleted items from a set

    - by Jon
    This may be related to my question from a few days ago, but I'm not even sure how to explain this part. (It's an entirely different parent-child relationship.) In my interface, I have a set of attributes (Attribute) and valid values (ValidValue) for each one in a one-to-many relationship. In the Spring MVC frontend, I have a page for an administrator to edit these values. Once it's submitted, if any of these fields (as <input> tags) are blank, I remove the ValidValue object like so: Set<ValidValue> existingValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(attribute.getValidValues()); Set<ValidValue> finalValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(); for(ValidValue validValue : attribute.getValidValues()) { if(!validValue.getValue().isEmpty()) { finalValues.add(validValue); } } existingValues.removeAll(finalValues); for(ValidValue removedValue : existingValues) { getApplicationDataService().removeValidValue(removedValue); } attribute.setValidValues(finalValues); getApplicationDataService().modifyAttribute(attribute); The problem is that while the database is updated appropriately, the next time I query for the Attribute objects, they're returned with an extra entry in their ValidValue set -- a null, and thus, the next time I iterate through the values to display, it shows an extra blank value in the middle. I've confirmed that this happens at the point of a merge or find, at the point of "Execute query ReadObjectQuery(entity.Attribute). Here's the code I'm using to modify the database (in the ApplicationDataService): public void modifyAttribute(Attribute attribute) { getJpaTemplate().merge(attribute); } public void removeValidValue(ValidValue removedValue) { ValidValue merged = getJpaTemplate().merge(removedValue); getJpaTemplate().remove(merged); } Here are the relevant parts of the entity classes: Entity @Table(name = "attribute") public class Attribute { @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.LAZY, mappedBy = "attribute") private Set<ValidValue> validValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(0); } @Entity @Table(name = "valid_value") public class ValidValue { @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "attr_id", nullable = false) private Attribute attribute; }

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  • LINQ to SQL - Insert yielding strange behavior.

    - by Isaac
    Hi, I'm trying to insert several newly created items to the database. I have a LINQ2SQL generated class called "Order". Inside order, there's a property called "OrderItems" which is also generated by LINQ2SQL and represents the Items of that Order. So far so good. The problem I'm having right now, is when I try to add more than one newly created OrderItem inside Order. I.E: Order o = orderWorker.GetById( 10 ); for( int i=0; i < 5; ++i ) { OrderItem oi =new OrderItem { Order = order, Price = 100, ShippingPrice = 100, ShippingMethod = ... }; o.OrderItems.Add( oi ); } context.SubmitChanges(); Unfortunately, only a single entity is being added. Yes, I checked the generated SQL by adding Context.Log = Console.Out, and yes, only one statement was created. Any clues? By the way I know I'm not using InsertOnSubmit, by the documentation says: You can explicitly request Inserts by using InsertOnSubmit. Alternatively, LINQ to SQL can infer Inserts by finding objects connected to one of the known objects that must be updated. For example, if you add an Untracked object to an EntitySet(TEntity) or set an EntityRef(TEntity) to an Untracked object, you make the Untracked object reachable by way of tracked objects in the graph. While processing SubmitChanges, LINQ to SQL traverses the tracked objects and discovers any reachable persistent objects that are not tracked. Such objects are candidates for insertion into the database. Thank you very much for your time.

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  • Java/Hibernate using interfaces over the entities.

    - by Dennetik
    I am using annoted Hibernate, and I'm wondering whether the following is possible. I have to set up a series of interfaces representing the objects that can be persisted, and an interface for the main database class containing several operations for persisting these objects (... an API for the database). Below that, I have to implement these interfaces, and persist them with Hibernate. So I'll have, for example: public interface Data { public String getSomeString(); public void setSomeString(String someString); } @Entity public class HbnData implements Data, Serializable { @Column(name = "some_string") private String someString; public String getSomeString() { return this.someString; } public void setSomeString(String someString) { this.someString = someString; } } Now, this works fine, sort of. The trouble comes when I want nested entities. The interface of what I'd want is easy enough: public interface HasData { public Data getSomeData(); public void setSomeData(Data someData); } But when I implement the class, I can follow the interface, as below, and get an error from Hibernate saying it doesn't know the class "Data". @Entity public class HbnHasData implements HasData, Serializable { @OneToOne(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) private Data someData; public Data getSomeData() { return this.someData; } public void setSomeData(Data someData) { this.someData = someData; } } The simple change would be to change the type from "Data" to "HbnData", but that would obviously break the interface implementation, and thus make the abstraction impossible. Can anyone explain to me how to implement this in a way that it will work with Hibernate?

