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  • merge() multiple data frames (do.call ?)

    - by Vincent
    Hi everyone, here's my very simple question: merge() only takes two data frames as input. I need to merge a series of data frames from a list, using the same keys for every merge operation. Given a list named "test", I want to do something like: do.call("merge", test). I could write some kind of loop, but I'm wondering if there's a standard or built-in way to do this more efficiently. Any advice is appreciated. Thanks! Here's a subset of the dataset in dput format (note that merging on country is trivial in this case, but that there are more countries in the original data): test <- list(structure(list(country = c("United States", "United States", "United States", "United States", "United States"), NY.GNS.ICTR.GN.ZS = c(13.5054687, 14.7608697, 14.1115876, 13.3389063, 12.9048351), year = c(2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003)), .Names = c("country", "NY.GNS.ICTR.GN.ZS", "year"), row.names = c(NA, 5L), class = "data.frame"), structure(list( country = c("United States", "United States", "United States", "United States", "United States"), NE.TRD.GNFS.ZS = c(29.3459277, 28.352838, 26.9861939, 25.6231246, 23.6615328), year = c(2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003)), .Names = c("country", "NE.TRD.GNFS.ZS", "year"), row.names = c(NA, 5L), class = "data.frame"), structure(list( country = c("United States", "United States", "United States", "United States", "United States"), NY.GDP.MKTP.CD = c(1.37416e+13, 1.31165e+13, 1.23641e+13, 1.16309e+13, 1.0908e+13), year = c(2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003)), .Names = c("country", "NY.GDP.MKTP.CD", "year"), row.names = c(NA, 5L), class = "data.frame"))

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  • Zend Framework how to echo value of SUM query

    - by Rick de Graaf
    Hello, I created a query for the zend framework, in which I try to retrieve the sum of a column, in this case the column named 'time'. This is the query I use: $this->timequery = $this->db_tasks->fetchAll($this->db_tasks->select()->from('tasks', 'SUM(time)')->where('projectnumber =' . $this->value_project)); $this->view->sumtime = $this->timequery; Echoing the query tells me this is right. But I can't echo the result properly. Currently I'm using: echo $this->sumtime['SUM(time)']; Returning the following error: Catchable fatal error: Object of class Zend_Db_Table_Row could not be converted to string in C:\xampp\htdocs\BManagement\application\views\scripts\tasks\index.phtml on line 46 Line 46 being the line with the echo in my view. I've been searching now for two days on how to figure this out, or achieve the same result in a different way. Tried to serialize the value, but that didn't work either. Is there somebody who knows how to achieve the total sum of a database column? Any help is greatly appriciated! note: Pretty new to zend framework...

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  • php/mongodb: how does references work in php?

    - by harald
    hello, i asked this in the mongodb user-group, but was not satisfied with the answer, so -- maybe someone at stackoverflow can enlighten me: the question was: $b = array('x' => 1); $ref = &$b; $collection->insert($ref); var_dump($ref); $ref does not contain '_id', because it's a reference to $b, the handbook states. (the code snippet is taken from the php mongo documentation) i should add, that: $b = array('x' => 1); $ref = $b; $collection->insert($ref); var_dump($ref); in this case $ref contains the _id -- for those, who do not know, what the insert method of mongodb-php-driver does -- because $ref is passed by reference (note the $b with and without referencing '&'). on the other hand ... function test(&$data) { $data['_id'] = time(); } $b = array('x' => 1); $ref =& $b; test($ref); var_dump($ref); $ref contains _id, when i call a userland function. my question is: how does the references in these cases differ? my question is probably not mongodb specific -- i thought i would know how references in php work, but apparently i do not: the answer in the mongodb user-group was, that this was the way, how references in php work. so ... how do they work -- explained with these two code-snippets? thanks in advance!!!

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  • Asp.Net MVC 2: How exactly does a view model bind back to the model upon post back?

