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• ASP.NET application - Error when trying to connect to a SQL Server 2008 instance

  - by Pablo Dami

  Hi everyone! Despite that I’m a regular reader of this great forum, this is my first post on it. I believe that this community can help me with the following problem that I have. I’m trying to publish an ASP.NET website over an IIS 6.0 (Windows 2003 Server), and I have some troubles trying to connect to the database. Curiously, I have installed another ASP.NET website into the same IIS 6.0 with the same properties and security parameters and can connect without problems with the same database. The application that works fine is almost the same that the one that can’t connect with SQL Server (actually is the same but with several modifications). I’ll enumarate some information related to the problem: S.O: Windows 2003 Server SQL Server Engine: SQL Server 2008 SQL Server accept remote connections? Yes. ASP.NET version: 2.0.50727 The connections via TCP/IP are enabled to the SQL Server instance? Yes. The corresponding user that I have in the connection string, actually exists into the database with the “owner” role? Yes. ORM Tool used: nHibernate I get the following error when I try to run the aplication into the browser: Error while establishing a connection to the server. When connecting to SQL Server 2005, this failure may occur because the default settings SQL Server does not allow remote connections. (provider: Shared Memory Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) In order to isolate the problem, I made some test. For example, using the web app that works fine I can connect without any problema with the database that uses the web app that can’t. With this evidence I concluded that the problem is within the web app and not into the SQL Server instance. I also google it my problem but sadly I can't find nothing usefull to solve it. If someone can help me I’ll appreciate that. Thank you so much for your time!

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• Destroy process-less console windows left by Visual Studio debug sessions

  - by jon hanson

  A known bug with security update KB978037 can occur with Visual Studio 2003 (and 2008) where sometimes if you restart a debugging session on a console app then the console window doesn't get closed even though the owner process no longer exists. The problem is discussed further here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2402875/visual-studio-debug-console-sometimes-stays-open-and-is-impossible-to-close These zombie windows then can not be closed via the Taskbar or via the TaskManager, and typically require a power off/on to get rid of them. Over the period of even a single day you can accumulate quite a few of them, which clog up your TaskBar and are generally annoying. I thought I would knock up a simple C++ Win32 utility to attempt to call DestroyWindow() on these windows by passing the windows handle as a cmd-line argument and converting it to a HWND. I'm converting the handle from a string by parsing it as a DWORD then casting the DWORD to a HWND. This appears to be working as if I call GetWindowInfo() on the handle it succeeds. However calling DestroyWindow() on the handle fails with error 5 (access denied), presumably because the caller process (i.e. my app) doesn't own the window in question. Any ideas as to how I might get rid of the zombie windows, either via the above approach or any other alternative short of rebooting? I'm in a corporate environment so installing/uninstalling updates/service-packs etc isn't an option.

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• iPhone Adding Controls (UIButton, UILabel etc.) on a Playing Video!

  - by Taimur Hamza

  I have been assigned an 'easy' task of adding a button over a playing video. I m terming it easy as i have got the sample code downloaded from Apple's sample code. http://rapidshare.com/files/393248642/MoviePlayer_iPhone.zip Anybody who wants to reply to my query and intends to help should download this project and run it otherwise it wudnt be easy to understand my problem. Thanks! And now the weird problem i am facing is: In the sample project developer has added the view ( UILabel and UIButton ) in the Appdelegate. And i want it other xib files not the App delegate . Fine i added a view 'myButtonABC' instead of 'My Overlay View'. And added this code in my xib file's implementation file. (void)viewDidLoad { TaimurAppDelegate *appDelegate = (TaimurAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [appDelegate initAndPlayMovie:[self localMovieURL]]; NSArray *windows = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows]; if ([windows count] 1) { UIWindow *moviePlayerWindow = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow]; [moviePlayerWindow addSubview:self.myABC]; } } Now my question is do i need to declare a UIWindow object in the header file here. As i am not working in the app delegate class. As i said previously i have to add this button over a video in other screen and not on the main screen. The third question is can anyone, which in fact is the most imp of all. In my view , if i am able to do this one my problem would be solved. As i have spend considerable amount of time on this task so far. The question is " How can i connect myABCButton (which is a view added to my xib file ) to the File's Owner. Thanks for your patience. Replies Appreciated ! Taimur

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• How to disable other touch gestures after adding another tap gesture to the view?

