Search Results

Search found 2240 results on 90 pages for 'assert redirected to'.

Page 71/90 | < Previous Page | 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78  | Next Page >

  • MSTest Test Context Exception Handling

    - by Flip
    Is there a way that I can get to the exception that was handled by the MSTest framework using the TestContext or some other method on a base test class? If an unhandled exception occurs in one of my tests, I'd like to spin through all the items in the exception.Data dictionary and display them to the test result to help me figure out why the test failed (we usually add data to the exception to help us debug in the production env, so I'd like to do the same for testing). Note: I am not testing that an exception was SUPPOSED TO HAPPEN (I have other tests for that), I am testing a valid case, I just need to see the exception data. Here is a code example of what I'm talking about. [TestMethod] public void IsFinanceDeadlineDateValid() { var target = new BusinessObject(); SetupBusinessObject(target); //How can I capture this in the text context so I can display all the data //in the exception in the test result... var expected = 100; try { Assert.AreEqual(expected, target.PerformSomeCalculationThatMayDivideByZero()); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Data.Add("SomethingImportant", "I want to see this in the test result, as its important"); ex.Data.Add("Expected", expected); throw ex; } } I understand there are issues around why I probably shouldn't have such an encapsulating method, but we also have sub tests to test all the functionality of PerformSomeCalculation... However, if the test fails, 99% of the time, I rerun it passes, so I can't debug anything without this information. I would also like to do this on a GLOBAL level, so that if any test fails, I get the information in the test results, as opposed to doing it for each individual test. Here is the code that would put the exception info in the test results. public void AddDataFromExceptionToResults(Exception ex) { StringBuilder whereAmI = new StringBuilder(); var holdException = ex; while (holdException != null) { Console.WriteLine(whereAmI.ToString() + "--" + holdException.Message); foreach (var item in holdException.Data.Keys) { Console.WriteLine(whereAmI.ToString() + "--Data--" + item + ":" + holdException.Data[item]); } holdException = holdException.InnerException; } }

    Read the article

  • .NET Process.Kill() in a safe way

    - by Orborde
    I'm controlling a creaky old FORTRAN simulator from a VB.NET GUI, using redirected I/O to communicate with the simulator executable. The GUI pops up a "status" window with a progress bar, estimated time, and a "STOP" button (Button_Stop). Now, I want the Button_Stop to terminate the simulator process immediately. The obvious way to do this is to call Kill() on the Child Process object. This gives an exception if it's done after the process has exited, but I can test whether the process is exited before trying to kill it, right? OK, so I do the following when the button is clicked: If Not Child.HasExited Then Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False End If However, what if the process happens to exit between the test and the call to Kill()? In that case, I get an exception. The next thing to occur to me was that I can do Button_Stop.Enabled = False in the Process.Exited event handler, and thus prevent the Child.Kill() call in the Button_Stop.Clicked handler. But since the Process.Exited handler is called on a different thread, that still leaves the following possible interleaving: Child process exits. Process.Exited fires, calls Invoke to schedule the Button_Stop.Enabled = False User clicks on Button_Stop, triggering Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False actually happens. An exception would then be thrown on step 3. How do I kill the process without any race conditions? Am I thinking about this entirely wrong?

    Read the article

  • Programmatically access the CIL for a .NET type

    - by Jordão
    Is there a straighforward library that I can use to access the CIL for a .NET type? Let me demonstrate what I want the fictitious CilExtractor to do: [Serializable] public class Type_For_Extract_Cil_Test { private int _field = 3; public int Method(int value) { checked { return _field + value; } } } [Test] public void Extract_Cil_For_Type_Test() { string actualCil = CilExtractor.ExtractCil(typeof(Type_For_Extract_Cil_Test)); string expectedCil = @" .class public auto ansi serializable beforefieldinit Type_For_Extract_Cil_Test extends [mscorlib]System.Object { .method public hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor() cil managed { .maxstack 8 L_0000: ldarg.0 L_0001: ldc.i4.3 L_0002: stfld int32 Type_For_Extract_Cil_Test::_field L_0007: ldarg.0 L_0008: call instance void [mscorlib]System.Object::.ctor() L_000d: ret } .method public hidebysig instance int32 Method(int32 'value') cil managed { .maxstack 8 L_0000: ldarg.0 L_0001: ldfld int32 Type_For_Extract_Cil_Test::_field L_0006: ldarg.1 L_0007: add.ovf L_0008: ret } .field private int32 _field }"; // indentations and code formatting issues apart, this should succeed Assert.AreEqual(expectedCil, actualCil); } I know I can do this with Mono.Cecil or Reflector, but I also know I have to write a lot of code to achieve this. Since Reflector already does this on its UI, isn't there a simple way to access this functionality, like with a simple method call? Are there other libraries that are better suited to this specific scenario?

