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  • Continuous Integration with 64-bit Sharepoint and TFS 2008?

    - by Hirvox
    I've set up a 64-bit TFS 2008 build server with Sharepoint, continuous integration and out-of-the-box MSTest. Unit tests for plain business logic classes run just fine and test results are published into TFS. However, any test that uses Sharepoint's API fails horribly, SPFarm.Local returning null and so on. Is there a way to fix this? The tests run fine in an otherwise identical 32-bit development environment (Windows Server 2008 under Hyper-V, Sharepoint patched up to June 2009 cumulative update) from both Visual Studio and command line, so the problem is not about improper use of SPContext.Current or any other part of the API that needs to be run in a web server context. I've ruled out permissions issues, because the build agent account can deploy the solution and create site collections just fine with stsadm. The next culprit could be that the unit tests were being run with a 32-bit process, which couldn't access the 64-bit Sharepoint API properly. I tried a workaround, but it has the side effect of disabling TFS support in MSTest. Do I have to wait for 2010 versions of MS tools (and hope for the best) or is there a third-party test framework available that runs natively in 64 bit and can publish test results into TFS 2008?

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  • Getting entitlement warning while building an Ad Hoc Distribution Bundle for an Iphone App.

    - by nefsu
    I followed Apple's instructions on how to create an Ad Hoc Distrubution bundle but I keep getting what appears to be a fatal Warning during the build process. As per the instructions, I set the signing identity to my distribution profile at the target (instead of the project), created my Entitlement.plist file and unchecked get-task-allow, linked this file to my target and run the build in distribution for device mode. When I do that, the build completes successful but only after giving the following warning. [WARN]CodeSign warning: entitlements are not applicable for product type 'Application' in SDK 'Device - iPhone OS 3.1.2'; ignoring... The last step in the build is the CodeSign and I've noticed that although it ran without errors, it's missing the --entitlement command line option that is given on the official apple instruction guide. Here is my CodeSign line /usr/bin/codesign -f -s "iPhone Distribution: My Name" --resource-rules=/Volumes/Data/projects/xcode/MyAppName/build/Distribution-iphoneos/MyAppName.app/ResourceRules.plist /Volumes/Data/projects/xcode/MyAppName/build/Distribution-iphoneos/MyAppName.app And here is apple's screen shot of what's expected. Can someone please help me figure out if this is something I'm doing wrong because much to my dismay even the dev forum at apple has very little information on this CodeSign warning.

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  • Using Build Manager Class to Load ASPX Files and Populate its Controls

    - by Sandhurst
    I am using BuildManager Class to Load a dynamically generated ASPX File, please note that it does not have a corresponding .cs file. Using Following code I am able to load the aspx file, I am even able to loop through the control collection of the dynamically created aspx file, but when I am assigning values to controls they are not showing it up. for example if I am binding the value "Dummy" to TextBox control of the aspx page, the textbox remains empty. Here's the code that I am using protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { LoadPage("~/Demo.aspx"); } public static void LoadPage(string pagePath) { // get the compiled type of referenced path Type type = BuildManager.GetCompiledType(pagePath); // if type is null, could not determine page type if (type == null) throw new ApplicationException("Page " + pagePath + " not found"); // cast page object (could also cast an interface instance as well) // in this example, ASP220Page is a custom base page System.Web.UI.Page pageView = (System.Web.UI.Page)Activator.CreateInstance(type); // call page title pageView.Title = "Dynamically loaded page..."; // call custom property of ASP220Page //pageView.InternalControls.Add( // new LiteralControl("Served dynamically...")); // process the request with updated object ((IHttpHandler)pageView).ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); LoadDataInDynamicPage(pageView); } private static void LoadDataInDynamicPage(Page prvPage) { foreach (Control ctrl in prvPage.Controls) { //Find Form Control if (ctrl.ID != null) { if (ctrl.ID.Equals("form1")) { AllFormsClass cls = new AllFormsClass(); DataSet ds = cls.GetConditionalData("1"); foreach (Control ctr in ctrl.Controls) { if (ctr is TextBox) { if (ctr.ID.Contains("_M")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[0].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } else if (ctr.ID.Contains("_O")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[1].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } } } } } } }

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  • Memory Bandwidth Performance for Modern Machines

    - by porgarmingduod
    I'm designing a real-time system that occasionally has to duplicate a large amount of memory. The memory consists of non-tiny regions, so I expect the copying performance will be fairly close to the maximum bandwidth the relevant components (CPU, RAM, MB) can do. This led me to wonder what kind of raw memory bandwidth modern commodity machine can muster? My aging Core2Duo gives me 1.5 GB/s if I use 1 thread to memcpy() (and understandably less if I memcpy() with both cores simultaneously.) While 1.5 GB is a fair amount of data, the real-time application I'm working on will have have something like 1/50th of a second, which means 30 MB. Basically, almost nothing. And perhaps worst of all, as I add multiple cores, I can process a lot more data without any increased performance for the needed duplication step. But a low-end Core2Due isn't exactly hot stuff these days. Are there any sites with information, such as actual benchmarks, on raw memory bandwidth on current and near-future hardware? Furthermore, for duplicating large amounts of data in memory, are there any shortcuts, or is memcpy() as good as it will get? Given a bunch of cores with nothing to do but duplicate as much memory as possible in a short amount of time, what's the best I can do?

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  • Looking for advice on importing large dataset in sqlite and Cocoa/Objective-C

    - by jluckyiv
    I have a fairly large hierarchical dataset I'm importing. The total size of the database after import is about 270MB in sqlite. My current method works, but I know I'm hogging memory as I do it. For instance, if I run with Zombies, my system freezes up (although it will execute just fine if I don't use that Instrument). I was hoping for some algorithm advice. I have three hierarchical tables comprising about 400,000 records. The highest level has about 30 records, the next has about 20,000, the last has the balance. Right now, I'm using nested for loops to import. I know I'm creating an unreasonably large object graph, but I'm also looking to serialize to JSON or XML because I want to break up the records into downloadable chunks for the end user to import a la carte. I have the code written to do the serialization, but I'm wondering if I can serialize the object graph if I only have pieces in memory. Here's pseudocode showing the basic process for sqlite import. I left out the unnecessary detail. [database open]; [database beginTransaction]; NSArray *firstLevels = [[FirstLevel fetchFromURL:url retain]; for (FirstLevel *firstLevel in firstLevels) { [firstLevel save]; int id1 = [firstLevel primaryKey]; NSArray *secondLevels = [[SecondLevel fetchFromURL:url] retain]; for (SecondLevel *secondLevel in secondLevels) { [secondLevel saveWithForeignKey:id1]; int id2 = [secondLevel primaryKey]; NSArray *thirdLevels = [[ThirdLevel fetchFromURL:url] retain]; for (ThirdLevel *thirdLevel in thirdLevels) { [thirdLevel saveWithForeignKey:id2]; } [database commit]; [database beginTransaction]; [thirdLevels release]; } [secondLevels release]; } [database commit]; [database release]; [firstLevels release];

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  • Dispatch request to an Async Servlet from managed bean generate exception

    - by Thang Pham
    when a button click, I need to have stuff running in my background, so I have a async Servlet. From my managed bean, if I do redirect, it works great (meaning that it execute my run() method inside my class that extends Runnable correctly). Like this String url = externalContext.getRequestContextPath() + "/ReportExecutionServlet"; externalContext.redirect(url); But if I switch to dispatch, like this externalContext.redirect("/ReportExecutionServlet"); it fail when I try to obtain the AsyncContext AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); The error is below Caused By: java.lang.IllegalStateException: The async-support is disabled on this request: weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl Any idea how to fix this please? NOTE: This is how to execute my async servlet, just in case: AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); //delegate long running process to an "async" thread aCtx.addListener(new AsyncListener() { @Override public void onComplete(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onComplete"); } @Override public void onTimeout(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.WARNING, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onTimeout"); } @Override public void onError(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onError"); } @Override public void onStartAsync(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onStartAsync"); } }); // Start another service ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor executor = new ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor(10); executor.execute(new AsyncRequestReportProcessor(aCtx));

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  • MySql Query lag time / deadlock?

