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  • Pointers to structs

    - by Bobby
    I have the following struct: struct Datastore_T { Partition_Datastores_T cmtDatastores; // bytes 0 to 499 Partition_Datastores_T cdhDatastores; // bytes 500 to 999 Partition_Datastores_T gncDatastores; // bytes 1000 to 1499 Partition_Datastores_T inpDatastores; // bytes 1500 1999 Partition_Datastores_T outDatastores; // bytes 2000 to 2499 Partition_Datastores_T tmlDatastores; // bytes 2500 to 2999 Partition_Datastores_T sm_Datastores; // bytes 3000 to 3499 }; I want to set a char* to struct of this type like so: struct Datastore_T datastores; // Elided: datastores is initialized with data here char* DatastoreStartAddr = (char*)&datastores; memset(DatastoreStartAddr, 0, sizeof(Datastore_T)); The problem I have is that the value that DatastoreStartAddr points to always has a value of zero when it should point to the struct that has been initialized with data. Meaning if I change the values in the struct using the struct directly, the values pointed to by DatastoreStartAddr should also change b/c they are pointing to the same address. But this is not happening. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Backdoor in OpenBSD how is it that no developer saw it ? And what about other Linux ? [closed]

    - by user310291
    It had been revealed that there have been backdoor implanted in OpenBSD http://www.infoworld.com/d/developer-world/software-security-honesty-the-best-policy-285 OpenBSD is opensource, how is it that nobody in the community developper could see it in the source code ? So how can one trust all the other "opensource" Linux Of course OpenBSD is only a case, the point is not about OpenBSD, it is about opensource in general. my question is not about Openbsd per se it's about source code os inspection especially c/c++ since most are written in these languages. Also once the source is compiled how one can be sure that it really reflects the source code ? If a law requires that a backdoor being implanted and obliges to deny that kind of action under the guise of security, how can you be sure that the system has not been corrupted by some tools ? As said there is there is a "nondisclosure agreement" My guess is that 99.99% of developpers in the world are just incapable of understanding os source code and won't even bother to look at it. And above all nobody wonders about why the gov wants such massive backdoor, and that of course they will pressure medias to deny.

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  • git-svn cannot create a branch to follow SVN branching

    - by Serhiy Yakovyn
    Hello everybody, I'm struggling with the following issue. When I continue fetching revisions from SVN with git svn fetch I'm getting the following error (removed https to be able to post question): *Found possible branch point: somecompany.com/product/trunk = somecompany.com/product/branches/deep/branches/product-001, 72666 Found branch parent: (refs/remotes/deep/branches/product-001) b685b7b92813885fdf 6b8e2663daf884bf504b14 Following parent with do_switch Successfully followed parent error: 'refs/remotes/deep' exists; cannot create 'refs/remotes/deep/branches/product-001' fatal: Cannot lock the ref 'refs/remotes/deep/branches/product-001'. update-ref -m r72667 refs/remotes/deep/branches/product-001 df51920e8f0a53f26507 c2679eb6a9dbad91e0d6: command returned error: 128* This happened because I was fetching revisions using the default filter for SVN branches: [svn-remote "svn"] url = https://somecompany.com/someproduct fetch = trunk:refs/remotes/trunk branches = branches/*:refs/remotes/* tags = tags/*:refs/remotes/tags/* Now, I have the line below added, but it's too late: branches = branches/deep/branches/*:refs/remotes/deep/branches/* I have tried to fix this by using git reset to remove all the commits. Actually I can see from the error message that git is trying right thing, but cannot because of the branch remotes/deep being existing. I have tried to search for 2 possible solutions: 1. Remove that branch (remotes/deep), but as it is tracked by git as a remote, I was not able to find any solution for that. 2. Remove the whole history related to that branch. No success too :( Does anybody know how to deal with my issue? Thank you in advance, Serhiy Y

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  • Head Rotation in Opposite Direction with GLM and Oculus Rift SDK