    Read the article

  • Macro access to members of object where macro is defined

    - by Marc Grue
    Say I have a trait Foo that I instantiate with an initial value val foo = new Foo(6) // class Foo(i: Int) and I later call a second method that in turn calls myMacro foo.secondMethod(7) // def secondMethod(j: Int) = macro myMacro then, how can myMacro find out what my initial value of i (6) is? I didn't succeed with normal compilation reflection using c.prefix, c.eval(...) etc but instead found a 2-project solution: Project B: object CompilationB { def resultB(x: Int, y: Int) = macro resultB_impl def resultB_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int], y: c.Expr[Int]) = c.universe.reify(x.splice * y.splice) } Project A (depends on project B): trait Foo { val i: Int // Pass through `i` to compilation B: def apply(y: Int) = CompilationB.resultB(i, y) } object CompilationA { def makeFoo(x: Int): Foo = macro makeFoo_impl def makeFoo_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int]): c.Expr[Foo] = c.universe.reify(new Foo {val i = x.splice}) } We can create a Foo and set the i value either with normal instantiation or with a macro like makeFoo. The second approach allows us to customize a Foo at compile time in the first compilation and then in the second compilation further customize its response to input (i in this case)! In some way we get "meta-meta" capabilities (or "pataphysic"-capabilities ;-) Normally we would need to have foo in scope to introspect i (with for instance c.eval(...)). But by saving the i value inside the Foo object we can access it anytime and we could instantiate Foo anywhere: object Test extends App { import CompilationA._ // Normal instantiation val foo1 = new Foo {val i = 7} val r1 = foo1(6) // Macro instantiation val foo2 = makeFoo(7) val r2 = foo2(6) // "Curried" invocation val r3 = makeFoo(6)(7) println(s"Result 1 2 3: $r1 $r2 $r3") assert((r1, r2, r3) ==(42, 42, 42)) } My question Can I find i inside my example macros without this double compilation hackery?

    Read the article

  • Mock versus Implementation. How to share both approaches in a single Test class ?

    - by Arthur Ronald F D Garcia
    Hi, See the following Mock Test by using Spring/Spring-MVC public class OrderTest { // SimpleFormController private OrderController controller; private OrderService service; private MockHttpServletRequest request; @BeforeMethod public void setUp() { request = new MockHttpServletRequest(); request.setMethod("POST"); Integer orderNumber = 421; Order order = new Order(orderNumber); // Set up a Mock service service = createMock(OrderService.class); service.save(order); replay(service); controller = new OrderController(); controller.setService(service); controller.setValidator(new OrderValidator()); request.addParameter("orderNumber", String.valueOf(orderNumber)); } @Test public void successSave() { controller.handleRequest(request, new MockHttpServletResponse()); // Our OrderService has been called by our controller verify(service); } @Test public void failureSave() { // Ops... our orderNumber is required request.removeAllParameters(); ModelAndView mav = controller.handleRequest(request, new MockHttpServletResponse()); BindingResult bindException = (BindingResult) mav.getModel().get(BindingResult.MODEL_KEY_PREFIX + "command"); assertEquals("Our Validator has thrown one FieldError", bindException.getAllErrors(), 1); } } As you can see, i do as proposed by Triple A pattern Arrange (setUp method) Act (controller.handleRequest) Assert (verify and assertEquals) But i would like to test both Mock and Implementation class (OrderService) by using this single Test class. So in order to retrieve my Implementation, i re-write my class as follows @ContextConfiguration(locations="/app.xml") public class OrderTest extends AbstractTestNGSpringContextTests { } So how should i write my single test to Arrange both Mock and Implementation OrderService without change my Test method (sucessSave and failureSave) I am using TestNG, but you can show in JUnit if you want regards,

