Search Results

Search found 35561 results on 1423 pages for 'value'.

Page 716/1423 | < Previous Page | 712 713 714 715 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723  | Next Page >

  • f:ajax not working on tomcat7/eclipse

    - by mntgoat
    I have this very simple code which works fine until I add a f:ajax tag. Code that works: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> </h:commandButton> Code that doesn't work: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> <f:ajax event="click" /> </h:commandButton> As far as I can tell the jsf.js file is loaded fine, this is automatically added by the facelet servlet to the head of my rendered document <script type="text/javascript" src="/www/javax.faces.resource/jsf.js.xhtml?ln=javax.faces"></script> and I was even able to do a jsf.ajax.request directly from javascript and got the page to rerender something. I am using mojarra 2.1.13, tomcat 7, eclipse juno, java 7. Any thoughts on what I might be doing wrong or how I might be able to troubleshoot this issue? debugging it in javascript didn't help at all. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What is the worst gotcha in WPF?

    - by David
    Hi, I've started to make myself a list of "WPF gotchas": things that bug me and that I had to write down to remember because I fall for them every time.... Now, I'm pretty sure you all stumbled upon similar situations at one point, and I would like you to share your experience on the subject: What is the gotcha that gets you all the time? the one you find the most annoying? (I have a few issues that seem to be without explanation, maybe your submissions will explain them) Here are a few of my "personnal" gotchas (randomly presented): For a MouseEvent to be fired even when the click is on the "transparent" background of a control (e.g. a label) and not just on the content (the Text in this case), the control's Background has to be set to "Brushes.Transparent" and not just "null" (default value for a label) A WPF DataGridCell's DataContext is the RowView to whom the cell belong, not the CellView When inside a ScrollViewer, a Scrollbar is managed by the scrollviewer itself (i.e. setting properties such as ScrollBar.Value is without effect) Key.F10 is not fired when you press "F10", instead you get Key.System and you have to go look for e.SystemKey to get the Key.F10 ... and now you're on.

    Read the article

  • What makes my code DDD (domain-driven design) qualified?

    - by oykuo
    Hi All, I'm new to DDD and am thinking about using this design technique in my project. However, what strikes me about DDD is that how basic the idea is. Unlike other design techniques such as MVC and TDD, it doesn't seems to contain any ground breaking ideas. For example, I'm sure some of you will have the same feeling that the idea of root aggregates and repositories are nothing new because when you are was writing MVC web applications you have to have one single master object (i.e. the root aggregate) that contain other minor objects (i.e. value objects and entities) in the model layer in order to send data to a strongly typed view. To me, the only new idea in DDD is probably the "Smart" entities (i.e. you are supposed to have business rules on root aggregates) Separation between value object, root aggregate and entities. Can anyone tell me if I have missed out anything here? If that's all there is to DDD, if I update one of my existing MVC application with the above 2 new ideas, can I claim it's an TDD, MVC and DDD applcation?

    Read the article

  • help to reiterate through my jquery snippet

    - by s2xi
    Code in question: $("#alpha").click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); $("#show").slideToggle(); }); I have a list of files and its being outputted with PHP in alphabetical. I use this method in PHP: foreach(range('A','Z') as $i) { if (array_key_exists ("$i", $alpha)) { echo '<div id="alpha"><a href="#" name="'.$i.'"><h2>'.$i.'</h2></a></div><div id="show">'; foreach ($$i as $key=>$value) echo '<p>'.$value.' '.$key.'</p>'; } echo '</div>'; } What I want to do is when the user clicks on the #alpha to toggle the div #show that has the names that belong to a letter up. I can do this with the first listing, but every listing after that isn't affected. how can i tell jquery that foreach letter apply the js code so it can toggle up/down the #show. I don't want to this 26 times (one time for each letter in the alphabet), I tried to use class instead of id but that causes all the #show to toggleup heh.