    - by user3434662
    I am 90% there in getting orientation to work. I am just trying to resolve one last bit and I hope someone can point me to any easy errors I am making but not seeing. My code works except when a person looks left the camera actually rotates right. Vice versa with looking right, camera rotates left. Any idea what I am doing wrong here? I retrieve the orientation from the Oculus Rift like so: OVR::Quatf OculusRiftOrientation = PredictedPose.Orientation; glm::vec3 CurrentEulerAngles; glm::quat CurrentOrientation; OculusRiftOrientation.GetEulerAngles<OVR::Axis_X, OVR::Axis_Y, OVR::Axis_Z, OVR::Rotate_CW, OVR::Handed_R> (&CurrentEulerAngles.x, &CurrentEulerAngles.y, &CurrentEulerAngles.z); CurrentOrientation = glm::quat(CurrentEulerAngles); And here is how I calculate the LookAt: /* DirectionOfWhereCameraIsFacing is calculated from mouse and standing position so that you are not constantly rotating after you move your head. */ glm::vec3 DirectionOfWhereCameraIsFacing; glm::vec3 RiftDirectionOfWhereCameraIsFacing; glm::vec3 RiftCenterOfWhatIsBeingLookedAt; glm::vec3 PositionOfEyesOfPerson; glm::vec3 CenterOfWhatIsBeingLookedAt; glm::vec3 CameraPositionDelta; RiftDirectionOfWhereCameraIsFacing = DirectionOfWhereCameraIsFacing; RiftDirectionOfWhereCameraIsFacing = glm::rotate(CurrentOrientation, DirectionOfWhereCameraIsFacing); PositionOfEyesOfPerson += CameraPositionDelta; CenterOfWhatIsBeingLookedAt = PositionOfEyesOfPerson + DirectionOfWhereCameraIsFacing * 1.0f; RiftCenterOfWhatIsBeingLookedAt = PositionOfEyesOfPerson + RiftDirectionOfWhereCameraIsFacing * 1.0f; RiftView = glm::lookAt(PositionOfEyesOfPerson, RiftCenterOfWhatIsBeingLookedAt, DirectionOfUpForPerson);

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  • Filtering on a left join in SQLalchemy

    - by Adam Ernst
    Using SQLalchemy I want to perform a left outer join and filter out rows that DO have a match in the joined table. I'm sending push notifications, so I have a Notification table. This means I also have a ExpiredDeviceId table to store device_ids that are no longer valid. (I don't want to just delete the affected notifications as the user might later re-install the app, at which point the notifications should resume according to Apple's docs.) CREATE TABLE Notification (device_id TEXT, time DATETIME); CREATE TABLE ExpiredDeviceId (device_id TEXT PRIMARY KEY, expiration_time DATETIME); Note: there may be multiple Notifications per device_id. There is no "Device" table for each device. So when doing SELECT FROM Notification I should filter accordingly. I can do it in SQL: SELECT * FROM Notification LEFT OUTER JOIN ExpiredDeviceId ON Notification.device_id = ExpiredDeviceId.device_id WHERE expiration_time == NULL But how can I do it in SQLalchemy? sess.query( Notification, ExpiredDeviceId ).outerjoin( (ExpiredDeviceId, Notification.device_id == ExpiredDeviceId.device_id) ).filter( ??? ) Alternately I could do this with a device_id NOT IN (SELECT device_id FROM ExpiredDeviceId) clause, but that seems way less efficient.

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  • JTA or LOCAL transactions in JPA2+Hibernate 3.6.0?