    Read the article

  • WCF InProcFactory error

    - by Terence Lewis
    I'm using IDesign's ServiceModelEx assembly to provide additional functionality over and above what's available in standard WCF. In particular I'm making use of InProcFactory to host some WCF services within my process using Named Pipes. However, my process also declares a TCP endpoint in its configuration file, which I host and open when the process starts. At some later point, when I try to host a second instance of this service using the InProcFactory through the named pipe (from a different service in the same process), for some reason it picks up the TCP endpoint in the configuration file and tries to re-host this endpoint, which throws an exception as the TCP port is already in use from the first hosting. Here is the relevant code from InProcFactory.cs in ServiceModelEx: static HostRecord GetHostRecord<S,I>() where I : class where S : class,I { HostRecord hostRecord; if(m_Hosts.ContainsKey(typeof(S))) { hostRecord = m_Hosts[typeof(S)]; } else { ServiceHost<S> host; if(m_Singletons.ContainsKey(typeof(S))) { S singleton = m_Singletons[typeof(S)] as S; Debug.Assert(singleton != null); host = new ServiceHost<S>(singleton,BaseAddress); } else { host = new ServiceHost<S>(BaseAddress); } string address = BaseAddress.ToString() + Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); hostRecord = new HostRecord(host,address); m_Hosts.Add(typeof(S),hostRecord); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(I),Binding,address); if(m_Throttles.ContainsKey(typeof(S))) { host.SetThrottle(m_Throttles[typeof(S)]); } // This line fails because it tries to open two endpoints, instead of just the named-pipe one host.Open(); } return hostRecord; }

    Read the article

  • asp mvc unit test HttpContext.Current.Cache?

    - by Paul Creasey
    Here is the first part of my controller code: public class ControlMController : Controller { IControlMService _controlMservice; public IList<User> Users { get { if (System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Cache["users"] == null) { System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Cache["users"] = _controlMservice.GetUsers(); } return (IList<User>)System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Cache["users"]; } } public ControlMController(IControlMService controlMservice) { this._controlMservice = controlMservice; var users = Users; ViewData["Users"] = users; ViewData["jqSelectUsers"] = string.Join(";", users.Select(x => x.UserID + ":" + x.Name).ToArray()); } I'm trying to test it, and because i'm caching using the HttpContext, i'm struggling with null reference exceptions. I've tried using MvcContrib.TestHelper; here is my sample test... [TestMethod] public void EventDetails_Returns_view_with_correct_event() { var builder = new TestControllerBuilder(); var controller = builder.CreateController<ControlMController>( new ControlMService( new MockControlMRepository() )); var view = (controller.EventDetails(1) as ViewResult); Assert.AreEqual(1, (view.ViewData.Model as Event).EventId); } (I haven't quite got round to using DI for my tests! I'm still getting the same null reference exception when the code hits the httpcontext: Error 1 TestCase 'SupportTool.Tests.Services.ControlM.ControlMControllerTests.EventDetails_Returns_view_with_correct_event' failed: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at SupportTool.web.Controllers.ControlMController.get_Users() Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • iPhone offline reading

    - by Andy
    Hi, first of all - I am quite new to iPhone App development (3 months). I am working for a software company that offers a content management system. Our customers are for the main part publishing houses for magazines. They use our software to write articles to their homepages. Now we want to offer iPhone Applications to go with our cms. What I have accomplished so far is an RSS reader that shows newly published articles in a list view. The user selects one article and is redirected to a specially formatted detail view of this article. The next step is to add offline reading capabilities. I have searched the internet up and down but couldn't find anything like a best practice for that. I get it that there are two possibilities in general: Store the contents of the uiwebview locally on the iPhone/iPad (including css, images, js and so on). There would be the need to rework the basic html to use the downloaded css, images and js. Also I would have to somehow edit hyperlinks to following pages in multipage articles - Sounds like a lot of work ;) Create a PDF on the server side and download that to the mobile device. Rework the RSS Source to point to the locally saved pdf instead of the website on the server. My question is - what is the better way to go? Are there any downsides for either of the possibilities? Are there other (simple ;)) ways to implement offline reading features? Are there possibly any howto's that I could've missed? Thanks y'all!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC, areas, routing and a controller factory.

    - by Kieron
    Hi, I've an interesting problem with some routing with an ASP.NET MVC app. I'm building a CMS and I've got a catch-all handler that takes the URL and checks to see if there's some matching content in a database. If so, it displays it, otherwise we get a 404. Now I've got all that working with some test data, I moved on to write a quick admin system. I thought I'd use some of the new Area functionality baked into MVC 2, so I've created an area called Admin with a controller called Home. Now however I have a problem of the default HomeController in the Admin Area is being returned when requesting the application root path. The problem is that there is no other HomeController for the 'root' application (the one hosting all of the areas), instead the root would be redirected to the my catch-all handler and populated from the database. So now the controller factory is returning the best matching controller, which it thinks is the admin area one, what I really need is for it to not match it at all - as it did previously. Apart from renaming the Admin HomeController to something else, is there another solution?