    - by Dr. Zim
    Sorry for the length, but a picture is worth 1000 words: In ASP.NET MVC 2, the input form field "name" attribute must contain exactly the syntax below that you would use to reference the object in C# in order to bind it back to the object upon post back. That said, if you have an object like the following where it contains multiple Orders having multiple OrderLines, the names would look and work well like this (case sensitive): This works: Order[0].id Order[0].orderDate Order[0].Customer.name Order[0].Customer.Address Order[0].OrderLine[0].itemID // first order line Order[0].OrderLine[0].description Order[0].OrderLine[0].qty Order[0].OrderLine[0].price Order[0].OrderLine[1].itemID // second order line, same names Order[0].OrderLine[1].description Order[0].OrderLine[1].qty Order[0].OrderLine[1].price However we want to add order lines and remove order lines at the client browser. Apparently, the indexes must start at zero and contain every consecutive index number to N. The black belt ninja Phil Haack's blog entry here explains how to remove the [0] index, have duplicate names, and let MVC auto-enumerate duplicate names with the [0] notation. However, I have failed to get this to bind back using a nested object: This fails: Order.id // Duplicate names should enumerate at 0 .. N Order.orderDate Order.Customer.name Order.Customer.Address Order.OrderLine.itemID // And likewise for nested properties? Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price Order.OrderLine.itemID Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price I haven't found any advice out there yet that describes how this works for binding back nested ViewModels on post. Any links to existing code examples or strict examples on the exact names necessary to do nested binding with ILists? Steve Sanderson has code that does this sort of thing here, but we cannot seem to get this to bind back to nested objects. Anything not having the [0]..[n] AND being consecutive in numbering simply drops off of the return object. Any ideas?

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  • setAttribute, onClick and cross browser compatability...

    - by Nicholas Kreidberg
    I have read a number of posts about this but none with any solid answer. Here is my code: // button creation onew = document.createElement('input'); onew.setAttribute("type", "button"); onew.setAttribute("value", "hosts"); onew.onclick = function(){fnDisplay_Computers("'" + alines[i] + "'"); }; // ie onew.setAttribute("onclick", "fnDisplay_Computers('" + alines[i] + "')"); // mozilla odiv.appendChild(onew); Now, the setAttribute() method (with the mozilla comment) works fine in mozilla but only if it comes AFTER the line above it. So in other words it seems to just default to whichever gets set last. The .onclick method (with the ie comment) does not work in either case, am I using it incorrectly? Either way I can't find a way to make this work at all in IE, let alone in both. I did change the function call when using the .onclick method and it worked fine using just a simple call to an alert function which is why I believe my syntax is incorrect. Long story short, I can't get the onclick parameter to work consistently between IE/Mozilla. -- Nicholas

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  • Troubles Iterating Over A HashMap with JSF, MyFaces & Facelets

    - by Lee Theobald
    Hi all, I'm having some trouble looping over a HashMap to print out it's values to the screen. Could someone double check my code to see what I'm doing wrong. I can't seem to find anything wrong but there must be something. In a servlet, I am adding the following to the request: Map<String, String> facetValues = new HashMap<String, String>(); // Filling the map req.setAttribute(facetField.getName(), facetValues); In one case "facetField.getName()" evaluates to "discipline". So in my page I have the following: <ui:repeat value="${requestScope.discipline}" var="item"> <li>Item: <c:out value="${item}"/>, Key: <c:out value="${item.key}"/>, Value: <c:out value="${item.item}"/></li> </ui:repeat> The loop is ran once but all the outputs are blank?!? I would have at least expected something in item if it's gone over the loop once. Checking the debug popup for Facelets, discipline is there and on the loop. Printing it to the screen results in something that looks like a map to me (I've shortened the output) : {300=0, 1600=0, 200=0, ... , 2200=0} I've also tried with a c:forEach but I'm getting the same results. So does anyone have any ideas where I'm going wrong? Thanks for any input, Lee

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  • jQuery Autocomplete Json Ajax cross browser issue with Google Search Appliance