    Read the article

  • LINQ To SQL Dynamic Select

    - by mcass20
    Can someone show me how to indicate which columns I would like returned at run-time from a LINQ To SQL statement? I am allowing the user to select items in a checkboxlist representing the columns they would like displayed in a gridview that is bound to the results of a L2S query. I am able to dynamically generate the WHERE clause but am unable to do the same with the SELECT piece. Here is a sample: var query = from log in context.Logs select log; query = query.Where(Log => Log.Timestamp > CustomReport.ReportDateStart); query = query.Where(Log => Log.Timestamp < CustomReport.ReportDateEnd); query = query.Where(Log => Log.ProcessName == CustomReport.ProcessName); foreach (Pair filter in CustomReport.ExtColsToFilter) { sExtFilters = "<key>" + filter.First + "</key><value>" + filter.Second + "</value>"; query = query.Where(Log => Log.FormattedMessage.Contains(sExtFilters)); }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Custom Control - Template Allowing Literal Content

    - by Bob Fincheimer
    I want my User Control to be able to have Literal Content inside of it. For Example: <fc:Text runat="server">Please enter your login information:</fc:Text> Currently the code for my user control is: <ParseChildren(True, "Content")> _ Partial Public Class ctrFormText Inherits FormControl Private _content As ArrayList <PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty), _ DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), _ TemplateInstance(TemplateInstance.Single)> _ Public Property Content() As ArrayList Get If _content Is Nothing Then Return New ArrayList End If Return _content End Get Set(ByVal value As ArrayList) _content = value End Set End Property Protected Overrides Sub CreateChildControls() If _content IsNot Nothing Then ctrChildren.Controls.Clear() For Each i As Control In _content ctrChildren.Controls.Add(i) Next End If MyBase.CreateChildControls() End Sub End Class And when I put text inside this control (like above) i get this error: Parser Error Message: Literal content ('Please enter your login information to access CKMS:') is not allowed within a 'System.Collections.ArrayList'. This control could have other content than just the text, so making the Content property an attribute will not solve my problem. I found in some places that I need to implement a ControlBuilder Class, along with another class that implements IParserAccessor. Anyway I just want my default "Content" property to have all types of controls allowed in it, both literal and actual controls.

    Read the article

  • How to trigger the specific controller action using a button?

    - by Eugene
    I'm creating a simple training project. I've implemented a controller method, which deletes an item from the list. The method is looking like this: @Controller @RequestMapping(value = "/topic") public class TopicController { @Autowired private TopicService service; ... @RequestMapping(value = "/deleteComment/{commentId}", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String deleteComment(@PathVariable int commentId, BindingResult result, Model model){ Comment deletedComment = commentService.findCommentByID(commentId); if (deletedComment != null) { commentService.deleteComment(deletedComment); } return "refresh:"; } } This method is called from the button-tag, which is looking in the following way: _form> _button formaction = "../deleteComment/1" formmethod = "post">delete_/button> _/form> Sorry, but in the form tag I've changed all the '<' characters with the '_', because the tag was invisible. In my project the form-tag is looking like a cliuckable button. But there is a serious problem: controller's method is never triggered. How can I trigger it, using a button-tag? P.S. the call is performed from the page with URI http://localhost:8080/simpleblog/topic/details/2 and controller's URI is the http://localhost:8080/simpleblog/topic/deleteComment/2

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to access the SMIL timer from javascript?

    - by Will
    I'm trying to use SMIL to animate the typing of text into a field embedded in a SVG. I tried the following code in both Chrome and a SMIL-enable Firefox nightly, but it has no effect: <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <foreignObject> <html:input type="text" value=""> <set attributeName="value" to="Hello World" begin="0" dur="10s" fill="freeze" /> </html:input> </foreignObject> </svg> The text field appears, but remains empty. So, I thought I would register for the beginEvent and do the substitution manually. To test the events, I added: <rect id="rect" x="0" y="0" width="10" height="10"> <animate id="dx" attributeName="x" attributeType="XML" begin="0s" dur="1s" fill="freeze" from="0" to="-10" /> </rect> As well as the javascript that made sense from the event model: window.addEventListener( 'load', function() { function listen( id ) { var elem = document.getElementById( id ) elem.addEventListener( 'beginEvent', function() { console.log( 'begin ' + id ) }, false ) elem.addEventListener( 'endEvent', function() { console.log( 'end ' + id ) }, false ) } listen( 'rect' ) listen( 'dx' ) }) But there's no events fired on either the rect or the animate in either browser. The next logical step seems to be to simulate the animation (ala. FakeSmile), but I want to use the browser's animation timer if at all possible.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to pass Calendar new date in the bean without listener?

    - by isabsent
    I am trying to pass new date from PrimeFaces p:calendar (placed in p:dataTable column) to the backing bean: <p:column > <p:calendar value="#{bean.date}">` <p:ajax /> </p:calendar> </p:column> It does not update bean.date. Variants with <p:ajax update="@this" event="change"/> <p:ajax update="@this" event="select"/> do not update bean.date too. The only way I have found is using of listener. However, I suppose, there should be a way without listener implementation like for simple facelets: <p:column> <h:inputText value="#{bean.note}" > <f:ajax/> </h:inputText> </p:column> that works fine for me. Does anybody know how to get it working!?