  - by Hudson Duan

  I have a view with some tables and buttons on it, and then I want to add a tap gesture to the entire view, but I only want that gesture recognizer to recognize taps. Ideally, I want to do something when the added gesture recognizer is tapped, then remove that gesture recognizer after so the other buttons and tables can be accessed. Basically a tap to dismiss functionality that replicates something like the facebook notifications window, tap outside to dismiss, but not interfere with the buttons outside of the notifications view. Can anybody help? My current code is: NotificationsWindow *customView = [[[NSBundle mainBundle]loadNibNamed:@"NotificationsWindow" owner:self options:nil]objectAtIndex:0]; customView.frame= CGRectMake(12, 12, customView.frame.size.width, customView.frame.size.height); UITapGestureRecognizer *recognizerForSubView = [[UITapGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleTapBehindAgain:)]; [recognizerForSubView setNumberOfTapsRequired:1]; recognizerForSubView.cancelsTouchesInView = NO; //So the user can still interact with controls in the modal view [customView addGestureRecognizer:recognizerForSubView]; [self.view addSubview:customView]; UITapGestureRecognizer *recognizerForSuperView = [[UITapGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleTapBehind:)]; [recognizerForSuperView setNumberOfTapsRequired:1]; recognizerForSuperView.cancelsTouchesInView = NO; //So the user can still interact with controls in the modal view [customView.superview addGestureRecognizer:recognizerForSuperView]; (void)handleTapBehind:(UITapGestureRecognizer *)sender { NSLog(@"tapped"); [[self.view.subviews lastObject] removeFromSuperview]; [self.view removeGestureRecognizer:sender]; } I want to make it so that the recognizer for the super view dismisses the subview, but not to interfere with the other taps on the super view.

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• Sharepoint user details not visible to other users

  - by richardoz

  I am managing a SharePoint site that uses Form Based Authentication. We have several generic lists, document libraries and active task lists that users can create update and delete. Users can use the people pickers to select/search for everyone. But the users cannot see other users names, email addresses etc. in display lists or the people pickers. If I log in as the site collection administrator, I can see everyones details. So I know the data is available. Updated details on this problem (non-administrators) SharePoint users cannot see other users information. Example: User A assigns a task to user B. User A creates a new task and uses the people picker to find user B. User B is only visible by the login name “bname” and any information about user B is not visible or searchable within the people picker. Once user B is assigned the task, user A no longer sees the name in the task list – even though user A created it. No modified by, created by, assigned to or owner field data is visible to non-administrator users. Facts: Extranet site is configured to use Forms Based Authentication. Intranet uses windows based authentication Users of both the intranet and extranet have the same problem All databases are local The site uses SSRS integration SharePoint WSS on Windows 2003 Std -- After activating the verbose logging it looks like SharePoint is definately asking SQL server for only the user info for the currently logged in user: SELECT TOP 6 /lots-of-columns/ FROM UserData INNER MERGE JOIN Docs AS t1 ON ( 1 = 1 AND UserData.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND t1.SiteId = UserData.tp_SiteId AND t1.SiteId = @L2 AND t1.DirName = UserData.tp_DirName AND t1.LeafName = UserData.tp_LeafName AND t1.Level = UserData.tp_Level AND t1.IsCurrentVersion = 1 AND (1 = 1) ) LEFT OUTER JOIN AllUserData AS t2 ON ( UserData.[tp_Author]=t2.[tp_ID] AND UserData.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND t2.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND ( (t2.tp_IsCurrent = 1) ) AND t2.[tp_CalculatedVersion] = 0 AND t2.[tp_DeleteTransactionId] = 0x AND t2.tp_ListId = @L3 AND UserData.tp_ListId = @L4 AND t2.[tp_Author]=162 /* this is the currently logged in user */ ) WHERE (UserData.tp_IsCurrent = 1) AND UserData.tp_SiteId=@L2 AND (UserData.tp_DirName=@DN) AND UserData.tp_RowOrdinal=0 AND ( ( (UserData.[datetime1] IS NULL ) OR (UserData.[datetime1] = @L5DTP) ) AND t1.SiteId=@L2 AND (t1.DirName=@DN) ) ORDER BY UserData.[tp_Modified] Desc, UserData.[tp_ID] Asc Again, any ideas would be appreciated.