    - by skyfoot
    I am implementing a jquery autocomplete on a search form and am getting the suggestions from the Google Search Appliance Autocomple suggestions service which returns a result set in json. What I am trying to do is go off to the GSA to get suggestions when the user types something in the search box. The url to get the json suggestions is as follows: http://gsaurl/suggest?q=<query>&max=10&site=default_site&client=default_frontend&access=p&format=rich The json which is returned is as follows: { "query":"re", "results": [ {"name":"red", "type":"suggest"}, {"name":"read", "type":"suggest"}] } The jQuery autocomplete code is as follows: $(#q).autocomplete(searchUrl, { width: 320, dataType: 'json', highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 300, parse: function(data) { var array = new Array(); for(var i=0;i<data.results.length;i++) { array[i] = { data: data.results[i], value: data.results[i].name, result: data.results[i].name }; } return array; }, formatItem: function(row) { return row.name; } }); This works in IE but fails in firefox as the data returned in the parse function is null. Any ideas why this would be the case? Workaround I created an aspx page to call the GSA suggest service and to return the json from the suggest service. Using this page as a proxy and setting it as the url in the jQuery autocomplete worked in both IE and FireFox.

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  • need some help in Abraham twitteroauth class

    - by diEcho
    Hello All, i m learning how to use twitter from twitter developer link on Authenticating Requests with OAuth page i was debugging my code with given procedure on Sending the user to authorization section there is written that if you are using the callback flow, your oauth_callback should have received back your oauth_token (the same that you sent, your "request token") and a field called the oauth_verifier. You'll need that for the next step. Here's the response I received: oauth_token=8ldIZyxQeVrFZXFOZH5tAwj6vzJYuLQpl0WUEYtWc&oauth_verifier=pDNg57prOHapMbhv25RNf75lVRd6JDsni1AJJIDYoTY my original code is require_once('twitteroauth/twitteroauth.php'); require_once('config.php'); /* Build TwitterOAuth object with client credentials. */ $connection = new TwitterOAuth(CONSUMER_KEY, CONSUMER_SECRET); /* Get temporary credentials. */ $request_token = $connection->getRequestToken(OAUTH_CALLBACK); /* Save temporary credentials to session. */ $_SESSION['oauth_token'] = $token = $request_token['oauth_token']; $_SESSION['oauth_token_secret'] = $request_token['oauth_token_secret']; /* If last connection failed don't display authorization link. */ switch ($connection->http_code) { case 200: /* Build authorize URL and redirect user to Twitter. */ echo "<br/>Authorize URL:".$url = $connection->getAuthorizeURL($token); //header('Location: ' . $url); break; default: /* Show notification if something went wrong. */ echo 'Could not connect to Twitter. Refresh the page or try again later.'; } and i m getting Authorize URL: https://twitter.com/oauth/authenticate?oauth_token=BHqbrTjsPcyvaAsfDwfU149aAcZjtw45nhLBeG1c i m not getting above URL having oauth_verifier. please tell me from where do i see/debug that url??

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  • ruby gem not found although it is installed

    - by Eimantas
    I found some similar problems here on SO, but none seem to match my case (sorry if I overlooked). Here's my problem: I installed oauth-plugin gem to ruby gems dir, but trying to use it in rails app tells me that it's not being found. Here's the output of relevant commands: Instalation % s gem install oauth-plugin Successfully installed oauth-plugin-0.3.14 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for oauth-plugin-0.3.14... Installing RDoc documentation for oauth-plugin-0.3.14... gem which oauth-plugin output: % gem which oauth-plugin /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/oauth-plugin-0.3.14/lib/oauth-plugin.rb gem env output: % gem env RubyGems Environment: - RUBYGEMS VERSION: 1.3.6 - RUBY VERSION: 1.8.7 (2009-12-24 patchlevel 248) [i686-darwin10.2.0] - INSTALLATION DIRECTORY: /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 - RUBY EXECUTABLE: /usr/bin/ruby - EXECUTABLE DIRECTORY: /usr/bin - RUBYGEMS PLATFORMS: - ruby - x86-darwin-10 - GEM PATHS: - /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 - /Users/eimantas/.gem/ruby/1.8 - GEM CONFIGURATION: - :update_sources => true - :verbose => true - :benchmark => false - :backtrace => true - :bulk_threshold => 1000 - :gem => ["--no-ri", "--no-rdoc"] - :sources => ["http://gems.ruby.lt/", "http://rubygems.org/"] - REMOTE SOURCES: - http://gems.ruby.lt/ - http://rubygems.org/ Doing ls -l /usr/lib/ruby shows this: % ls -l /usr/lib/ruby lrwxr-xr-x 1 root wheel 76 Aug 14 2009 /usr/lib/ruby -> ../../System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/Current/usr/lib/ruby And the gem in question is in intended location. This is not a single gem that is not being found by rubygems (although it's located where it should be). Any guidance towards the solution is much appreciated.