    - by Pangea
    We are in the process of re-thinking our tech stack and below are our choices (We can't live without Spring and Hibernate due to the complexity etc of the app). We are also moving from J2EE 1.4 to JEE 5. Tech stack JEE 5 JPA 2.0 (I know JEE 5 only supports JPA 1.0 but we want to use Hibernate as the JPA provider) Hibernate 3.6.0 (We already have lots of hbm files with custom types etc. so we doesn't want to migrate them at this time to JPA. This means we want both jpa/hbm mappings work together and hence the Hibernate as the JPA provider instead of using the default that comes with App Server) Now the problems is that I want to stick with local transactions but other team members want to use JTA. I have been working with J2EE for last 9 years and I've heard time and again people suggesting to stick with local transactions if I doesn't need two phase commits. This is not only for performance reasons but debugging/troubleshooting a local transaction is lot easier than a distributed transaction. My suggestion is to use spring declarative transaction management + local transactions (HibernateTransactionManager) I want to make sure if I am being paranoid or I have a valid point. I'd like to hear what the rest of the JEE world thinks. Thank you.

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  • Primary key/foreign Key naming convention

    - by Jeremy
    In our dev group we have a raging debate regarding the naming convention for Primary and Foreign Keys. There's basically two schools of thought in our group: 1) Primary Table (Employee) Primary Key is called ID Foreign table (Event) Foreign key is called EmployeeID 2) Primary Table (Employee) Primary Key is called EmployeeID Foreign table (Event) Foreign key is called EmployeeID I prefer not to duplicate the name of the table in any of the columns (So I prefer option 1 above). Conceptually, it is consisted with a lot of the recommended practices in other languages, where you don't use the name of the object in its property names. I think that naming the foreign key EmployeeID (or Employee_ID might be better) tells the reader that it is the ID column of the Employee Table. Some others prefer option 2 where you name the primary key prefixed with the table name so that the column name is the same throughout the database. I see that point, but you now can not visually distinguish a primary key from a foreign key. Also, I think it's redundant to have the table name in the column name, because if you think of the table as an entity and a column as a property or attribute of that entity, you think of it as the ID attribute of the Employee, not the EmployeeID attribute of an employee. I don't go an ask my coworker what his PersonAge or PersonGender is. I ask him what his Age is. So like I said, it's a raging debate and we go on and on and on about it. I'm interested to get some new perspective.

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  • Mulit-dimensional array edge/border conditions

    - by kirbuchi
    Hi, I'm iterating over a 3 dimensional array (which is an image with 3 values for each pixel) to apply a 3x3 filter to each pixel as follows: //For each value on the image for (i=0;i<3*width*height;i++){ //For each filter value for (j=0;j<9;j++){ if (notOutsideEdgesCondition){ *(**(outArray)+i)+= *(**(pixelArray)+i-1+(j%3)) * (*(filter+j)); } } } I'm using pointer arithmetic because if I used array notation I'd have 4 loops and I'm trying to have the least possible number of loops. My problem is my notOutsideEdgesCondition is getting quite out of hands because I have to consider 8 border cases. I have the following handled conditions Left Column: ((i%width)==0) && (j%3==0) Right Column: ((i-1)%width ==0) && (i>1) && (j%3==2) Upper Row: (i<width) && (j<2) Lower Row: (i>(width*height-width)) && (j>5) and still have to consider the 4 corner cases which will have longer expressions. At this point I've stopped and asked myself if this is the best way to go because If I have a 5 line long conditional evaluation it'll not only be truly painful to debug but will slow the inner loop. That's why I come to you to ask if there's a known algorithm to handle this cases or if there's a better approach for my problem. Thanks a lot.