    Read the article

  • Python TypeError: an integer is required

    - by kartiku
    import scipy,array def try_read_file(): def line_reader(lines): for l in lines: i = l.find('#') if i != -1: l = l[:i] l = l.strip() if l: yield l def column_counter(): inputer = (line.split() for line in line_reader(file('/home/kartik/Downloads/yahoo_dataset/set1.train.txt'.strip()))) loopexit = 0 for line in inputer: feature_tokens = (token.split(':') for token in line[6:]) feature_ids = array.array('I') for t in feature_tokens: feature_ids.append(int (t[0])) tmpLength = feature_ids[-1] print feature_ids loopexit = loopexit + 1 if loopexit > 0: break return tmpLength def line_counter(): inputer = (line.split() for line in line_reader(file('/home/kartik/Downloads/yahoo_dataset/set1.train.txt'.strip()))) noOfRows = 0 for line in inputer: noOfRows = noOfRows + 1 return noOfRows inputer = (line.split() for line in line_reader(file('/home/kartik/Downloads/yahoo_dataset/set1.train.txt'.strip()))) feature_id_list = [] feature_value_list = [] relevance_list = [] noOfRows = line_counter() noOfCols = column_counter() print noOfRows print noOfCols # line 52 #Create the feature array feature_array = scipy.zeros((noOfRows,noOfCols), float) rowCounter = 1; for line in inputer: feature_tokens = (token.split(':') for token in line[6:]) feature_ids = array.array('I') feature_values = array.array('f') for t in feature_tokens: feature_ids.append(int(t[0])) if (t[0]!=colCounter): feature_array[rowCounter,colCounter] = 0 else: feature_array[rowCounter,colCounter] = t[1] feature_values.append(float(t[1])) colCounter = colCounter + 1; label = float(line[0]) assert(line[1].startswith('qid:')) query_id = int(line[1][4:]) feature_id_list.append(feature_ids) feature_value_list.append(feature_values) relevance_list.append(label) rowCounter = rowCounter + 1; return feature_array Error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#97>", line 1, in <module> try_read_file() File "/home/kartik/Python/prelim_read.py", line 52, in try_read_file print noOfCols TypeError: an integer is required What is the problem, i couldn't figure it out? I tried to debug it, but it doesnt really go inside those methods. It gives me an address in place of those variables.

    Read the article

  • Marshalling a big-endian byte collection into a struct in order to pull out values

    - by Pat
    There is an insightful question about reading a C/C++ data structure in C# from a byte array, but I cannot get the code to work for my collection of big-endian (network byte order) bytes. (EDIT: Note that my real struct has more than just one field.) Is there a way to marshal the bytes into a big-endian version of the structure and then pull out the values in the endianness of the framework (that of the host, which is usually little-endian)? This should summarize what I'm looking for (LE=LittleEndian, BE=BigEndian): void Main() { var leBytes = new byte[] {1, 0}; var beBytes = new byte[] {0, 1}; Foo fooLe = ByteArrayToStructure<Foo>(leBytes); Foo fooBe = ByteArrayToStructureBigEndian<Foo>(beBytes); Assert.AreEqual(fooLe, fooBe); } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit, Size=2)] public struct Foo { [FieldOffset(0)] public ushort firstUshort; } T ByteArrayToStructure<T>(byte[] bytes) where T: struct { GCHandle handle = GCHandle.Alloc(bytes, GCHandleType.Pinned); T stuff = (T)Marshal.PtrToStructure(handle.AddrOfPinnedObject(),typeof(T)); handle.Free(); return stuff; } T ByteArrayToStructureBigEndian<T>(byte[] bytes) where T: struct { ??? }

    Read the article

  • Any way to identify a redirect when using jQuery's $.ajax() or $.getScript() methods?