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  • Find the flaws in the concept...

    - by Trindaz
    A web based web browser. Sounds silly right? Here's a use case. All comments about what could go wrong, and if anyone has tried and failed at this, very much wanted User goes to www.theBrowser.com and logs in with credentials specific to theBrowser.com. User tells theBrowser what their username and password for various sites are User goes to theBrowser.com/?uri=somesite.com theBrowser sends off the http request with User's log in details, then sends the http response back to User. This lets theBrowser do weird and wonderful functions like change colours / style sheets / etc. to every site that gets passed through it. From a technical stand point, storing username and password and passing them along is not a challenge for one user, but if there were a few, I'd have to use some kind of server based browser software to store a session per user logged in at theBrowser.com. How could I do that? Will I have to start from scratch? Obviously privacy and security are issues. Would theBrowser.com be too great a risk, even if users are fully warned? Cheers, Dave

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  • PostgreSQL: Rolling back a transaction within a plpgsql function?

    - by jamieb
    Coming from the MS SQL world, I tend to make heavy use of stored procedures. I'm currently writing an application uses a lot of PostgreSQL plpgsql functions. What I'd like to do is rollback all INSERTS/UPDATES contained within a particular function if I get an exception at any point within it. I was originally under the impression that each function is wrapped in it's own transaction and that an exception would automatically rollback everything. However, that doesn't seem to be the case. I'm wondering if I ought to be using savepoints in combination with exception handling instead? But I don't really understand the difference between a transaction and a savepoint to know if this is the best approach. Any advice please? CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION do_something( _an_input_var int ) RETURNS bool AS $$ DECLARE _a_variable int; BEGIN INSERT INTO tableA (col1, col2, col3) VALUES (0, 1, 2); INSERT INTO tableB (col1, col2, col3); VALUES (0, 1, 'whoops! not an integer'); -- The exception will cause the function to bomb, but the values -- inserted into "tableA" are not rolled back. RETURN True; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql;

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  • Submit information to url, but also open PDF

    - by Mad Ducky Digital Branding
    I have a client whose desire is to have her Wordpress blog show a MailChimp form on her home page as a gateway to a .pdf. I need the following behavior to occur when the user clicks "Submit": execute the included MailChimp's javascript file; this ensures the form was properly filled, and then performs the sign-up to the newsletter list (don't need help with this part) then show the user an informational PDF for download or viewing EDIT: The logical order was flipped from when I originally posted this. The script should execute, and only if the script gets executed properly should the PDF show to the user Note: My experience level with HTML and PHP is 3/4, and with JS I am 2/4 EDIT: (seems more like 1/4 at this point lol). If my research is correct, PHP (server-side language) would be used to do that which the client wants. Additional validation is not necessary beyond what MailChimp's script provides (it ensures that user has submitted a completed form) is not necessary in this case (the client says it's ok if the e-mail isn't valid at all). EDIT: Reworded this sentence from original post to be more clear The .pdf URL and content is static, and simply needs to be shown, not generated. ----RESEARCH---- I know that the Mailchimp form uses the following line to actually submit the information, but I want to do the action mentioned below, as well as open the aforementioned .pdf: <form action="http://*BLAH*.us2.list-manage.com/subscribe/post?u=*BLAHBLAH*&amp;id=*BLAHBLAHBLAH*" method="post" id="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" name="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" class="validate" target="_blank"> I am reading on other sites that I can conceivably point "action" to a .php file, but if there is a way to do this with javascript - since its using the .js file that I created for that already anyways, then I would be most happy. Barring that, I'll take what I can get.. ----SOLUTION?---- ...

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  • How do I get netcat to accept connections from outside the LAN?