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  • python can't start a new thread

    - by Giorgos Komnino
    I am building a multi threading application. I have setup a threadPool. [ A Queue of size N and N Workers that get data from the queue] When all tasks are done I use tasks.join() where tasks is the queue . The application seems to run smoothly until suddently at some point (after 20 minutes in example) it terminates with the error thread.error: can't start new thread Any ideas? Edit: The threads are daemon Threads and the code is like: while True: t0 = time.time() keyword_statuses = DBSession.query(KeywordStatus).filter(KeywordStatus.status==0).options(joinedload(KeywordStatus.keyword)).with_lockmode("update").limit(100) if keyword_statuses.count() == 0: DBSession.commit() break for kw_status in keyword_statuses: kw_status.status = 1 DBSession.commit() t0 = time.time() w = SWorker(threads_no=32, network_server='http://192.168.1.242:8180/', keywords=keyword_statuses, cities=cities, saver=MySqlRawSave(DBSession), loglevel='debug') w.work() print 'finished' When the daemon threads are killed? When the application finishes or when the work() finishes? Look at the thread pool and the worker (it's from a recipe ) from Queue import Queue from threading import Thread, Event, current_thread import time event = Event() class Worker(Thread): """Thread executing tasks from a given tasks queue""" def __init__(self, tasks): Thread.__init__(self) self.tasks = tasks self.daemon = True self.start() def run(self): '''Start processing tasks from the queue''' while True: event.wait() #time.sleep(0.1) try: func, args, callback = self.tasks.get() except Exception, e: print str(e) return else: if callback is None: func(args) else: callback(func(args)) self.tasks.task_done() class ThreadPool: """Pool of threads consuming tasks from a queue""" def __init__(self, num_threads): self.tasks = Queue(num_threads) for _ in range(num_threads): Worker(self.tasks) def add_task(self, func, args=None, callback=None): ''''Add a task to the queue''' self.tasks.put((func, args, callback)) def wait_completion(self): '''Wait for completion of all the tasks in the queue''' self.tasks.join() def broadcast_block_event(self): '''blocks running threads''' event.clear() def broadcast_unblock_event(self): '''unblocks running threads''' event.set() def get_event(self): '''returns the event object''' return event

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  • django: control json serialization

    - by abolotnov
    Is there a way to control json serialization in django? Simple code below will return serialized object in json: co = Collection.objects.all() c = serializers.serialize('json',co) The json will look similar to this: [ { "pk": 1, "model": "picviewer.collection", "fields": { "urlName": "architecture", "name": "\u0413\u043e\u0440\u043e\u0434 \u0438 \u0430\u0440\u0445\u0438\u0442\u0435\u043a\u0442\u0443\u0440\u0430", "sortOrder": 0 } }, { "pk": 2, "model": "picviewer.collection", "fields": { "urlName": "nature", "name": "\u041f\u0440\u0438\u0440\u043e\u0434\u0430", "sortOrder": 1 } }, { "pk": 3, "model": "picviewer.collection", "fields": { "urlName": "objects", "name": "\u041e\u0431\u044a\u0435\u043a\u0442\u044b \u0438 \u043d\u0430\u0442\u044e\u0440\u043c\u043e\u0440\u0442", "sortOrder": 2 } } ] You can see it's serializing it in a way that you are able to re-create the whole model, shall you want to do this at some point - fair enough, but not very handy for simple JS ajax in my case: I want bring the traffic to minimum and make the whole thing little clearer. What I did is I created a view that passes the object to a .json template and the template will do something like this to generate "nicer" json output: [ {% if collections %} {% for c in collections %} {"id": {{c.id}},"sortOrder": {{c.sortOrder}},"name": "{{c.name}}","urlName": "{{c.urlName}}"}{% if not forloop.last %},{% endif %} {% endfor %} {% endif %} ] This does work and the output is much (?) nicer: [ { "id": 1, "sortOrder": 0, "name": "????? ? ???????????", "urlName": "architecture" }, { "id": 2, "sortOrder": 1, "name": "???????", "urlName": "nature" }, { "id": 3, "sortOrder": 2, "name": "??????? ? ?????????", "urlName": "objects" } ] However, I'm bothered by the fast that my solution uses templates (an extra step in processing and possible performance impact) and it will take manual work to maintain shall I update the model, for example. I'm thinking json generating should be part of the model (correct me if I'm wrong) and done with either native python-json and django implementation but can't figure how to make it strip the bits that I don't want. One more thing - even when I restrict it to a set of fields to serialize, it will keep the id always outside the element container and instead present it as "pk" outside of it.