    - by Click Upvote
    When there are multiple PHP scripts running in parallel, each making an UPDATE query to the same record in the same table repeatedly, is it possible for there to be a 'lag time' before the table is updated with each query? I have basically 5-6 instances of a PHP script running in parallel, having been launched via cron. Each script gets all the records in the items table, and then loops through them and processes them. However, to avoid processing the same item more than once, I store the id of the last item being processed in a seperate table. So this is how my code works: function getCurrentItem() { $sql = "SELECT currentItemId from settings"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); return $result->get('currentItemId'); } function setCurrentItem($id) { $sql = "UPDATE settings SET currentItemId='$id'"; $this->db->query($sql); } $currentItem = $this->getCurrentItem(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE status='pending' AND id > $currentItem'"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); $items = $result->getAll(); foreach ($items as $i) { //Check if $i has been processed by a different instance of the script, and if so, //leave it untouched. if ($this->getCurrentItem() > $i->id) continue; $this->setCurrentItem($i->id); // Process the item here } But despite of all the precautions, most items are being processed more than once. Which makes me think that there is some lag time between the update queries being run by the PHP script, and when the database actually updates the record. Is it true? And if so, what other mechanism should I use to ensure that the PHP scripts always get only the latest currentItemId even when there are multiple scripts running in parrallel? Would using a text file instead of the db help?

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  • What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms?

    - by Simon
    What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms? I'm tryin to better understand this 'simple' question in order to determine whether or not existing pages I have in a (very) simple site can be easily converted from ASP.NET WebForms. Either a 'conversion' of the process below, or an alternative lifecycle would be what I'm looking for. What I'm currently doing: (yes i know that anyone capable of answering my question already knows all this -- i'm just tryin to get a comparison of the 'lifecycle' so i thought i'd start by filling in what we already all know) Rendering the page: I have a master page which contains my basic template I have content pages that give me named regions from the master page into which I put content. In an event handler for each content page I load data from the database (mostly read-only). I bind this data to ASP.NET controls representing grids, dropdowns or repeaters. This data all 'lives' inside the HTML generated. Some of it gets into ViewState (but I wont go into that too much!) I set properties or bind data to certain items like Image or TextBox controls on the page. The page gets sent to the client rendered as non-reusable HTML. I try to avoid using ViewState other than what the page needs as a minimum. Client side (not using ASP.NET AJAX): I may use JQuery and some nasty tricks to find controls on the page and perform operations on them. If the user selects from a dropdown -- a postback is generated which triggers a C# event in my codebehind. This event may go to the database, but whatever it does a completely newly generated HTML page ends up getting sent back to the client. I may use Page.Session to store key value pairs I need to reuse later So with MVC how does this 'lifecycle' change?

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  • Execute javascript on IIS server

    - by James Westgate
    I have the following situation. A customer uses JavaScript with jQuery to create a complex website. We would like to use JavaScript and jQuery on the server (IIS) for the following reasons: Skills transfer - we would like to use JavaScript and jQuery on the server and not have to use eg VB Script. / classic asp. .Net framework/Java etc is ruled out because of this. Improved options for search/accessibility. We would like to be able to use jQuery as a templating system, but this isn't viable for search engines and users with js turned off - unless we can selectively run this code on the server. There is significant investment in IIS and Windows Server, so changing that is not an option. I know you can run jScript on IIS using windows Script host, but am unsure of the scalability and the process surrounding this. I am also unsure whether this would have access to the DOM. Here is a diagram that hopefully explains the situation. I was wondering if anyone has done anything similar?