    - by Chris
    I'm using netcat as a backend to shovel data back and forth for a program I'm making. I tested my program on the local network, and once it worked I thought it would be a matter of simply forwarding a port from my router to have my program work over the internet. Alas! This seems not to be the case. If I start netcat listening on port 6666 with: nc -vv -l -p 6666, then go to 127.0.0.1:6666 in a browser, as expected I see a HTTP GET request come through netcat (and my browser sits waiting in vain). If I go to my.external.ip.address:6666, however, nothing comes through at all and the browser displays 'could not connect to my.external.ip.address:6666'. I know that the port is correctly forwarded, as www.canyouseeme.org says port 6666 is open (and when netcat is not listening, that its closed). If I run netcat with -g my.adslmodem's.local.address to set the gateway address, I get the same behavior. Am I using this command line option correctly? Any insight as to what I'm doing wrong?

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  • C# - Alternative to System.Time.Timer, to call a function at a specific time.

    - by Fábio Antunes
    Hello everybody. I want to call a specific function on my C# application at a specific time. At first i thought about using a Timer (System.Time.Timer), but that soon became impossible to use. Why? Simple. The Timer Class requires a Interval in milliseconds, but considering that i might want the function to be executed, lets says in a week that would mean: 7 Days = 168 hours; 168 Hours = 10,080 minutes; 10,080 Minutes = 6,048,000 seconds; 6,048,000 Seconds = 6,048,000,000 milliseconds; So the Interval would be 6,048,000,000; Now lets remember that the Interval accepted data type is int, and as we know int range goes from -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647. That makes Timer useless in this case once we cannot set a Interval bigger that 2,147,483,647 milliseconds. So i need a solution where i could specify when the function should be called. Something like this: solution.ExecuteAt = "30-04-2010 15:10:00"; solution.Function = "functionName"; solution.Start(); So when the System Time would reach "30-04-2010 15:10:00" the function would be executed in the application. How can this problem be solved? Thanks just by taking the time to read my question. But if you could provide me with some help i would be most grateful. Additional Info: What these functions will do? Getting climate information and based on that info: Starting / Shutting down other Applications (most of them Console Based); Sending custom Commands to those Console Applications; Power down, Rebooting, Sleep, Hibernate the computer; And if possible schedule the BIOS to Power Up the Computer;

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  • Sync Vs. Async Sockets Performance in .NET

    - by Michael Covelli
    Everything that I read about sockets in .NET says that the asynchronous pattern gives better performance (especially with the new SocketAsyncEventArgs which saves on the allocation). I think this makes sense if we're talking about a server with many client connections where its not possible to allocate one thread per connection. Then I can see the advantage of using the ThreadPool threads and getting async callbacks on them. But in my app, I'm the client and I just need to listen to one server sending market tick data over one tcp connection. Right now, I create a single thread, set the priority to Highest, and call Socket.Receive() with it. My thread blocks on this call and wakes up once new data arrives. If I were to switch this to an async pattern so that I get a callback when there's new data, I see two issues The threadpool threads will have default priority so it seems they will be strictly worse than my own thread which has Highest priority. I'll still have to send everything through a single thread at some point. Say that I get N callbacks at almost the same time on N different threadpool threads notifying me that there's new data. The N byte arrays that they deliver can't be processed on the threadpool threads because there's no guarantee that they represent N unique market data messages because TCP is stream based. I'll have to lock and put the bytes into an array anyway and signal some other thread that can process what's in the array. So I'm not sure what having N threadpool threads is buying me. Am I thinking about this wrong? Is there a reason to use the Async patter in my specific case of one client connected to one server?