    - by Bungle
    Within my company's online application, we've set up a JSONP-based API that returns some data that is used by a bookmarklet I'm developing. Here is a quick test page I set up that hits the API URL using jQuery's $.ajax() method: http://troy.onespot.com/static/3915/index.html If you look at the requests using Firebug's "Net" tab (or the like), you'll see that what's happening is that the URL is requested successfully, but since our app redirects any unauthorized users to a login page, the login page is also requested by the browser and seemingly interpreted as JavaScript. This inevitably causes an exception since the login page is HTML, not JavaScript. Basically, I'm looking for any sort of hook to determine when the request results in a redirect - some way to determine if the URL resolved to a JSONP response (which will execute a method I've predefined in the bookmarklet script) or if it resulted in a redirect. I tried wrapping the $.ajax() method in a try {} catch(e) {} block, but that doesn't trap the exception, I'm assuming because the requests were successful, just not the parsing of the login page as JavaScript. Is there anywhere I could use a try {} catch(e) {} block, or any property of $.ajax() that might allow me to hone in on the exception or otherwise determine that I've been redirected? I actually doubt this is possible, since $.getScript() (or the equivalent setup of $.ajax()) just loads a script dynamically, and can't inspect the response headers since it's cross-domain and not truly AJAX: http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.getScript/ My alternative would be to just fire off the $.ajax() for a period of time until I either get the JSONP callback or don't, and in the latter case, assume the user is not logged in and prompt them to do so. I don't like that method, though, since it would result in a lot of unnecessary requests to the app server, and would also pile up the JavaScript exceptions in the meantime. Thanks for any suggestions!

    Read the article

  • Data Transfer Objects VS Domain/ActiveRecord Entities in the View in RoR

    - by leypascua
    I'm coming from a .NET background, where it is a practice to not bind domain/entity models directly to the view in not-so-basic CRUD-ish applications where the view does not directly project entity fields as-is. I'm wondering what's the practice in RoR, where the default persistence mechanism is ActiveRecord. I would assert that presentation-related info should not be leaked to the entities, not sure though if this is how real RoR heads would do it. If DTOs/model per view is the approach, how will you do it in Rails? Your thoughts? EDIT: Some examples: - A view shows a list of invoices, with the number of unique items in one column. - A list of credit card accounts, where possibly fraudulent transactions were executed. For that, the UI needs to show this row in red. For both scenarios, The lists don't show all of the fields of the entities, just a few to show in the list (like invoice #, transaction date, name of the account, the amount of the transaction) For the invoice example, The invoice entity doesn't have a field "No. of line items" mapped on it. The database has not been denormalized for perf reasons and it will be computed during query time using aggregate functions. For the credit card accounts example, surely the card transaction entity doesn't have a "Show-in-red" or "IsFraudulent" invariant. Yes it may be a business rule, but for this example, that is a presentation concern, so I would like to keep it out of my domain model.

    Read the article

  • nHibernate Domain Model and Mapping Files in Separate Projects

    - by Blake Blackwell
    Is there a way to separate out the domain objects and mapping files into two separate projects? I would like to create one project called MyCompany.MyProduct.Core that contains my domain model, and another project that is called MyCompany.MYProduct.Data.Oracle that contains my Oracle data mappings. However, when I try to unit test this I get the following error message: Named query 'GetClients' not found. Here is my mapping file: <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyCompany.MyProduct.Core" namespace="MyCompany.MyProduct.Core" > <class name="MyCompany.MyProduct.Core.Client" table="MY_CLIENT" lazy="false"> <id name="ClientId" column="ClientId"></id> <property name="ClientName" column="ClientName" /> <loader query-ref="GetClients"/> </class> <sql-query name="GetClients" callable="true"> <return class="Client" /> call procedure MyPackage.GetClients(:int_SummitGroupId) </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> Here is my unit test: try { var cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.Configure(); cfg.AddAssembly( typeof( Client ).Assembly ); ISessionFactory sessionFactory = cfg.BuildSessionFactory(); IStatelessSession session = sessionFactory.OpenStatelessSession(); IQuery query = session.GetNamedQuery( "GetClients" ); query.SetParameter( "int_SummitGroupId", 3173 ); IList<Client> clients = query.List<Client>(); Assert.AreNotEqual( 0, clients.Count ); } catch( Exception ex ) { throw ex; } I think I may be improperly referencing the assembly, because if I do put the domain model object in the MyComapny.MyProduct.Data.Oracle class it works. Only when I separate out in to two projects do I run into this problem.