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  • Accessing an excel file throws OleDbException but keeps handle on file

    - by Jonn
    Really odd that I'd get an oledbexception but turns out that the file's handle is still with the original file. I've been searching through google and keep finding the same problem but no solutions. Connection String: "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=" + filePath + ";" + "Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;"; Note that it works on every other file except a particular excel file. Exception: System.Data.OleDb.OleDbException: No error information available: E_UNEXPECTED(0x8000FFFF). And then I have exception handling like this: try { IEnumerable<string> worksheetNames = GetWorkbookWorksheetNames(connString); DataSet ds; foreach (string worksheetName in worksheetNames) { OleDbDataAdapter dataAdapter = new OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM [" + worksheetName + "]", connString); ds = new DataSet(); dataAdapter.Fill(ds, "ExcelInfo"); DataTable dt = ds.Tables["ExcelInfo"]; entityList.AddRange(GetDataFromDataTable(dt, worksheetName)); } } catch (OleDbException ex) { File.Move(filePath, filePath + ".invalidFormat.xls"); } Has anyone else encountered this behavior? And I'm not sure how to handle an error that keeps the handle on the file I'm supposed to process. It sort of freezes everything in place.

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  • Using MSBuild 4 command line to publish ASP.NET web application

    - by meandmycode
    In previous msbuild we used the target '_CopyWebApplication' in order to build and convert the source of a project into a published site, this worked OK, but wasn't ideal. In .NET 4, the publishing process is somewhat more sophisticated and additionally seems a bit of a black box to understand. Whilst packages look great, I cannot fully understand how they can be harnessed by a build server, the build server would not get any manifest information, and equally, something (msbuild?) is CREATING this manifest information FROM the project file. In our build server, I ideally want to say, here is my csproj file, deploy it by the package configuration 'x'. I'm trying to understand the workflow I need to make this happen. Right now when I use _CopyWebApplication, the result is different to doing a publish from visual studio 2010, primarily that web.config transforms aren't processed, and obviously msdeploy isn't involved at all. Can somebody point me in the right direction, I believe I need to get msbuild to do the equiv of 'Build Deployment Package', and then use msdeploy to deploy this from our build server to our CI testing environments. I know this is a very vague post, but I hope somebody can give me some hints, I'll be continuing research also, so if I make any progress, I'll post my findings here. Thanks in advance, Stephen.

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  • Standardizing a Release/Tools group on a specific language

    - by grahzny
    I'm part of a six-member build and release team for an embedded software company. We also support a lot of developer tools, such as Atlassian's Fisheye, Jira, etc., Perforce, Bugzilla, AnthillPro, and a couple of homebrew tools (like my Django release notes generator). Most of the time, our team just writes little plugins for larger apps (ex: customize workflows in Anthill), long-term utility scripts (package up a release for QA), or things like Perforce triggers (don't let people check into a specific branch unless their change description includes a bug number; authenticate against Active Directory instead of Perforce's internal passwords). That's about the scale of our problems, although we sometimes tackle something slightly more sizable. My boss, who is reasonably technical, has asked us to standardize on one or two languages so we can more easily substitute for each other. He's advocating bash scripts and Perl, due to their universality and simplicity. I can see his point--we mostly do "glue", so why not use "glue" languages rather than saddle ourselves with something designed for much larger projects? Since some of the tools we work with are Java-based, we do need to use something that speaks JVM sometimes. (The path of least resistance for these projects is BeanShell and Groovy.) I feel a tremendous itch toward language advocacy, but I'm trying to avoid saying "We should use Python 'cause I like it and Perl is gross." Instead, I'm trying to come up with a good approach to defining our problem set: what problems do we solve with scripts? Would we benefit from a library of common functions by our team, or are most of our projects more isolated? What is it reasonable to expect my co-workers to learn? What languages give us the most ease of development and ease of modification? Can you folks suggest some useful ways to approach this problem, both for my own thinking process and to help me facilitate some brainstorming among my coworkers?