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  • Passing string with (accidental) escape character loses character even though it's a raw string

    - by Steen
    I have a function with a python doctest that fails because one of the test input strings has a backslash that's treated like an escape character even though I've encoded the string as a raw string. My doctest looks like this: >>> infile = [ "Todo: fix me", "/** todo: fix", "* me", "*/", r"""//\todo stuff to fix""", "TODO fix me too", "toDo bug 4663" ] >>> find_todos( infile ) ['fix me', 'fix', 'stuff to fix', 'fix me too', 'bug 4663'] And the function, which is intended to extract the todo texts from a single line following some variation over a todo specification, looks like this: todos = list() for line in infile: print line if todo_match_obj.search( line ): todos.append( todo_match_obj.search( line ).group( 'todo' ) ) And the regular expression called todo_match_obj is: r"""(?:/{0,2}\**\s?todo):?\s*(?P<todo>.+)""" A quick conversation with my ipython shell gives me: In [35]: print "//\todo" // odo In [36]: print r"""//\todo""" //\todo And, just in case the doctest implementation uses stdout (I haven't checked, sorry): In [37]: sys.stdout.write( r"""//\todo""" ) //\todo My regex-foo is not high by any standards, and I realize that I could be missing something here. EDIT: Following Alex Martellis answer, I would like suggestions on what regular expression would actually match the blasted r"""//\todo fix me""". I know that I did not originally ask for someone to do my homework, and I will accept Alex's answer as it really did answer my question (or confirm my fears). But I promise to upvote any good solutions to my problem here :) I'm using Python 2.6.4 (r264:75706, Dec 7 2009, 18:45:15) Thank you for reading this far (If you skipped directly down here, I understand)

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  • ASP.Net MVC Json Result: Parameters passed to controller method issue

    - by Moskie
    I'm having a problem getting a controller method that returns a JsonResult to accept parameters passed via the JQuery getJSON method. The code I’m working on works fine when the second parameter ("data") of the getJSON method call is null. But when I attempt to pass in a value there, it seems as if the controller method never even gets called. In this example case, I just want to use an integer. The getJSON call that works fine looks like this: $.getJSON(”/News/ListNewsJson/”, null, ListNews_OnReturn); The controller method is like this: public JsonResult ListNewsJson(int? id) { … return Json(toReturn); } By putting a breakpoint in the ListNewsJson method, I see that this method gets called when the data parameter of getJSON is null, but when I replace it with value, such as, say, 3: $.getJSON(”/News/ListNewsJson/”, 3, ListNews_OnReturn); … the controller method/breakpoint is never hit. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? I should also mention that the controller method works fine if I manually go to the address via my browser ("/News/ListNewsJson/3").

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  • UIWebViewDelegate returns different error message on iPod Touch 2G and 3G

    - by lostInTransit
    Hi I have an app developed using SDK 3.0. My view has a UIWebView whose delegate is the viewcontroller. I want to show an error message when the webview does not load (in case the touch goes out of wifi range or wifi is turned off) I override this method to show an alert - (void)webView:(UIWebView *)wbView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error But this caused an issue when some links were clicked on the webview. The page loaded but if some images from the previous page were not loaded, the method call was triggered. Testing on an iPod Touch 3G, the NSError's userInfo has the localized description as no Internet connection if load fails due to no internet connection. But this only seems to be true for an iPod Touch 3G. 2G shows a different message (I got to know from some beta testers. They aren't very technical so can't tell them to get me the logs or anything.) Can anyone with an iPod Touch 2G tell me the values for the NSError userInfo? Or better still, did anyone else face this issue? How did you resolve it? Thanks.

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  • ai: Determining what tests to run to get most useful data

    - by Sai Emrys
    This is for http://cssfingerprint.com I have a system (see about page on site for details) where: I need to output a ranked list, with confidences, of categories that match a particular feature vector the binary feature vectors are a list of site IDs & whether this session detected a hit feature vectors are, for a given categorization, somewhat noisy (sites will decay out of history, and people will visit sites they don't normally visit) categories are a large, non-closed set (user IDs) my total feature space is approximately 50 million items (URLs) for any given test, I can only query approx. 0.2% of that space I can only make the decision of what to query, based on results so far, ~10-30 times, and must do so in <~100ms (though I can take much longer to do post-processing, relevant aggregation, etc) getting the AI's probability ranking of categories based on results so far is mildly expensive; ideally the decision will depend mostly on a few cheap sql queries I have training data that can say authoritatively that any two feature vectors are the same category but not that they are different (people sometimes forget their codes and use new ones, thereby making a new user id) I need an algorithm to determine what features (sites) are most likely to have a high ROI to query (i.e. to better discriminate between plausible-so-far categories [users], and to increase certainty that it's any given one). This needs to take into balance exploitation (test based on prior test data) and exploration (test stuff that's not been tested enough to find out how it performs). There's another question that deals with a priori ranking; this one is specifically about a posteriori ranking based on results gathered so far. Right now, I have little enough data that I can just always test everything that anyone else has ever gotten a hit for, but eventually that won't be the case, at which point this problem will need to be solved. I imagine that this is a fairly standard problem in AI - having a cheap heuristic for what expensive queries to make - but it wasn't covered in my AI class, so I don't actually know whether there's a standard answer. So, relevant reading that's not too math-heavy would be helpful, as well as suggestions for particular algorithms. What's a good way to approach this problem?