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  • ASP.NET ListView, custom DataSources, and editing items

    - by Andrew Shepherd
    The MSDN walkthroughs provide a number of examples where you can drag a DataSource from the toolbox, run through some simple configuration steps, then drag a ListView onto the screen, point it at the DataSource, and hey - you've got full table editing. Now I'm trying to write my own DataSource class (a class that implements System.Web.UI.IDataSource) and my own DataSourceView class. I now assign an instance of this custom DataSource class to the ListView.DataSource propery. The display of all the items is working well. However, updating, inserting and deleting just is not working. I'm overriding every function I can in my DataSourceView class, and they just aren't being called. This is such a huge topic, I'll focus this question on one simple example: When you press the "Edit" button (the button inside the ItemTemplate with a CommandName of "Edit", you expect the ItemTemplate to be replaced by an EditItemTemplate. This did not happen. The only way I could get it to happen was to handle the onitemediting event. protected void _listViewPublicHolidays_ItemEditing(object sender, ListViewEditEventArgs e) { _listViewPublicHolidays.EditIndex = e.NewEditIndex; _listViewPublicHolidays.DataBind(); } This is hardly a problem, but how come I had to do it at all? In the MSDN walkthroughs where I attach a ListView to a LinqDataSource, this code doesn't have to be written. Can someone who's been here before hazard a guess as to what would be different or missing in my custom datasource?

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  • Debugging a Google Web Toolkit application that has an error when deployed on Google App Engine

    - by gerdemb
    I have a Google Web Toolkit application that I am deploying to Google App Engine. In the deployed application, I am getting a JavaScript error Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'f' of null. This sounds like the JavaScript equivalent of a Java NullPointerException. The problem is that the GWT JavaScript is obfuscated, so it's impossible to debug in the browser and I can't reproduce the same problem in hosted mode where I could use the Java debugger. I think the reason I'm only seeing the error on the deployed application is that the database I'm using on the GAE server is triggering something differently than the test database I'm using during testing and development. So, any ideas about the best way to proceed? I've thought of the following things: Deploy a non-obsfucated version of my application. Despite a lot of Googling, I can't figure out how to do this using the automatic deploy script provided with the Google Eclipse Plugin. Does anyone know? Download and copy my GAE data to the local server Somehow point my development code to use the GAE server for data instead of the local test database. This seems like the best idea... Can anyone suggest how to proceed here? Finally, is there a way to catch these JavaScript errors on the production server and log them somewhere? Without logging, I won't have anyway to know if my users are having errors that don't occur on the server. The GWT.log() function is automatically stripped out of the production code...

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  • JQuery code in ASP .NET content pages

    - by user2645830
    I have made a very simple sample project where I want to toggle an asp .net calendar control through jquery. Could anyone please point out why it is not working. I have made no changes to master page from the sample project provided for ASP .NET web application. <%@ Page Title="Home Page" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Site.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="WebApplication5._Default" %> <asp:Content ID="HeaderContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="HeadContent"> <script type="text/javascript" src="scripts/jquery-1.4.1.min.js"> </script> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ function Button1_onclick() { alert( $('<%=Calendar1.ClientID%>')); $('<%=Calendar1.ClientID%>').toggle(); } // ]]> </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="BodyContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent"> <h2> Welcome to ASP.NET! </h2> <p> To learn more about ASP.NET visit <a href="http://www.asp.net" title="ASP.NET Website">www.asp.net</a>. </p> <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" onclick="return Button1_onclick()" /> <asp:Calendar ID="Calendar1" runat="server"></asp:Calendar> <p> You can also find <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/? LinkID=152368&amp;clcid=0x409" title="MSDN ASP.NET Docs">documentation on ASP.NET at MSDN</a>. </p> </asp:Content>

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  • How to convert model into url properly in asp.net MVC?