    Read the article

  • What type of objects can be sent back to an action Method using HTML.HIDDEN()

    - by Richard77
    Hello, 1)Let's say I've this form: <%Using(Html.BeginForm()){%> <% = Html.Hidden("myObject", (cast to the appropriate type)ViewData["KeyForMyObject"]%> <input type = "submit" "Submit Object"> <%}%> 2) Here's the Action which's supposed to intercept the value of the object public ActionResult MyAction(Type myObject) { //Do Something with the object } Here's my question: What type of objects the Hidden field can support? In fact, when ViewData["KeyForMyObject"] contains a string, int, or bool, myAction is able to retrieve the value. But, when it comes to objects, such as List, and dictionary, nothing happens. When I debug to check the local values, I see null for Type myObject in the MyMethod. So what are the rules in MVC when it comes to a List or Dictionary? ================================= EDIT To make things simpler, can I write something like this <% = Html.Hidden("contactDic", (Dictionary<string, string>) ViewData["contacts"])%> and expect to retrieve the dictionary in the action Method like this public ActionResult myMethod(Dictionary<string, string> contactDic) { //Do something with the dictionary } Thanks for Helping

    Read the article

  • Make a PHP GET request from a PHP script and exit

    - by Abs
    Hello all, Is there something simpler than the following. I am trying to make a GET request to a PHP script and then exit the current script. I think this is a job for CURL but is there something simpler as I don't want to really worry about enabling the CURL php extension? In addition, will the below start the PHP script and then just come back and not wait for it to finish? //set GET variables $url = 'http://domain.com/get-post.php'; $fields = array( 'lname'=>urlencode($last_name), 'fname'=>urlencode($first_name) ); //url-ify the data for the GET foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value.'&'; } rtrim($fields_string,'&'); //open connection $ch = curl_init(); //set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_GET,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_GETFIELDS,$fields_string); //execute GET $result = curl_exec($ch); //close connection curl_close($ch); I want to run the other script which contains functions when a condition is met so a simple include won't work as the if condition wraps around the functions, right? Please note, I am on windows machine and the code I am writing will only be used on a Windows OS. Thanks all for any help and advice

    Read the article

  • Validating a phone number in Android PreferenceScreen

    - by djechelon
    I have a PreferenceScreen in which the user is capable, if system can't autodetect it, to enter the device's phone number. I'm still learning this part of Android but I managed to understand a bit of PreferenceScreens by examples provided by Android SDK itself and a few tutorials. What I want is that the user can save the phone number only if null or valid, where by "valid" I mean running a generic validation logic (ie. an anonymous method that returns true or false, that can be reused in any possible situation*) or better, just to simplify things, ^(\+39)?3[0-9]{9}$ For now I have the following XML snip <EditTextPreference android:inputType="phone" android:key="@string/preference_phoneNo" android:selectAllOnFocus="true" android:singleLine="true" android:summary="@string/pref_phoneNumber_description" android:title="@string/pref_phoneNumber" /> and following code by courtesy of Eclipse New Activity wizard: private void setupSimplePreferencesScreen() { if (!isSimplePreferences(this)) { return; } addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.pref_general); bindPreferenceSummaryToValue(findPreference(getString(R.string.preference_phoneNo))); } addPreferenceFromResource is supposed to load the XML node and add the preference to the screen, while binPreferenceSummaryToValue is supposed to make description text change when preference is updated. Just for sake of completeness for those who don't like code courtesy of the IDE, the second method is provided by Eclipse who also provides a private class in the code file that is /** * A preference value change listener that updates the preference's summary * to reflect its new value. */ In the general case, what should I do to perform validation logic before the preference gets saved when I click OK on the preference editor? Where is the validation logic to be put in a PreferenceScreen? *Aren't we all here to learn?

    Read the article

  • how to call array values based on the main id they linked to?