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  • FileConnection Blackberry memory usage

    - by Dean
    Hello, I'm writing a blackberry application that reads ints and strings out of a database. This is my first time dealing with reading/writing on the blackberry, so forgive me if this is a dumb question. The database file I'm reading is only about 4kB I open the file with the following code fconn = (FileConnection) Connector.open("file_path_here", Connector.READ); if(fconn.exists()==false){fconn.close();return;} is = fconn.openDataInputStream(); while(!eof){ //etc... } is.close(); fconn.close(); The problem is, this code appears to be eating a LOT of memory. Using breakpoints and the "Memory Statistics" view, I determined the following: calling "Connector.open" creates 71 objects and changes "RAM Bytes in use" by 5376 calling "fconn.openDataInputStream();" increases RAM usage by a whopping 75920 Is this normal? Or am I doing something wrong? And how can I fix this? 75MB of RAM is a LOT of memory to waste on a handheld device, especially when the file I'm reading is only 4kB and I haven't even begun reading any data! How is this even possible?

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  • Jquery Ajax + PHP

    - by Kris.Mitchell
    I am having problems with jQuery Ajax and PHP I have my php file set up to echo the data I am gathering from a mysql database. I have verified that the database is returning something and that the string at the end of the function actually contains data. What is happening though, is that it looks like the php echo is happening before the ajax call, causing the php data to be displayed at the top of the page, and not below in proper div. I think it might have something to do with timing of the ajax and the php call, but I am not sure. So, why is the data not getting caught by the .ajax and thrown into the div? Thanks for the help! jQuery $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax({ url: "../database_functions.php", type: "GET", data: "cat=jw&sub=pi&sort=no", cache: false, success: function (html) { alert("Success!"); $('#product-list').html(html); } }); }); PHP echo "Hello World";

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  • An Erroneous SQL Query makes browser hang until script timeout exceeded

    - by Jimbo
    I have an admin page in a Classic ASP web application that allows the admin user to run queries against the database (SQL Server 2000) Whats really strange is that if the query you send has an error in it (an invalid table join, a column you've forgotten to group by etc) the BROWSER hangs (CPU usage goes to maximum) until the SERVER script timeout is exceeded and then spits out a timeout exceeded error (server and browser are on different machines, so not sure how this happens!) I have tried this in IE 8 and FF 3 with the same result. If you run that same query (with errors) directly from SQL Enterprise Manager, it returns the real error immediately. Is this a security feature? Does anyone know how to turn it off? It even happens when the connection to the database is using 'sa' credentials so I dont think its a security setting :( Dim oRS Set oRS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") oRS.ActiveConnection = sConnectionString // run the query - this is for the admin only so doesnt check for sql safe commands etc. oRS.Open Request.Form("txtSQL") If Not oRS.EOF Then // list the field names from the recordset For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).name & "&nbsp;" Next // show the data for each record in the recordset While Not oRS.EOF For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).value & "&nbsp;" Next Response.Write "<br />" oRS.Movenext() Wend End If

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  • How to write to a Text File in Pipe delimited format from MS Sql Server / ASP.Net?

    - by NJTechGuy
    I have a text file which needs to be constantly updated (regular intervals). All I want is the syntax and possibly some code that outputs data from a MS Sql Database using ASP.Net. The code I have so far is : <%@ Import Namespace="System.IO" %> <script language="vb" runat="server"> sub Page_Load(sender as Object, e as EventArgs) Dim FILENAME as String = Server.MapPath("Output.txt") Dim objStreamWriter as StreamWriter ' If Len(Dir$(FILENAME)) > 0 Then Kill(FILENAME) objStreamWriter = File.AppendText(FILENAME) objStreamWriter.WriteLine("A user viewed this demo at: " & DateTime.Now.ToString()) objStreamWriter.Close() Dim objStreamReader as StreamReader objStreamReader = File.OpenText(FILENAME) Dim contents as String = objStreamReader.ReadToEnd() lblNicerOutput.Text = contents.Replace(vbCrLf, "<br>") objStreamReader.Close() end sub </script> <asp:label runat="server" id="lblNicerOutput" Font-Name="Verdana" /> With PHP, it is a breeze, but with .Net I have no clue. If you could help me with the database connectivity and how to write the data in pipe delimited format to an Output.txt file, that had be awesome. Thanks guys!