    - by 4eburek
    From the SEO standpoint it is nice to see urls in format which explains what is located on a page Let's have a look on such situation (it is just example) We need to display page about some user and decided to have such url template for that page: /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin}. And create for this purpose such model public class UserUrlInfo{ public int UserId{get;set;} public string UserCountry{get;set;} public string UserLogin{get;set;} } I want to create controller method where I pass UserUrlInfo object but not all required fields. Classic controller method for url template shown above is following public ActionResult Index(int UserId, string UserCountry, string UserLogin){ return View(); } and we need to call it like that Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user.UserId, user.UserCountry, user.UserLogin), "See user page") I want to create such controller method public ActionResult Index(UserUrlInfo userInfo){ return View(); } and call it like that: Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user), "See user page") Actually I works when we add one more route and point it to the same controller method, so routing will be: /user/{userInfo} /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin} In this situation routing engine gets string method of our model (need to override it) and it works ALMOST always. But sometimes it fails and show url like /page/?userInfo=/US/John So my workaround does not always work properly. Does anybody know how to work with urls in such way?

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  • Favourite Features of VS 2010

    - by Noldorin
    With the general public release of Visual Studio 2010 Beta 2 today, this latest version has created a lot of hype and interest. Indeed, the opinion I've gauged is that VS 2010 has resolved a great deal of the minor flaws left over from previous versions, as well as added some particularly useful new code editor and project development tools (in particular the Premium/Ultimate versions). My question here is: what are you favourite new features in VS 2010 that have really got you excited? Or similarly, what are the flaws of VS 2008 that you are most glad to have resolved? There is a wealth of changes in VS 2010, of course, but these are some of the ones that have interested me most (about which I know!). Integrated support for F# (with multi-targeting for .NET 2.0 - 4.0)/ Much improved WPF designer. The VS 2008 was more than a bit buggy at times. Great improvements to the code editor, such as call hierarchy viewing. A decent add-in framework. A greatly expanded testing framework (now capable of database testing, for example) in Premium/Ultimate. Project planning and modelling features in Premium/Ultimate. If I could request one point/feature per post, I think that would be best, so we could vote them individually.

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  • Audio output from Silverlight

    - by leecarter
    I'm looking to develop a Silverlight application which will take a stream of data (not an audio stream as such) from a web server. The data stream would then be manipulated to give audio of a certain format (G.711 a-Law for example) which would then be converted into PCM so that additional effects can be applied (such as boosting the volume). I'm OK up to this point. I've got my data, converted the G.711 into PCM but my problem is being able to output this PCM audio to the sound card. I basing a solution on some C# code intended for a .Net application but in Silverlight there is a problem with trying to take a copy of a delegate (function pointer) which will be the topic of a separate question once I've produced a simple code sample. So, the question is... How can I output the PCM audio that I have held in a data structure (currently an array) in my Silverlight to the user? (Please don't say write the byte values to a text box) If it were a MP3 or WMA file I would play it using a MediaElement but I don't want to have to make it into a file as this would put a crimp on applying dynamic effects to the audio. I've seen a few posts from people saying low level audio support is poor/non-existant in Silverlight so I'm open to any suggestions/ideas people may have.

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  • How to use keyword this in a mouse wrapper in right context in Javascript?