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  • Multhreading in Java

    - by Vijay Selvaraj
    I'm working with core java and IBM Websphere MQ 6.0. We have a standalone module say DBcomponent that hits the database and fetches a resultset based on the runtime query. The query is passed to the application via MQ messaging medium. We have a trigger configured for the queue which invokes the DBComponent whenever a message is available in the queue. The DBComponent consumes the message, constructs the query and returns the resultset to another queue. In this overall process we use log4j to log statements on a log file for auditing. The connection is pooled to the database using Apache pool. I am trying to check whether the log messages are logged correctly using a sample program. The program places the input message to the queue and checks for the logs in the log file. Its expected for the trigger method invocation to complete before i try to check for the message in log file, but every time my program to check for log message gets executed first leading my check to failure. Even if i introduce a Thread.sleep(time) doesn't solves the case. How can i make it to keep my method execution waiting until the trigger operation completes? Any suggestion will be helpful.

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  • Calculate order price by date selection value

    - by albatross
    Alright, I know there's a simple way to do this, but it's been years since I've done much javascript My client has an online order form for event registration (developed by previous web dev.). Currently the order total is just a hidden field: <INPUT value=78.00 type=hidden name=amount /> But I need the total to calculate based on what date they choose: <SELECT style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: #ffff99" name=altDate1> <OPTION value=04/09> Friday, April 9 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/14> Wednesday, April 14 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/16> Friday, April 16 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/19> Monday, April 19 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/29> Thursday, April 29 </OPTION> </SELECT> This is the javascript that process the form: <SCRIPT language=Javascript> function PaymentButtonClick() { document.addform.Product_Name.value = document.Information.StudentLastName.value + ","+ document.Information.StudentFirstName.value+","+ document.Information.StudentID.value+","+ document.Information.altDate1.name+","+","+ document.Information.Guests.value+ "," + document.Information.StudentType.value; document.addform.Product_Code.value = document.Information.StudentID.value; if ((document.Information.UCheck.checked==true) && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "") && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "x")) { if (document.Information.StudentLastName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentFirstName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentID.value != "" ) { document.addform.submit(); } else { alert("Please enter missing information"); } } } </SCRIPT>

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  • Define DataSource bean on code

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    I would like to make a "First Access Database Setup Process" in my spring application and the only thing I can imagine as a solution would be to initialize the DataSource bean programatically. My current bean is defined as: <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/catalog" /> <property name="username" value="condominium" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="validationQuery" value="SELECT 1" /> <property name="testOnBorrow" value="true" /> <property name="defaultAutoCommit" value="false" /> <property name="maxWait" value="5000" /> </bean> but the ideal thing was to load it by myself in whenever I need it and with the parameter I define. The scenario is that the user (administrator) comes to the application at the first time and I ask him the server, port and catalog to connect. I store it in a embeeded db and next time application start, a bean can check if the parameter are set on the embedded db and load it again. Is it possible?

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  • In Netbeans+Ant, how do I avoid wsimport rebuilding web service clients every build?

    - by gustafc
    I'm on a project where we use NetBeans (6.8). We use several different web services, which we have added as web service references, and Netbeans auto-generates the Ant wsimport scripts for us. Very handy, with one drawback: The web service clients are recompiled every time ant is invoked. This slows down the build process considerably and has caused the number of sword-related injuries, maimings and deaths to skyrocket. Normally, I'd fix this by changing the wsimport element from <wsimport sourcedestdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" destdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" wsdl="${wsdl-PonyService}" catalog="catalog.xml" verbose="true"/> to <wsimport sourcedestdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" destdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" wsdl="${wsdl-PonyService}" catalog="catalog.xml" verbose="true"> <produces dir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" /> </wsimport> But I can't, 'cause this part of the Ant script is auto-generated. If I right-click the PonyService web service reference and select Edit Web Service Attributes ⇒ wsimport options, I can add attributes to the wsimport element, but not child elements. So: How do I add the produces child element to wsimport other than hacking the auto-generated Ant script? Or more generally: How do I make the NetBeans-generated wsimport not recompile the web service clients every time I build?