    - by veronica george
    In page one, $add_id2=implode(',',$add_id); //result is 1,4 $item_type2=implode(',',$item_type_2); //result is 8,16 $final_total2=implode(',',$final); //result is 150,430 I pass these values via URL to the page two and store them in session. $_SESSION['cart'][$car]= array ('car'=>$car, 'loc_1'=>$location, array ( 'addon_id'=>$a_id, 'item_type'=>$item_type2, 'final_total'=>$final_t ) ); I call them like this, foreach($_SESSION['cart'] as $cart=>$things) { //display main array value like car id and location id echo $cart; foreach($things as $thing_1=>$thing_2) { foreach($thing_2['addon_id'] as $thi_2=>$thi_4) { //to display addons item for the car id //this is the id for each addon under the above car //echo $thi_2; //this is to echo addon id $thi_4; } } } The above loop works . the addon items array loops through inside main array which is car. If there were two addon items chosen then the addon array will loop twice. Now al I need to do is, How to make $item_type2 and $final_total2 display the value according to the addon id? PS: Same addon items can be chosen multiple times. They are identified uniquely by id(//echo $thi_2;). Thanks.

    Read the article

  • copy rows with special condition

    - by pooria_googooli
    I have a table with a lot of columns. For example I have a table with these columns : ID,Fname,Lname,Tel,Mob,Email,Job,Code,Company,...... ID column is auto number column. I want to copy all rows in this table to this table and change the company column value to 12 in this copied row. I don't want to write name all of the columns because I have a lot of table with a lot of columns. I tried this code but I had this error : declare @c int; declare @i int; select * into CmDet from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end error : Msg 2714, Level 16, State 6, Line 3 There is already an object named 'CmDet' in the database. I changed the code to this declare @c int declare @i int insert into CmDet select * from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end and I had this error : Msg 8101, Level 16, State 1, Line 3 An explicit value for the identity column in table 'CmDet' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON. What should I do ?

    Read the article

  • How can I order my entries by sum from a separate table?

    - by bgadoci
    I am wondering how I can order posts in my PostController#index to display by a column total in a separate table. Here is how I have it set up. class Post < ActiveRecord::Base :has_many :votes end and Class Vote < ActiveRecord::Base :belongs_to :post end I user can either vote up or down a particular post. I know there are likely better ways to do what I am currently doing but looking for a fix given my current situation. When a user votes up a post, a value of 1 is passed to the Vote Table via a hidden field. When a user votes down a post a value of -1 is passed to the same column (names vote). I am wondering how I can display my posts in order of the sum of the vote column (in the vote table) for a particular post. Another way to say that is, if a particular post has a net vote sum of 5, I want that to appear above a post with a net vote sum of 4. I am assuming that I need to affect the PostController#index action in some fashion. But not sure how to do that.

    Read the article

  • How to select a single object using Linq in vb.net

    - by Hucker
    I have done a lot of searching to what appears to be a simple LINQ problem but I can't figure out how to do grab an object out of a collection that has a specified minimum (or max value) without resorting to a sort like this: > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Order By c.age Ascending).ToList.First This (untested code) structure works fine with the exception that the entire customer array must be sorted and placed into a list for the only purpose of extracting the first value. That can't be the best way to get the minimum! Note that I want the whole c record in this case, not the minumum age of a customer that can be done like this (a typical example): > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c.age).Min Or even > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c).Min(Function(x) x.age) I can't for the life of me figure out how to get the whole object (or even the index) without resorting to the sort...

    Read the article

  • Trouble with jQuery Form Validation

    - by Sennheiser
    I'm making a form that has the following validation rules: no fields are "required", but if you enter an email, it must be valid, and if you enter a password, it must be at least 6 characters and match the confirm password field value. The form works flawlessly with no validation so I know it's not a PHP or HTML problem. Here's the jQuery code handling the form: $('#success').hide(); $('#pwerror').hide(); $('#emailError').hide(); $('#subSet').live('click',function() { //if any of the fields have a value if($("#chfn").val() != "" || $("#chln").val() != "" || $("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "" || $("#chem").val() != "") { $ev = 1; $pv = 1; //validates an email if there is one, trips the valid variable flag if($("#chem").val() != "") { $("#profSet").validate({ rules: { chem: { email: true }, chpw: { required: false, minlength: 6 }, chpw2: { required: false, minlength: 6, equalTo: $("#chpw").val() } }, messages:{ chpw2: { equalTo: "Passwords must be the same." }, chpw: { minlength: "Password must be at least 6 characters." } } }); if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $ev = 0; } } //if either password field is filled, start trying to validate it if($("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "") { if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $pv = 0; } } //if those two were valid if($pv == 1 && $ev == 1) { $.post('php/profSet.php', $('#profSet').serialize(), function(){ $('#profSet').hide(); $('#success').show(); }); } //if either was invalid, the error was already tripped, and this code exits here } }); The problem I'm having now is that the "passwords must be the same" error keeps getting triggered even if both fields are blank, or if they actually are the same. Therefore, the form cannot submit. Any help?