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  • Fluent NHibernate Automap does not take into account IList<T> collections as indexed

    - by Francisco Lozano
    I am using automap to map a domain model (simplified version): public class AppUser : Entity { [Required] public virtual string NickName { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Password)] public virtual string PassKey { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.EmailAddress)] public virtual string EmailAddress { get; set; } public virtual IList<PreferencesDescription> PreferencesDescriptions { get; set; } } public class PreferencesDescription : Entity { public virtual AppUser AppUser { get; set; } public virtual string Content{ get; set; } } The PreferencesDescriptions collection is mapped as an IList, so is an indexed collection (when I require standard unindexed collections I use ICollection). The fact is that fluent nhibernate's automap facilities map my domain model as an unindexed collection (so there's no "position" property in the DDL generated by SchemaExport). ¿How can I make it without having to override this very case - I mean, how can I make Fluent nhibernate's automap make always indexed collections for IList but not for ICollection

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  • Which combining css technique?

    - by DotnetShadow
    Hi there, Which of the following would you say is the best way to go when combining files for CSS: Say I have a master.css file that is used across all pages on my website (page1.aspx, page2.aspx) Page1.aspx - A specific page that has some unique css that is only ever used on that page, so I create a page1.css and it also uses another css grids.css Page2.aspx - Another specific page that is different from all other pages on the site and is different to page1.aspx, I'll name this page2.aspx and make a page2.css this doesn't use grids.css So would you combine the scripts as: Option1: Combine scripts csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page1.css,grids.css when visiting page1 Combine scripts csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page2.css when visiting page2 Benefits: Page specific, rendering quicker since only selectors for that page need to be matched up no unused selectors Drawback: Multiple combinations of master.css + page specific hence master.css has to be downloaded for each page Option2: Combine all scripts whether a page needs them or not csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page1.css,page2.css,grids.css (master, page1 and page2) that way it gets cached as one. The problem is that rendering maybe slower since it will have to try and match EVERY selector in the css with selectors on the page even the missing ones, so in the case of page2.aspx that doesn't use grids.css the selectors in grids.css will need to be parsed to see if they are in page2 which means rendering will be slow Benefits: One file will ever be downloaded and cached doesn't matter what page you visit Drawback: Unused selectors will need to be parsed by the browser slower rendering Option3: Leave the master file on it's own and only combine other scripts (the benefit of this is because master is used across all pages there is a chance that this is cached so doesn't need to keep on downloading csshandler.axd?d=Master.css csshandler.axd?d=page1.css,grids.css Benefits: master.css file can be cached doesn't matter what page you visit. Not many unused selectors as page spefic is applied Drawback: Initially minimum of 2 HTTP request will have to be made What do you guys think? Cheers DotnetShadow

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  • Problems with jQuery load and getJSON only when using Chrome