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• UITableView with Custom Cell only loads one row of data at a time

  - by Anton

  For my table, I've created a custom cell that has two labels. I also have two arrays with data, that I use to respectively assign each label in the cell. My problem, is that when the table is viewed, only the first row has data, and the rest of the data "sorta" loads when I start scrolling down. By "sorta", only the first row will load at a time. The only time I get to see all the data, is when I scroll to the bottom, then scroll up again. I've used the cellForRowAtIndexPath method to load the data into my cell. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CustomCellIdentifier = @"CustomCellIdentifier"; CustomCell *cell = (CustomCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CustomCellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { NSArray *nib = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"CustomCell" owner:self options:nil]; for (id oneObject in nib) if ([oneObject isKindOfClass:[CustomCell class]]) cell = (CustomCell *)oneObject; } NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; //I have two tables to fill up, hence the tag if statement if ([tableView tag] == 0) { cell.arriveTimeLabel.text = [homeBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; cell.departTimeLabel.text = [homeBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; } else if ([tableView tag] == 1) { cell.arriveTimeLabel.text = [workBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; cell.departTimeLabel.text = [workBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; } return cell; } Is it possible that its only getting called when the top cell is being called?

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• accessing a method from a button within a class?

  - by flo

  #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

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• Prevent two users from editing the same data

  - by Industrial

  Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

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• Google Script / Spreadsheet -- Shared permissions with Installed Trigger onEdit

  - by user1761852

  Using an installed trigger inside spreadsheet to call onUpdateBilling(). Purpose of this script is on edit, based on content of column "billed" (i.e. "d") will highlight the entire column the predetermined color. Page running script is shared with collaborators and they have been given edit access. My expectation at this point is the script should be run with owner permissions. My shared users are unable to run the script with the given error "You don't have permission for this action." Reached my limited knowledge and googlefu for this workaround. Any help to allow operation to my collaborators is appreciated. Script: function onUpdateBilling(e) { var statusCol = 16; // replace with the column index of Status column A=1,B=2,etc var sheetName = "Temple Log"; // replace with actual name of sheet containing Status var cell = SpreadsheetApp.getActiveSheet().getActiveCell(); var sheet = cell.getSheet(); if(cell.getColumnIndex() != statusCol || sheet.getName() != sheetName) return; var row = cell.getRowIndex(); var status = cell.getValue(); // change colors to meet your needs var color; if (status == "D" || status == "d") { color = "red";} else if (status >= 1) { color = "yellow";} else if (status == "X" || status == "x") { color = "black";} else if (status == "") { color = "white";} else { color = "white"; } sheet.getRange(row + ":" + row ).setBackgroundColor(color); }

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• Is it possible to order by a composite key with JPA and CriteriaBuilder

  - by Kjir

  I would like to create a query using the JPA CriteriaBuilder and I would like to add an ORDER BY clause. This is my entity: @Entity @Table(name = "brands") public class Brand implements Serializable { public enum OwnModeType { OWNER, LICENCED } @EmbeddedId private IdBrand id; private String code; //bunch of other properties } Embedded class is: @Embeddable public class IdBrand implements Serializable { @ManyToOne private Edition edition; private String name; } And the way I am building my query is like this: CriteriaBuilder cb = em.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<Brand> q = cb.createQuery(Brand.class).distinct(true); Root<Brand> root = q.from(Brand.class); if (f != null) { f.addCriteria(cb, q, root); f.addOrder(cb, q, root, sortCol, ascending); } return em.createQuery(q).getResultList(); And here are the functions called: public void addCriteria(CriteriaBuilder cb, CriteriaQuery<?> q, Root<Brand> r) { } public void addOrder(CriteriaBuilder cb, CriteriaQuery<?> q, Root<Brand> r, String sortCol, boolean ascending) { if (ascending) { q.orderBy(cb.asc(r.get(sortCol))); } else { q.orderBy(cb.desc(r.get(sortCol))); } } If I try to set sortCol to something like "id.edition.number" I get the following error: javax.ejb.EJBException: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to resolve attribute [id.name] against path Any idea how I could accomplish that? I tried searching online, but I couldn't find a hint about this... Also would be great if I could do a similar ORDER BY when I have a @ManyToOne relationship (for instance, "id.edition.number")

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• Why does my .NET 4 application know .NET 4 is not installed

  - by Tergiver

  I developed an application that targeted .NET 4 the other day and XCOPY-installed it to a Windows XP machine. I had told the owner of the machine that they would need to install .NET Framework 4 to run my app and he told me he did (not a reliable source). When I ran the application I was presented with a message box that said this app requires .NET Framework 4, would I like to install it? Clicking the Yes button took me to the Microsoft web site and a few clicks later .NET 4 was installed, and the application successfully launched. Now I normally don't develop applications that target the latest version of .NET, I always target the lowest version I can (what features do I really need?). So this was my first .NET 4 app (and I only targeted 4 because it used a library that did). In the past, XCOPY-installing .NET applications to a machine that didn't have the correct version of .NET installed resulted in the application simply crashing on startup with no useful information presented to the user. Was it built into my app because I targeted .NET X? Was it something already installed on the target machine? I love the feature, I just want to know precisely how to leverage it in the future.