    Read the article

  • Script (AJAX or JS) does not work properly in IE8

    - by Uno Mein Ame
    I have a js/ajax script at http://worldcitiesdatabase.info/test1/ I just received a complaint that it does not work properly in IE8. Onchange seems to work, but then the next menu is not populated. Can you please help me figure it out? Thanks Not sure what the problematic part of the code is. Here is my guess: if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } newList=""; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { newList = xmlhttp.responseText; m1.innerHTML=newList; m1.disabled=false; } if (menuname=="showCountry") { var c1=document.getElementById('showRegion'); if (c1.options.length==2) { if (c1.options[0].value=='NONE') { c1.remove(0); c1.value='0'; reloadmenu(c1); } } } } xmlhttp.open("GET",newFile+".php?q="+menuvalue,true); xmlhttp.send();

    Read the article

  • If either one of both equals

    - by user1620028
    I have start and end dates which are stored in a database in this format: start date= 20121004 //4th October 2012 end date= 20121004 //16th November 2012 so I can use date format: $date = date("Ymd"); // returns: 20121004 to determine when to display and not display to repopulate my update input boxes I use: $start=(str_split($stdate,4));// START DATE: splits stored date into 2x4 ie: 20121209 = 2012 1209 $syr = $start[0];// re first half ie: 2012 which is the year $start2 = $start[1];//re second half ie: 1209 $start3=(str_split($start2,2));// splits second half date into 2x2 ie: 1209 = 12 09 $smth = $start3[0]; // first half = month ie: 12 $sday = $start3[1]; // second half = day ie: 09 $expiry=(str_split($exdate,4)); ///SAME AGAIN FOR EXPIRY DATE ... $xyr = $expiry[0]; $expiry2 = $expiry[1]; $expiry3=(str_split($expiry2,2)); $xmth = $expiry3[0]; $xday = $expiry3[1]; which works fine but I need to repopulate the input boxes for the month showing the date in the database like this <option value="01">January</option`> using if ($smth==01):$month='January'; endif; if ($xmth==01):$month='January'; endif; // if the start and/or expiry month number = 01 display $month as January if ($smth==02):$smonth='February'; endif; if ($xmth==02):$smonth='February'; endif; if ($smth==03):$month='March'; endif; <select name="stmonth" class="input"> <option value="<?=$smth?>"><?=$month?></option> ... </select> is there an easier way to display IF EITHER ONE EQUALS rather than having to write the same line twice once for each $smth AND $xmth ? re: if ($smth **and or** $xmth ==01):$month='January'; endif;

    Read the article

  • Logic in the db for maintaining a points system relationship?

    - by MarcusBooster
    I'm making a little web based game and need to determine where to put logic that checks the integrity of some underlying data in the sql database. Each user keeps track of points assigned to him, and points are awarded by various tasks. I keep a record of each task transaction to make sure they're not repeated, and to keep track of the value of the task at the time of completion, since an individual award level my fluctuate over time. My schema looks like this so far: create table player ( player_ID serial primary key, player_Points int not null default 0 ); create table task ( task_ID serial primary key, task_PointsAwarded int not null ); create table task_list ( player_ID int references player(player_ID), task_ID int references task(task_ID), when_completed timestamp default current_timestamp, point_value int not null, --not fk because task value may change later constraint pk_player_task_id primary key (player_ID, task_ID) ); So, the player.player_Points should be the total of all his cumulative task points in the task_list. Now where do I put the logic to enforce this? Should I do away with player.player_Points altogether and do queries every time I want to know the total score? Which seems wasteful since I'll be doing that query a lot over the course of a game. Or, put a trigger in the task_list that automatically updates the player.player_Points? Is that too much logic to have in the database and should just maintain this relationship in the application? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Generate Spring bean definition from a Java object

    - by joeslice
    Let's suggest that I have a bean defined in Spring: <bean id="neatBean" class="com..." abstract="true">...</bean> Then we have many clients, each of which have slightly different configuration for their 'neatBean'. The old way we would do it was to have a new file for each client (e.g., clientX_NeatFeature.xml) that contained a bunch of beans for this client (these are hand-edited and part of the code base): <bean id="clientXNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="something"/> </bean> Now, I want to have a UI where we can edit and redefine a client's neatBean on the fly. My question is: given a neatBean, and a UI that can 'override' properties of this bean, what would be a straightforward way to serialize this to an XML file as we do [manually] today? For example, if the user set property whatever to be "17" for client Y, I'd want to generate: <bean id="clientYNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="17"/> </bean> Note that moving this configuration to a different format (e.g., database, other-schema'd-xml) is an option, but not really an answer to the question at hand.