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  • Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

    - by franko75
    I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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  • Looking for Simplified Overview of EJB3

    - by sdoca
    Hi I'm looking for a simplified overview of EJB3 components. I seem to understand most of the pieces of the puzzle, but can't quite get them to fit together in my brain as a full picture. I've developed numerous web applications (wars) that have been deployed on Tomcat before, but not a full-fledged EE application (ear). I would like the overview to be as generic as possible. I'm not looking for a tutorial on how to set up EJB3 on Glassfish built in NetBeans or some other vendor specific tutorial that's more about the IDE than the technology. I keep reading about Java, ejb-jar, web and ear modules but am not clear on what these different modules contain and how to use them to put together my app. In my case, I want to write a simple database CRUD web application. The first step is simple; create entity classes that model the database tables my app will be using. I plan on using annotations. Should I create a jar that contains just these enity classes? Is this the ejb-jar module (sometimes referred to as the Java module)? Next, I'll need some business logic classes that make use of the entity classes. These are the session beans (stateless or stateful) correct? Should these be packaged in the same jar as the entity classes or a separate jar? Finally, I'll need some sort of web interface (I'll be creating a JSF portlet) application that makes use of the both the session and entity beans. Together with the above jar(s), this will be my war? Assuming the above to be correct, what is involved in creating an ear? Forgive me if this post is vague, but I'm having a hard time defining what it is I don't understand. Thanks for any help!

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  • Excel - Best Way to Connect With Access Data

    - by gamerzfuse
    Hello there, Here is the situation we have: a) I have an Access database / application that records a significant amount of data. Significant fields would be hours, # of sales, # of unreturned calls, etc b) I have an Excel document that connects to the Access database and pulls data in to visualize it As it stands now, the Excel file has a Refresh button that loads new data. The data is loaded into a large PivotTable. The main 'visual form' then uses VLOOKUP to get the results from the form, based on the related hours. This operation is slow (~10 seconds) and seems to be redundant and inefficient. Is there a better way to do this? I am willing to go just about any route - just need directions. Thanks in advance! Update: I have confirmed (due to helpful comments/responses) that the problem is with the data loading itself. removing all the VLOOKUPs only took a second or two out of the load time. So, the questions stands as how I can rapidly and reliably get the data without so much time involvement (it loads around 3000 records into the PivotTables).

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  • Random problem connecting to MySQL

    - by CharlesLeaf
    Environment: RHEL 5 servers, MySQL 5.1.43, PHP 5.1.6 (using MySQLi). Currently only available within our internal VPN network. Servers ServerA: Webserver ServerB/C/D: Database server (1 master 2 slaves) The error (on ServerA) [Tue May 25 11:12:17 2010] [error] [client CLIENTIP] PHP Warning: mysqli::real_connect() [function.mysqli-real-connect]: (HY000/2003): Can't connect to MySQL server on 'ServerB' (4) in /home/**/Database.php on line 67, referer: [website] Problem description It appears that at completely random times, our website is unable to connect to one of the MySQL servers - usually the Master. Except for the forementioned error message, there is nothing to be found in any of the logs as far as I can see, and most of the times the connection is succesful and everything works as it should. It's just at completely random times, this error pops up. There's no firewall blocking any internal traffic, timeout value is 3 but it doesn't take 3 seconds before it fails to connect. With the default mysql client I can connect from ServerA to ServerB,C and D and haven't encountered a problem yet. Does anyone have a clue what I might be overlooking / could be the problem? Because I've run out of ideas myself.