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  • Redirect to another action in an interceptor in struts 2

    - by user292662
    I am currently in the process of learning Struts 2 and I am currently building a simple application where unverified users are redirected to a login form. I have a login form and action functional which takes the users credentials, verifies them and stores a User object in the session however I am now trying to prevent access to pages before the login has taken place and I am trying to do this with an interceptor. My problem is that I have written an interceptor that checks whether the User object has been saved in the session but if it has not I want to redirect to the login page and can't find any way of doing this without bypassing struts and using the HttpServletResponse.sendRedirect method Configuration: <package name="mypackage" extends="struts-default" namespace="/admin"> <interceptors> <interceptor name="login" class="my.LoginInterceptor" /> </interceptors> <default-interceptor-ref name="login"/> <action name="login" class="my.LoginAction"> <result name="input">/admin/login.jsp</result> <result name="success" type="redirect">/admin</result> </action> <action name="private" class="my.PrivateAction"> <result>/admin/private.jsp</result> </action> </package> The interceptor code: @Override public String intercept(ActionInvocation inv) throws Exception { Map<String, Object> session = inv.getInvocationContext().getSession(); Object user = session.get("user"); if(user == null) { // redirect to the 'login' action here } else { return inv.invoke(); } }

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  • Django sphinx works only after app restart.

    - by Lhiash
    Hi, I've set up django-sphinx in my project, which works perfectly only for some time. Later it always returns empty result set. Surprisingly restarting django app fixes it. And search works again but again only for short time (or very limiter number of queries). Heres my sphinx.conf: source src_questions { # data source type = mysql sql_host = xxxxxx sql_user = xxxxxx #replace with your db username sql_pass = xxxxxx #replace with your db password sql_db = xxxxxx #replace with your db name # these two are optional sql_port = xxxxxx #sql_sock = /var/lib/mysql/mysql.sock # pre-query, executed before the main fetch query sql_query_pre = SET NAMES utf8 # main document fetch query sql_query = SELECT q.id AS id, q.title AS title, q.tagnames AS tags, q.html AS text, q.level AS level \ FROM question AS q \ WHERE q.deleted=0 \ # optional - used by command-line search utility to display document information sql_query_info = SELECT title, id, level FROM question WHERE id=$id sql_attr_uint = level } index questions { # which document source to index source = src_questions # this is path and index file name without extension # you may need to change this path or create this folder path = /home/rafal/core_index/index_questions # docinfo (ie. per-document attribute values) storage strategy docinfo = extern # morphology morphology = stem_en # stopwords file #stopwords = /var/data/sphinx/stopwords.txt # minimum word length min_word_len = 3 # uncomment next 2 lines to allow wildcard (*) searches min_infix_len = 1 enable_star = 1 # charset encoding type charset_type = utf-8 } # indexer settings indexer { # memory limit (default is 32M) mem_limit = 64M } # searchd settings searchd { # IP address on which search daemon will bind and accept # optional, default is to listen on all addresses, # ie. address = 0.0.0.0 address = 127.0.0.1 # port on which search daemon will listen port = 3312 # searchd run info is logged here - create or change the folder log = ../log/sphinx.log # all the search queries are logged here query_log = ../log/query.log # client read timeout, seconds read_timeout = 5 # maximum amount of children to fork max_children = 30 # a file which will contain searchd process ID pid_file = searchd.pid # maximum amount of matches this daemon would ever retrieve # from each index and serve to client max_matches = 1000 } and heres my search part from views.py: content = Question.search.query(keywords) if level: content = content.filter(level=level)#level is array of integers There are no errors in any logs, it just isnt returning any results. All help would be most appreciated.