    Read the article

  • WPF binding problem

    - by Lolo
    I've got problem with binding in XAML/WPF. I created Action class witch extends FrameworkElement. Each Action has list of ActionItem. The problem is that the Data/DataContext properties of ActionItem are not set, so they are always null. XAML: <my:Action DataContext="{Binding}"> <my:Action.Items> <my:ActionItem DataContext="{Binding}" Data="{Binding}" /> </my:Action.Items> </my:Action> C#: public class Action : FrameworkElement { public static readonly DependencyProperty ItemsProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Items", typeof(IList), typeof(Action), new PropertyMetadata(null, null), null); public Action() { this.Items = new ArrayList(); this.DataContextChanged += (s, e) => MessageBox.Show("Action.DataContext"); } public IList Items { get { return (IList)this.GetValue(ItemsProperty); } set { this.SetValue(ItemsProperty, value); } } } public class ActionItem : FrameworkElement { public static readonly DependencyProperty DataProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Data", typeof(object), typeof(ActionItem), new PropertyMetadata( null, null, (d, v) => { if (v != null) MessageBox.Show("ActionItem.Data is not null"); return v; } ), null ); public object Data { get { return this.GetValue(DataProperty); } set { this.SetValue(DataProperty, value); } } public ActionItem() { this.DataContextChanged += (s, e) => MessageBox.Show("ActionItem.DataContext"); } } Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • sql query selecting one name no matter how many rows it was mentioned in

    - by Baruch
    Basically what I'm trying to do is get the information from column x no matter how many times it was mentioned. means that if I have this kind of table: x | y | z ------+-------+-------- hello | one | bye hello | two | goodbye hi | three | see you so what I'm trying to do is create a query that would get all of the names that are mentions in the x column without duplicates and put it into a select list. my goal is that I would have a select list with TWO not THREE options, hello and hi this is what I have so far which isn't working. hope you guys know the answer to that: function getList(){ $options="<select id='names' style='margin-right:40px;'>"; $c_id = $_SESSION['id']; $sql="SELECT * FROM names"; $result=mysql_query($sql); $options.="<option value='blank'>-- Select something --</option>" ; while ($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $name=$row["x"]; $options.="<option value='$name'>$name</option>"; } $options.= "</SELECT>"; return "$options"; } Sorry for confusing... i edited my source

    Read the article

  • What does the destructor do silently?

    - by zhanwu
    Considering the following code which looks like that the destructor doesn't do any real job, valgrind showed me clearly that it has memory leak without using the destructor. Any body can explain me what does the destructor do in this case? #include <iostream> using namespace std; class A { private: int value; A* follower; public: A(int); ~A(); void insert(int); }; A::A(int n) { value = n; follower = NULL; } A::~A() { if (follower != NULL) delete follower; cout << "do nothing!" << endl; } void A::insert(int n) { if (this->follower == NULL) { A* f = new A(n); this->follower = f; } else this->follower->insert(n); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { A* objectA = new A(1); int i; for (i = 0; i < 10; i++) objectA->insert(i); delete objectA; }

    Read the article

  • What rules govern the copying of variables in Javascript closures?

    - by int3
    I'd just like to check my understanding of variable copying in Javascript. From what I gather, variables are passed/assigned by reference unless you explicitly tell them to create a copy with the new operator. But I'm a little uncertain when it comes to using closures. Say I have the following code: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; console.log(x); }); } fnlist[2](); // returns 20 I gather that this is because fnlist[2] only looks up the value of data at the point where it is invoked. So I tried an alternative tack: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; return function() { console.log(x); } }()); } fnlist[2](); // returns 10 So now it returns the 'correct' value. Am I right to say that it works because a function resolves all variable references to their 'constant' values when it is invoked? Or is there a better way to explain it? Any explanations / links to explanations regarding this referencing / copying business would be appreciated as well. Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 712 713 714 715 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723  | Next Page >