    Read the article

  • struts2: Redirect from global interceptor

    - by Dewfy
    In struts2 I have very simple task, after user is logged-in I'm checking if they profile is complete. If not user should be blocked from any other action and redirected to edit page. So I have created my default package: <package name="main" extends="tiles-default" > <interceptors> <interceptor name="checkProfile" class="my.CheckProfileInterceptor" /> <interceptor-stack name="secure"> <interceptor-ref name="defaultStack"/> <interceptor-ref name="checkProfile"/> </interceptor-stack> </interceptors> <default-interceptor-ref name="secure"/> </package> After it all my packages would include this template as a base: <package namespace="/packageA" name="packageA" extends="main"> ... <package namespace="/packageB" name="packageB" extends="main"> ... Saying editing page is /packageA/editProfile, my interceptor does following: public String intercept(ActionInvocation actionInvocation) throws Exception { if( currentUser.isOk() ) return "editProfile"; ... BUT! interceptor is global, so it raises struts2 error: No result defined for action (name of editProfile action class) When interceptor is placed inside some package - then everything ok. What should i do to declare global action?

    Read the article

  • Python interface to PayPal - urllib.urlencode non-ASCII characters failing

    - by krys
    I am trying to implement PayPal IPN functionality. The basic protocol is as such: The client is redirected from my site to PayPal's site to complete payment. He logs into his account, authorizes payment. PayPal calls a page on my server passing in details as POST. Details include a person's name, address, and payment info etc. I need to call a URL on PayPal's site internally from my processing page passing back all the params that were passed in abovem and an additional one called 'cmd' with a value of '_notify-validate'. When I try to urllib.urlencode the params which PayPal has sent to me, I get a: While calling send_response_to_paypal. Traceback (most recent call last): File "<snip>/account/paypal/views.py", line 108, in process_paypal_ipn verify_result = send_response_to_paypal(params) File "<snip>/account/paypal/views.py", line 41, in send_response_to_paypal params = urllib.urlencode(params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/urllib.py", line 1261, in urlencode v = quote_plus(str(v)) UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\ufffd' in position 9: ordinal not in range(128) I understand that urlencode does ASCII encoding, and in certain cases, a user's contact info can contain non-ASCII characters. This is understandable. My question is, how do I encode non-ASCII characters for POSTing to a URL using urllib2.urlopen(req) (or other method) Details: I read the params in PayPal's original request as follows (the GET is for testing): def read_ipn_params(request): if request.POST: params= request.POST.copy() if "ipn_auth" in request.GET: params["ipn_auth"]=request.GET["ipn_auth"] return params else: return request.GET.copy() The code I use for sending back the request to PayPal from the processing page is: def send_response_to_paypal(params): params['cmd']='_notify-validate' params = urllib.urlencode(params) req = urllib2.Request(PAYPAL_API_WEBSITE, params) req.add_header("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded") response = urllib2.urlopen(req) status = response.read() if not status == "VERIFIED": logging.warn("PayPal cannot verify IPN responses: " + status) return False return True Obviously, the problem only arises if someone's name or address or other field used for the PayPal payment does not fall into the ASCII range.

    Read the article

  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

    Read the article

  • castle monorail unit test rendertext

    - by MikeWyatt
    I'm doing some maintenance on an older web application written in Monorail v1.0.3. I want to unit test an action that uses RenderText(). How do I extract the content in my test? Reading from controller.Response.OutputStream doesn't work, since the response stream is either not setup properly in PrepareController(), or is closed in RenderText(). Example Action public DeleteFoo( int id ) { var success= false; var foo = Service.Get<Foo>( id ); if( foo != null && CurrentUser.IsInRole( "CanDeleteFoo" ) ) { Service.Delete<Foo>( id ); success = true; } CancelView(); RenderText( "{ success: " + success + " }" ); } Example Test (using Moq) [Test] public void DeleteFoo() { var controller = new MyController (); PrepareController ( controller ); var foo = new Foo { Id = 123 }; var mockService = new Mock < Service > (); mockService.Setup ( s => s.Get<Foo> ( foo.Id ) ).Returns ( foo ); controller.Service = mockService.Object; controller.DeleteTicket ( ticket.Id ); mockService.Verify ( s => s.Delete<Foo> ( foo.Id ) ); Assert.AreEqual ( "{success:true}", GetResponse ( Response ) ); } // response.OutputStream.Seek throws an "System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a closed Stream." exception private static string GetResponse( IResponse response ) { response.OutputStream.Seek ( 0, SeekOrigin.Begin ); var buffer = new byte[response.OutputStream.Length]; response.OutputStream.Read ( buffer, 0, buffer.Length ); return Encoding.ASCII.GetString ( buffer ); }