    - by leftend
    I'm having an issue with two jQuery calls. The first is a "load" that retrieves HTML and displays it on the page (it does include some Javascript and CSS in the code that is returned). The second is a "getJSON" that returns JSON - the JSON returned is valid. Everything works fine in every other browser I've tried - except Chrome for either Windows or Mac. The page in question is here: http://urbanistguide.com/category/Contemporary.aspx When you click on a Restaurant name in IE/FF, you should see that item expand with more info - and a map displayed to the right. However, if you do this in Chrome all you get is the JSON data printed to the screen. The first problem spot is when the "load" function is called here: var fulllisting = top.find(".listingfull"); fulllisting.load(href2, function() { fulllisting.append("<div style=\"width:99%;margin-top:10px;text-align:right;\"><a href=\"#\" class=\"" + obj.attr("id") + "\">X</a>"); itemId = fulllisting.find("a.listinglink").attr("id"); ... In the above code, the callback function doesn't seem to get invoked. The second problem spot is when the "getJSON" function is called: $.getJSON(href, function(data) { if (data.error.length > 0) { //display error message } else { ... } In this case - it just seems to follow the link instead of performing the callback... and yes, I am doing a "return false;" at the end of all of this to prevent the link from executing. All of the rest of the code is inline on that page if you want to view the source code. Any ideas?? Thanks

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  • Which Perl modules can be installed just by copying lib files?

    - by elliot100
    I'm an absolute beginner at Perl, and am trying to use some non-core modules on my shared Linux web host. I have no command line access, only FTP. Host admins will consider installing modules on request, but the ones I want to use are updated frequently (DateTime::TimeZone for example), and I'd prefer to have control over exactly which version I'm using. By experimentation, I've found some modules can be installed by copying files from the module's lib directory to a directory on the host, and using use lib "local_path"; in my script, i.e. no compiling is required to install (DateTime and DateTime::TimeZone again). How can I tell whether this is the case for a particular module? I realise I'll have to resolve dependencies myself. Additionally: if I wanted to be able to install any module, including those which require compiling, what would I be looking for in terms of hosting? I'm guessing at the moment I share a VM with several others and the minimum provision I'd need would be a dedicated VM with shell access?

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  • Different versions of JBoss on the same host

    - by Vladimir Bezugliy
    I have JBoss 4 installed on my PC to directory C:\JBoss4 And environment variable JBOSS_HOME set to this directory: JBOSS_HOME=C:\JBoss4 I need to install JBoss 5.1 on the same PC. I installed it into C:\JBoss51 In order to start JBoss 5.1 on the same host where JBoss 4 was already started, I need to redefine properties jboss.home.dir, jboss.home.url, jboss.service.binding.set: C:\JBoss51\bin\run.sh -Djboss.home.dir=C:/JBoss51 \ -Djboss.home.url=file:/C:/JBoss51 \ -Djboss.service.binding.set=ports-01 But in C:\JBoss51\bin\run.sh I can see following code: … if [ "x$JBOSS_HOME" = "x" ]; then # get the full path (without any relative bits) JBOSS_HOME=`cd $DIRNAME/..; pwd` fi export JBOSS_HOME … runjar="$JBOSS_HOME/bin/run.jar" JBOSS_BOOT_CLASSPATH="$runjar" And this code does not depend either on jboss.home.dir or on jboss.home.dir. So when I start JBoss 5.1 script will use jar files from JBoss 4.3? Is it correct? Should I redefine environment variable JAVA_HOME when I start JBoss 5.1? In this case script will use correct jar files. Or if I redefined properties jboss.home.dir, jboss.home.url then JBoss will not use any variables set in run.sh? How does it works?

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  • Interface Casting vs. Class Casting

    - by Legatou
    I've been led to believe that casting can, in certain circumstances, become a measurable hindrance on performance. This may be moreso the case when we start dealing with incoherent webs of nasty exception throwing\catching. Given that I wish to create more correct heuristics when it comes to programming, I've been prompted to ask this question to the .NET gurus out there: Is interface casting faster than class casting? To give a code example, let's say this exists: public interface IEntity { IParent DaddyMommy { get; } } public interface IParent : IEntity { } public class Parent : Entity, IParent { } public class Entity : IEntity { public IParent DaddyMommy { get; protected set; } public IParent AdamEve_Interfaces { get { IEntity e = this; while (this.DaddyMommy != null) e = e.DaddyMommy as IEntity; return e as IParent; } } public Parent AdamEve_Classes { get { Entity e = this; while (this.DaddyMommy != null) e = e.DaddyMommy as Entity; return e as Parent; } } } So, is AdamEve_Interfaces faster than AdamEve_Classes? If so, by how much? And, if you know the answer, why?

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