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• FluentNHibernate mapping of composite foreign keys

  - by Faron

  I have an existing database schema and wish to replace the custom data access code with Fluent.NHibernate. The database schema cannot be changed since it already exists in a shipping product. And it is preferable if the domain objects did not change or only changed minimally. I am having trouble mapping one unusual schema construct illustrated with the following table structure: CREATE TABLE [Container] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item] ( [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Container_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) The existing domain model has the following class structure: The Property class contains other members representing the property's name and value. The ContainerProperty and ItemProperty classes have no additional members. They exist only to identify the owner of the Property. The Container and Item classes have methods that return collections of ContainerProperty and ItemProperty respectively. Additionally, the Container class has a method that returns a collection of all of the Property objects in the object graph. My best guess is that this was either a convenience method or a legacy method that was never removed. The business logic mainly works with Item (as the aggregate root) and only works with a Container when adding or removing Items. I have tried several techniques for mapping this but none work so I won't include them here unless someone asks for them. How would you map this?

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• Accessing we.config from Sharepoint web part

  - by philj

  I have a VS 2008 web parts project - in this project is a web.config file: something like this: ……. In my web part I am trying to access values in the appSetting section: I've tried all of the code below and each returns null: string Owner = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff1 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff3 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff4 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff2 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFowner".ToString()]; I've tried this code I found: NameValueCollection sAll; sAll = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings; string a; string b; foreach (string s in sAll.AllKeys) { a = s; b = sAll.Get(s); } and stepped through it in debug mode - that is getting things like : FeedCacheTime FeedPageURL FeedXsl1 ReportViewerMessages which is NOT coming from anything in my web.config file....maybe a config file in sharepoint itself? How do I access a web.config (or any other kind of config file!) local to my web part??? thanks, Phil J

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• How can you make a PHP application require a key to work?

  - by jasondavis

  About 4 years ago I used a php product called amember pro, it is a membership script which has plugins for lie 30 different payment processors, it was an easy way to set up an automated membership site where users would pay a payment and get access to a certain area. The script used ioncube http://www.ioncube.com/sa_encoder.php to prevent non-paying users from using the script, it requered that you register the domain that the script would be used on, you were then given a key to enter into the file that would make the system/script work. Now I am wanting to know how to do such a task, I know ioncube encoder just makes it hard to see the code, in the script I mention, they would just have a small section at the tp of 1 of the included pages that was encrypted and without that part of the code it would break and in addition if the owner of the script did not put you domain in the list and give you a valid key it would not work, also if you tried to use the script on a different domain it would not work. I realize that somewhere in the encrypted code that is must of sent you key to there server and checked that it was valid for the domain name it is on, or possibly it did not even do that, maybe the key would just verify that it matched the domain the script was on, that more likely what it did. Here is where the real question is, How would you make a script require the portion that is encrypted? If I made a script and had a small encrypted part at the top, it would seem a user would be able to easily just remove the encrypted part and figure out what the non encrypted part is doing and fix it to work. Any ideas?

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• Using CSS to insert text

  - by abelenky

  I'm relatively new to CSS, and have used it to change the style and formatting of text. I would now like to use it to insert text as shown below: <span class="OwnerJoe">reconcile all entries</span> Which I hope I could get to show as: Joe's Task: reconcile all entries That is, simply by virtue of being of class "Owner Joe", I want the text Joe's Task: to be displayed. I could do it with code like: <span class="OwnerJoe">Joe's Task:</span> reconcile all entries. But that seems awfully redundant to both specify the class and the text. Is it possible to do what I'm looking for? EDIT One idea is to try to set it up as a ListItem <li> where the "bullet" is the text "Joe's Task". I see examples of how to set various bullet-styles and even images for bullets. Is it possible to use a small block of text for the list-bullet?