    Read the article

  • String length differs from Javascript to Java code

    - by François P.
    I've got a JSP page with a piece of Javascript validation code which limits to a certain amount of characters on submit. I'm using a <textarea> so I can't simply use a length attribute like in a <input type="text">. I use document.getElementById("text").value.length to get the string length. I'm running Firefox 3.0 on Windows (but I've tested this behavior with IE 6 also). The form gets submitted to a J2EE servlet. In my Java servlet the string length of the parameter is larger than 2000! I've noticed that this can easily be reproduced by adding carriage returns in the <textarea>. I've used Firebug to assert the length of the <textare> and it really is 2000 characters long. On the Java side though, the carriage returns get converted to UNIX style (\r\n, instead of \n), thus the string length differs! Am I missing something obvious here or what ? If not, how would you reliably (cross-platform / browser) make sure that the <textarea> is limited.

    Read the article

  • cakephp: Custom Authentication Object authenticate not called

    - by Kristoffer Darj
    The method authenticate in a Custom Authentication Object is never called. Is this a glicth or am I missing something? I don't get anything in the log, I'm just redirected to users/login (or the one I specified) CakeVersion: 2.4.1 <?php //My custom Auth Class //Path: app/Controller/Component/Auth/HashAuthenticate.php App::uses('BaseAuthenticate', 'Controller/Component/Auth'); class HashAuthenticate extends BaseAuthenticate { public function authenticate(CakeRequest $request, CakeResponse $response) { //Seems to not be called CakeLog::write('authenticate'); debug($this); die('gaah'); } } If I add the method getUser() (or unauthenticated() ), those gets called however so at least I know that cake finds the class and so on. It just skips the authenticate-method. The AppController looks like this class AppController extends Controller { public $helpers = array('Html', 'Form', 'Session'); public $components = array('Auth' => array( 'authenticate' => array('Hash'), 'authorize' => array('Controller'), ) ); } I found a similar question here: CakePHP 2.x custom "Authentication adapter &quot;LdapAuthorize&quot; was not found but there the issue was typos.

    Read the article

  • Asp.net Login Status Question: It Aint Working

    - by contactmatt
    I'm starting to use Role Management in my website, and I'm current following along on the tutorial from http://www.asp.net/Learn/Security/tutorial-02-vb.aspx . I'm having a problem with the asp:LoginStatus control. It is not telling me that I am currently logged in after a successful login. This can't be true because after successfully logging in, my LoggedInTemplate is shown. The username and passwords are simply stored in a array. Heres the Login.aspx page code. Protected Sub btnLogin_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles btnLogin.Click ' Three valid username/password pairs: Scott/password, Jisun/password, and Sam/password. Dim users() As String = {"Scott", "Jisun", "Sam"} Dim passwords() As String = {"password", "password", "password"} For i As Integer = 0 To users.Length - 1 Dim validUsername As Boolean = (String.Compare(txtUserName.Text, users(i), True) = 0) Dim validPassword As Boolean = (String.Compare(txtPassword.Text, passwords(i), False) = 0) If validUsername AndAlso validPassword Then FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(txtUserName.Text, chkRemember.Checked) End If Next ' If we reach here, the user's credentials were invalid lblInvalid.Visible = True End Sub Here is the content place holder on the master page specifically designed to hold Login Information. On successfull login, the page is redirected to '/Default.aspx', and the LoggedIn Template below is shown...but the status says Log In. <asp:ContentPlaceHolder Id="LoginContent" runat="server"> <asp:LoginView ID="LoginView1" runat="server"> <LoggedInTemplate> Welcome back, <asp:LoginName ID="LoginName1" runat="server" />. </LoggedInTemplate> <AnonymousTemplate> Hello, stranger. </AnonymousTemplate> </asp:LoginView> <br /> <asp:LoginStatus ID="LoginStatus1" runat="server" LogoutAction="Redirect" LogoutPageUrl="~/Logout.aspx" /> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> Forms authentication is enabled. I'm not sure what to do about this :o.

    Read the article

  • Zend: How to authenticate using OpenId on local server.