    - by MartyIX
    Hi, I'm trying to write a simple wrapper for mouse behaviour. This is my current code: function MouseWrapper() { this.mouseDown = 0; this.OnMouseDownEvent = null; this.OnMouseUpEvent = null; document.body.onmousedown = this.OnMouseDown; document.body.onmouseup = this.OnMouseUp; } MouseWrapper.prototype.Subscribe = function (eventName, fn) { // Subscribe a function to the event if (eventName == 'MouseDown') { this.OnMouseDownEvent = fn; } else if (eventName == 'MouseUp') { this.OnMouseUpEvent = fn; } else { alert('Subscribe: Unknown event.'); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown = function () { this.mouseDown = 1; // Fire event $.dump(this.OnMouseDownEvent); if (this.OnMouseDownEvent != null) { alert('test'); this.OnMouseDownEvent(); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp = function () { this.mouseDown = 0; // Fire event if (this.OnMouseUpEvent != null) { this.OnMouseUpEvent(); } } From what I gathered it seems that in MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp and MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown the keyword "this" doesn't mean current instance of MouseWrapper but something else. And it makes sense that it doesn't point to my instance but how to solve the problem? I want to solve the problem properly I don't want to use something dirty. My thinking: * use a singleton pattern (mouse is only one after all) * pass somehow my instance to OnMouseDown/Up - how? Thank you for help!

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  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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  • Vertex Buffers in opengl

    - by JB
    I'm making a small 3d graphics game/demo for personal learning. I know d3d9 and quite a bit about d3d11 but little about opengl at the moment so I'm intending to abstract out the actual rendering of the graphics so that my scene graph and everything "above" it needs to know little about how to actually draw the graphics. I intend to make it work with d3d9 then add d3d11 support and finally opengl support. Just as a learning exercise to learn about 3d graphics and abstraction. I don't know much about opengl at this point though, and don't want my abstract interface to expose anything that isn't simple to implement in opengl. Specifically I'm looking at vertex buffers. In d3d they are essentially an array of structures, but looking at the opengl interface the equivalent seems to be vertex arrays. However these seem to be organised rather differently where you need a separate array for vertices, one for normals, one for texture coordinates etc and set the with glVertexPointer, glTexCoordPointer etc. I was hoping to be able to implement a VertexBuffer interface much like the the directx one but it looks like in d3d you have an array of structures and in opengl you need a separate array for each element which makes finding a common abstraction quite hard to make efficient. Is there any way to use opengl in a similar way to directx? Or any suggestions on how to come up with a higher level abstraction that will work efficiently with both systems?

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  • Java try finally variations

    - by Petr Gladkikh
    This question nags me for a while but I did not found complete answer to it yet (e.g. this one is for C# http://stackoverflow.com/questions/463029/initializing-disposable-resources-outside-or-inside-try-finally). Consider two following Java code fragments: Closeable in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); try { doSomething(in); } finally { in.close(); } and second variation Closeable in = null; try { in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); doSomething(in); } finally { if (null != in) in.close(); } The part that worries me is that the thread might be somewhat interrupted between the moment resource is acquired (e.g. file is opened) but resulting value is not assigned to respective local variable. Is there any other scenarios the thread might be interrupted in the point above other than: InterruptedException (e.g. via Thread#interrupt()) or OutOfMemoryError exception is thrown JVM exits (e.g. via kill, System.exit()) Hardware fail (or bug in JVM for complete list :) I have read that second approach is somewhat more "idiomatic" but IMO in the scenario above there's no difference and in all other scenarios they are equal. So the question: What are the differences between the two? Which should I prefer if I do concerned about freeing resources (especially in heavily multi-threading applications)? Why? I would appreciate if anyone points me to parts of Java/JVM specs that support the answers.

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  • jQuery cycle floats on top of other content

    - by Angie Dubis
    I tried to replace my Flash video with a jQuery cycle. The cycle works, but the images will not stay in the editable region I placed them in. Instead they are floating on top of other content. Any ideas? This is happening on the home page of massageeducator.com There are 2 cycles on the page. “Slideshow1” and “slideshow2”. “slideshow1” works perfectly. The only thing I did differently was set up “slideshow2” as a library item since it will appear on every page, but added function code manually. I tried adding code and images via the template and had the same issue. I also tried adding both the function code and slideshow to each page instead of library item - same problem. I have both slide shows pointing to the same jquery.cycle.lite.1.0.js. Should I rename this .js file and have each cycle point to a different file? I am new to jQuery so any help is appreciated. I can't seem to post my code due to the spam filters in here!