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• Drupal advanced ACLs for "untrusted" administrators

  - by redShadow

  I have a multi-site Drupal-6 installation containing websites of different customers. On each site, there is an "administrator" role that includes mainly the customer's account. We want to give as many permissions as possible to this privileged user, but this could bring to security leaks using just the Drupal Core permissions management system. The main thing to avoid is the customer account being able to run PHP code on the server (that would be like being logged on the server as the www-data user.. sounds really bad). To avoid that, it is not sufficient to deny PHP code evaluation for the role. Since the administrator role must have permissions to manage users, he could also change the password of the user #1 and login in the site as superadmin. The second goal would be to deny also some "confusing" administrative pages (such as module selection) but not others (such as site informations configuration, or theme selection, etc.) I found the User One module that seems to fix the first problem, but I have no idea on how to solve the second one. I found some modules around, but no-one seems to fit.. it seems like the most ACLs are thought to protect the content, and not the site itself, as if the site administrator would always be the server owner itself..

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• Drupal WebForm with CCK content types. For anonymous users.

  - by thepearson

  I am probably asking a noob question... however: I have a Drupal site that the customer has a web form where anonymous users can fill in to order some posters (there is 3 to choose from). These are free and at the moment they user just states in the body of a textarea what posters they want. The site owner wants to now add more posters and now wants the ability to have each poster listed in the web form with a field for quantity next to them. When the web for is submitted it will post the node title and quantity to the web form along with the required information. I have researched using UC but it's too much of a eCom solution for such a simple requirement. I also looked at SimpleCart, Flag and Session favorites, all of which aren't really what I need. So I am looking for a simple way to itterate over all the "Poster" content types, and display them on the webform page with a quantity numerical field to be submitted with the web form for each poster. Currently I have: CCK Poster Title Image WebForm OrderPoster Name Email Address Details What I am looking for is a page that does the following: WebForm OrderPosters: Poster 1 [form qty text input for poster 1] Poster 2 [form qty text input for poster 2] Poster 3 [form qty text input for poster 3] ... Poster n [form qty text input for posters n] Name Email Address Details I'd imagine there is a simple way to do this, but I can't seem to find articles of customizing "WebForm" forms. Any help would be much appreciated.

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• Is the m2eclipse mailing list being managed?

  - by sdoca

  Hi, I tried to subscribe to the m2eclipse mailing list by sending an email to [email protected] but it never sent me back any confirmation email. I sent an email to [email protected] asking if the mailing list was still running a couple of weeks ago and haven't received any response back to that either. Then I found another way to subscribe via http://xircles.codehaus.org/lists/info/search. So I did and am now receiving emails sent to the list. However, I can't send the list emails. They get bounced back with a failure notice: Hi. This is the qmail-send program at mail.codehaus.org. I'm afraid I wasn't able to deliver your message to the following addresses. This is a permanent error; I've given up. Sorry it didn't work out. <[email protected]>: Sorry, only subscribers may post. If you are a subscriber, please forward this message to [email protected] to get your new address included. (#5.7.2) I've forwarded this message as instructed twice now (once yesterday and once this morning) without result so far. Does anyone know if this mailing list is being managed? It sucks to be only able to read messages and not to send them. Thanks in advance!

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• Get location of element you just pushed into vector C++

  - by Satchmo Brown

  I am curious about how pushing back into a vector works. I want a way to push back an element and then be able to add it's location in the vector to a double array serving as a type of map. Something like this: // Create a bomb Bomb b; b.currentTime = SDL_GetTicks(); b.explodeTime = SDL_GetTicks() + 3000; b.owner = player; b.power = 2; b.x = x; b.y = y; bombVec.push_back(b); bombs[y][x] = THIS_IS_WHAT_I_WANT; This way when I explode the bomb, I can check the map and then have an ID in the vector to deal with. Every non bomb square will have a -1. Also, just curious. Imagine I have 3 elements in a vector. I delete the second one and then add another. Does the new element go in the same location as the one that was deleted? Thanks!