    - by NAVEED
    I am using zend framework. Now I want to authenticate users with other already registered accounts using RPX. I am following the 3 steps as described at RPX site: 1- Get the Widget 2- Receive Tokens 3- Choose Providers I created a controller(person) and action(signin) to show widget and my own signin form. When following action (http://test.dev/#person/personsignin) is called then my own login form and widget is shown successfully. # is used in above URL for AJAX indication. public function personsigninAction() { $this->view->jsonEncoded = true; // Person Signin Form $PersonSigninForm = new Form_PersonSignin(); $this->view->PersonSigninForm = $PersonSigninForm; $this->view->PersonSigninForm->setAction( $this->view->url() ); $request = $this->getRequest(); if ( $request->isPost() ) { } } There are two problems while login using openid widget: When I am authenticated from outside(for example: Yahoo) then I am redirected to http://test.dev, therefor indexAction in called in indexController and home page is shown. I want to redirect to http://test.dev/#person/personsignin after authentication and want to set session in isPost() condition of personsigninAction() (described above). For now I consider indexAction to be called when outside authentication is done. Now I posted the code from http://gist.github.com/291396 in indexAction to follow step 3 mentioned above. But it is giving me following error: An error occured: Invalid parameter: apiKey Am I using the right way to use this. This is my very first attempt to this stuff. Can someone tell me the exact steps using my above actions? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • When can a == b be false and a.Equals(b) true?

    - by alastairs
    I ran into this situation today. I have an object which I'm testing for equality; the Create() method returns a subclass implementation of MyObject. MyObject a = MyObject.Create(); MyObject b = MyObject.Create(); a == b; // is false a.Equals(b); // is true Note I have also over-ridden Equals() in the subclass implementation, which does a very basic check to see whether or not the passed-in object is null and is of the subclass's type. If both those conditions are met, the objects are deemed to be equal. The other slightly odd thing is that my unit test suite does some tests similar to Assert.AreEqual(MyObject.Create(), MyObject.Create()); // Green bar and the expected result is observed. Therefore I guess that NUnit uses a.Equals(b) under the covers, rather than a == b as I had assumed. Side note: I program in a mixture of .NET and Java, so I might be mixing up my expectations/assumptions here. I thought, however, that a == b worked more consistently in .NET than it did in Java where you often have to use equals() to test equality.

    Read the article

  • Dynamically inserting an image with JavaScript does not work on images that 302 redirect

    - by Samuel Clay
    I am dynamically inserting an image into an HTML document using jQuery. Here is the code: var image_url = "http://www.kottke.org/plus/misc/images/castro-pitching.jpg"; var $image = $('<img src="'+image_url+'" width="50" height="50" />'); $('body').prepend($image); Notice that the image http://www.kottke.org/plus/misc/images/castro-pitching.jpg is actually a 302 redirect to http://kottkegae.appspot.com/images/castro-pitching.jpg. If you were to go to the original image in your browser, it works fine. If you were to load an HTML page with that image in an img tag, it would load fine. However, if you were to insert it dynamically using jQuery (or JavaScript, for that matter), the browser will not show the 302'ed image. If you show the redirected image, it would work fine. var image_url = "http://kottkegae.appspot.com/images/castro-pitching.jpg"; var $image2 = $('<img src="'+image_url+'" width="50" height="50" />'); $('body').prepend($image2); That's crazy, right? What gives and how can I force the image to load when inserted dynamically?

    Read the article

  • vsts load test datasource issues

    - by ashish.s
    Hello, I have a simple test using vsts load test that is using datasource. The connection string for the source is as follows <connectionStrings> <add name="MyExcelConn" connectionString="Driver={Microsoft Excel Driver (*.xls)};Dsn=Excel Files;dbq=loginusers.xls;defaultdir=.;driverid=790;maxbuffersize=4096;pagetimeout=20;ReadOnly=False" providerName="System.Data.Odbc" /> </connectionStrings> the datasource configuration is as follows and i am getting following error estError TestError 1,000 The unit test adapter failed to connect to the data source or to read the data. For more information on troubleshooting this error, see "Troubleshooting Data-Driven Unit Tests" (http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=62412) in the MSDN Library. Error details: ERROR [42000] [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Cannot update. Database or object is read-only. ERROR [IM006] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Driver's SQLSetConnectAttr failed ERROR [42000] [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Cannot update. Database or object is read-only. I wrote a test, just to check if i could create an odbc connection would work and that works the test is as follows [TestMethod] public void TestExcelFile() { string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["MyExcelConn"].ConnectionString; using (OdbcConnection con = new OdbcConnection(connString)) { con.Open(); System.Data.Odbc.OdbcCommand objCmd = new OdbcCommand("SELECT * FROM [loginusers$]"); objCmd.Connection = con; OdbcDataAdapter adapter = new OdbcDataAdapter(objCmd); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); adapter.Fill(ds); Assert.IsTrue(ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count > 1); } } any ideas ?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78  | Next Page >