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  • PHP Check slave status without mysql_connect timeout issues

    - by Jonathon
    I have a web-app that has a master mysql db and four slave dbs. I want to handle all (or almost all) read-only (SELECT) queries from the slaves. Our load-balancer sends the user to one of the slave machines automatically, since they are also running Apache/PHP and serving webpages. I am using an include file to setup the connection to the databases, such as: //for master server (i.e. - UPDATE/INSERT/DELETE statements) $Host = "10.0.0.x"; $User = "xx"; $Password = "xx"; $Link = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); if( !$Link ) ) { die( "Master database is currently unavailable. Please try again later." ); } //this connection can be used for READ-ONLY (i.e. - SELECT statements) on the localhost $Host_Local = "localhost"; $User_Local = "xx"; $Password_Local = "xx"; $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host_Local, $User_Local, $Password_Local ); //fail back to master if slave db is down if( !$Link_Local ) ) { $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); } I then use $Link for all update queries and $Link_Local as the connection for SELECT statements. Everything works fine until the slave server database goes down. If the local db is down, the $Link_Local = mysql_connect() call takes at least 30 seconds before it gives up on trying to connect to the localhost and returns back to the script. This causes a huge backlog of page serves and basically shuts down the system (due to the extremely slow response time). Does anyone know of a better way to handle connections to slave servers via PHP? Or, is there some kind of timeout function that could be used to stop the mysql_connect call after 2-3 seconds? Thanks for the help. I searched the other mysql_connect threads, but didn't see any that addressed this issue.

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  • [php] Firefox refreshes page 1, even after redirection to page 2

    - by Znarkus
    Hi! This is a quite weird and annoying problem, which is reproduced with the script below. Say we have two pages: script.php and script.php?second. Page 1 creates some database entries and redirects to page 2. On page 2, the user is presented with an editor for said entries. If page 1 for some reason crashes on the first try, and prints some error message, a strange thing will happend. If we refresh page 1 (and this time it redirects fine), every consecutive refresh (of page 2) will actually refresh page 1 and again redirect to page 2. In the above example this would create new database entries for every refresh, which is the problem I want to circumvent by redirecting to page 2. <?php header('Content-type: text/plain'); session_start(); if (!isset($_GET['second'])) { $_SESSION['counter'] = isset($_SESSION['counter']) ? $_SESSION['counter'] + 1 : 1; /*$_SESSION['counter'] = 0; exit('asd');*/ header("Location: {$_SERVER['PHP_SELF']}?second", true, 303); exit; } echo "Counter: {$_SESSION['counter']}"; To try the above complete script, first run it with the commented code intact, then by enabling the commented code. I've tried 301, 302 and 303 redirections. Does someone know why this is happening?

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  • Is excessive DataTable usage bad?

    - by Justin R.
    I was recently asked to assist another team in building an ASP .NET website. They already have a significant amount of code written -- I was specifically asked build a few individual pages for the site. While exploring the code for the rest of the site, the amount of DataTables being constructed jumped out at me. Being a relatively new in the field, I've never worked on an application that utilizes a database as much as this site does, so I'm not sure how common this is. It seems that whenever data is queried from our database, the results are stored in a DataTable. This DataTable is then usually passed around by itself, or it's passed to a constructor. Classes that are initialized with a DataTable always assign the DataTable to a private/protected field, however only a few of these classes implement IDisposable. In fact, in the thousands of lines of code that I've browsed so far, I have yet to see the Dispose method called on a DataTable. If anything, this doesn't seem to be good OOP. Is this something that I should worry about? Or am I just paying more attention to detail than I should? Assuming you're most experienced developers than I am, how would you feel or react if someone who was just assigned to help you with your site approached you about this "problem"?

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  • Creating PHP strings using other variables...works manually, can't figure out how automatically

    - by Matt
    Hello, I'm trying to get a variable to be formed automatically using data pulled from a mysql database. I know the data is being pulled from the database in some form resembling its original form, but that data does not act the same as data that is manually typed and assigned to a string. For example, if a cell in a mysql table says... I said "goodbye" before I left. She also said "goodbye." ...and I manually copy/paste it and add the necessary escapes... $string1 = " I said \"goodbye\" before I left. She also said \"goodbye.\" "; ...that does not equal... $string1 = $mysqlResultArray['specificCellWithQuoteShownAbove'] Interestingly, if I echo both versions of $string1 and view the output, they appear to be exactly the same. But they do not function the same when put through various functions I've created. The functions only work if I do the manual copy/paste method--which is not what I want, obviously. I'm not sure if it has to do with the line breaks or the escapes--or some combination of the two. But while both strings are superficially the same, they are apparently functionally different and I don't know why. So how can I create $string1 without manually copy/pasting the contents from the mysql entry and instead querying for the data and assigning it to $string1 in such a way that it's exactly functionally equivalent as the manual copy/pasted string?

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