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• WCF cross-domain policy security error

  - by George2

  Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

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• Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

  - by rafek

  Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

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• VB.NET trying simple captcha

  - by Pride Grimm

  I'm trying to write a simple captcha program in vb.net. I'm just wanting to make an image from random numbers and display it, check the answer, and then proceed. I'm pretty new to vb.net, so I found some code to generate the information. I will cite the owner when I find it again (http://www.knowlegezone.com/80/article/Technology/Software/Asp-Net/Simple-ASP-NET-CAPTCHA-Tutorial) This is in the onload() of default2.aspx Public Sub returnNumer() Dim num1 As New Random Dim num2 As New Random Dim numQ1 As Integer Dim numQ2 As Integer Dim QString As String numQ1 = num1.Next(10, 15) numQ2 = num2.Next(17, 31) QString = numQ1.ToString + " + " + numQ2.ToString + " = " Session("answer") = numQ1 + numQ2 Dim bitmap As New Bitmap(85, 35) Dim Grfx As Graphics = Graphics.FromImage(bitmap) Dim font As New Font("Arial", 18, FontStyle.Bold, GraphicsUnit.Pixel) Dim Rect As New Rectangle(0, 0, 100, 50) Grfx.FillRectangle(Brushes.Brown, Rect) Grfx.DrawRectangle(Pens.PeachPuff, Rect) ' Border Grfx.DrawString(QString, font, Brushes.Azure, 0, 0) Response.ContentType = "Image/jpeg" bitmap.Save(Response.OutputStream, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg) bitmap.Dispose() Grfx.Dispose() End Sub So I put this in a separate page, like this This all works find and dandy, but when I get the answer from the session like this Dim literal As String = Convert.ToString(Session("answer")) It's always one behind. So if The images adds to 32, the answer in session isn't 32. But after a refresh (and a new image) the session("answer") will be 32. Is there a way to refresh the session on page 1, after the default2.aspx loads? Is there a better way to do this? I though about trying to run the code all on one page, and trying to set the src of and image to returnNumber(), but I need a bit of help on that one.

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• Spring MVC 3.0 Rest problem

  - by Gidogeek

  Hi Guys, I'm trying out Spring MVC 3.0 for the first time and like to make it RESTfull. This is my controller: @Controller @RequestMapping(value = "/product") @SessionAttributes("product") public class ProductController { @Autowired private ProductService productService; public void setProductValidator(ProductValidator productValidator, ProductService productService) { this.productService = productService; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product create() { //model.addAttribute(new Product()); return new Product(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Product product, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "product/create"; } productService.add(product); return "redirect:/product/show/" + product.getId(); } @RequestMapping(value = "/show/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product show(@PathVariable int id) { Product product = productService.getProductWithID(id); if (product == null) { //throw new ResourceNotFoundException(id); } return product; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public List<Product> list() { return productService.getProducts(); } } I have 2 questions about this. I'm a believer in Convention over Configuration and therefor my views are in jsp/product/ folder and are called create.jsp , list.jsp and show.jsp this works relatively well until I add the @PathVariable attribute. When I hit root/product/show/1 I get the following error: ../jsp/product/show/1.jsp" not found how do I tell this method to use the show.jsp view ? If I don't add the RequestMapping on class level my show method will be mapped to root/show instead of root/owner/show how do I solve this ? I'd like to avoid using the class level RequestMapping.

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• When to drop an IT job

  - by Nippysaurus

  In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

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• SQLAlchemy & Complex Queries

  - by user356594

  I have to implement ACL for an existing application. So I added the a user, group and groupmembers table to the database. I defined a ManyToMany relationship between user and group via the association table groupmembers. In order to protect some ressources of the app (i..e item) I added a additional association table auth_items which should be used as an association table for the ManyToMany relationship between groups/users and the specific item. item has following columns: user_id -- user table group_id -- group table item_id -- item table at least on of user_id and group_id columns are set. So it's possible to define access for a group or for a user to a specific item. I have used the AssociationProxy to define the relationship between users/groups and items. I now want to display all items which the user has access to and I have a really hard time doing that. Following criteria are used: All items which are owned by the user should be shown (item.owner_id = user.id) All public items should be shown (item.access = public) All items which the user has access to should be shown (auth_item.user_id = user.id) All items which the group of the user has access to should be shown. The first two criteria are quite straightforward, but I have a hard time doing the 3rd one. Here is my approach: clause = and_(item.access == 'public') if user is not None: clause = or_(clause,item.owner == user,item.users.contains(user),item.groups.contains(group for group in user.groups)) The third criteria produces an error. item.groups.contains(group for group in user.groups) I am actually not sure if this is a good approach at all. What is the best approach when filtering manytomany relationships? How I can filter a manytomany relationship based on another list/relationship? Btw I am using the latest sqlalchemy (6.0) and elixir version Thanks for any insights.

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