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  • Old dll.config problem !

    - by user313421
    Since 2005 as I googled it's a problem for who needs to read the configuration of an assembly from it's config file "*.dll.config" and Microsoft didn't do anything yet. Story: If you try to read a setting from a class library (plug-in) you fail. Instead the main application domain (EXE which is using the plug-in) config is read and because probably there's not such a config your plug-in will use default setting which is hard-coded when you create it's settings for first time. Any change to .dll.config wouldn't see by your plug-in and you wonder why it's there! If you want to replace it and start searching you may find something like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/594298/c-dll-config-file But just some ideas and one line code. A good replacement for built-in config shouldn't read from file system each time we need a config value, so we can store them in memory; Then what if user changes config file ? we need a FileSystemWatcher and we need some design like singleton ... and finally we are at the same point configuration of .NET is except our one's working. It seems MS did everything but forgot why they built the ".dll.config". Since no DLL is gonna execute by itself, they are referenced from other apps (even if used in web) and so why there's such a "*.dll.config" file ? I'm not gonna argue if it's good to have multiple config files or not. It's my design (plug-able components). Finally { After these years, is there any good practice such as a custom setting class to add in each assemly and read from it's own config file ? }

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  • Finding parent class and id

    - by Breezer
    Well after countless tries i can't get this work? <script type="text/javascript"> $("td input").focusout(function() { var column = $(this).parent('td').attr('class'); var row = $(this).parent('tr').attr('id'); $('#dat').HTML(row+" "+column); }); </script> And the html looks like this <tr class="numbers" id="1"> <td class="a" align="right">1</td> <td class="b"><input class="input" type="text" value=""/></td> <td class="c"><input class="input" type="text" value=""/></td> <td class="d"><input class="input" type="text" value=""/></td> <td class="e"><input class="input" type="text" value=""/></td> <td class="f">0</td> <td class="g"><input class="input" type="text" value=""/></td> </tr> can anyone point me to the right direction on what might be wrong? thanks in advance regards

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  • Blackberry Keyboard Lock timeout

    - by Vernon
    I want this blackberry 9700 to "fully lock" as soon as I click the icon for the "Keyboard Lock" application. Currently I have to wait 5 to 7 seconds for the screen to go dark after each time I click the "Keyboard Lock" icon. During that time if something touches the touch pad, then the 5-7 second timer resets and you have to wait another 5 to 7 seconds for the screen to go dark and "fully lock" After it finally goes dark, touching the touch pad does not reset the timer. At that point it is "fully locked" and requires a key to be pressed. How can I get it to "fully lock" as soon as the lock icon is clicked? I want the screen to go dark immediately, and for it to require a key press to request an unlock. I have tried Options - Screen/Keyboard - Backlight Timeout ... etc ... none of that reduces the timeout for the "Keyboard Lock" application. And there does not seem to be an option screen for the "Keyboard Lock" application, that I can find. NOTE: This is occurring with BlackBerry 9700 v5.0.0.330 (Platform 5.1.0.91)

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  • How come drawing this line at (0,0) doesn't really draw it at (0,0)?

    - by George Edison
    I have this ActionScript code here: package { import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.display.LineScaleMode; import flash.display.CapsStyle; import flash.display.JointStyle; import flash.display.Shape; import flash.events.Event; public class Main extends Sprite { private var lines:Shape; public function Main():void { if (stage) init(); else addEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); } private function init(e:Event = null):void { removeEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); // entry point lines = new Shape(); addChild(lines); lines.graphics.clear(); lines.graphics.lineStyle(10, 0x000000); lines.graphics.moveTo(0, 0); lines.graphics.lineTo(stage.stageWidth, stage.stageHeight); } } } What I'm expecting this to do is to draw a line from one corner of the screen to the other... but that's not what it does. See here.

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