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  • Why did this work with Visual C++, but not with gcc?

    - by Carlos Nunez
    I've been working on a senior project for the last several months now, and a major sticking point in our team's development process has been dealing wtih rifts between Visual-C++ and gcc. (Yes, I know we all should have had the same development environment.) Things are about finished up at this point, but I ran into a moderate bug just today that had me wondering whether Visual-C++ is easier on newbies (like me) by design. In one of my headers, there is a function that relies on strtok to chop up a string, do some comparisons and return a string with a similar format. It works a little something like the following: int main() { string a, b, c; //Do stuff with a and b. c = get_string(a,b); } string get_string(string a, string b) { const char * a_ch, b_ch; a_ch = strtok(a.c_str(),","); b_ch = strtok(b.c_str(),","); } strtok is infamous for being great at tokenizing, but equally great at destroying the original string to be tokenized. Thus, when I compiled this with gcc and tried to do anything with a or b, I got unexpected behavior, since the separator used was completely removed in the string. Here's an example in case I'm unclear; if I set a = "Jim,Bob,Mary" and b="Grace,Soo,Hyun", they would be defined as a="JimBobMary" and b="GraceSooHyun" instead of staying the same like I wanted. However, when I compiled this under Visual C++, I got back the original strings and the program executed fine. I tried dynamically allocating memory to the strings and copying them the "standard" way, but the only way that worked was using malloc() and free(), which I hear is discouraged in C++. While I'm curious about that, the real question I have is this: Why did the program work when compiled in VC++, but not with gcc? (This is one of many conflicts that I experienced while trying to make the code cross-platform.) Thanks in advance! -Carlos Nunez

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  • What is causing Apache2 to display PHP as plain text in this config file?

    - by rxgx
    I am trying to run PHP and Rails in the same virtual host, however, PHP is being displayed as plain/text. When I create a test host without all the rewrites and proxy-ing, Apache2 will process the PHP as desired. Where in my config file have I gone wrong? <VirtualHost *:80> #ServerName staging.domain.com #ServerAlias www.domain.com DocumentRoot /home/demo/vhosts/domain/public <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None </Directory> <Directory /home/demo/vhosts/domain/public> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> RewriteEngine On <Proxy balancer://thinservers> BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5000 BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5001 BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5002 </Proxy> # Redirect all non-static requests to thin RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}/%{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ balancer://thinservers%{REQUEST_URI} [P,QSA,L] ProxyPass / balancer://thinservers/ ProxyPassReverse / balancer://thinservers/ ProxyPreserveHost on <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> # Custom log file locations ErrorLog /home/demo/vhosts/domain/log/error.log CustomLog /home/demo/vhosts/domain/log/access.log combined </VirtualHost>

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  • .NET out of memory troubleshooting

    - by bushman
    After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

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  • instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

    - by gwk
    My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

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  • How can a program be detected as running?

    - by ryeguy
    I have written a program that is sort of an unofficial, standalone plugin for an application. It allows customers to get a service that is a lower priced alternative then the vendor-owned one. My program is not illegal, against any kind of TOS, and is certainly not a virus, adware, or anything like that. That being said, the vendor of course is not happy about me taking his competition, and is trying to block my application from running. He has already tried some tactics to stop people from running my app alongside his. He makes it so if it is detected, his app throws a fake error. First, he checked to see if my program was running by looking for an open window with the right title. I countered this by randomizing the program title at startup. Next, he looked for the running process name. I countered this by making the app copy itself when it is started as [random string].exe and then running that. Anyways, my question is this: what else can he do to detect if my program running? I know that you can read window text (ie status bar, labels). I'm prepared to counter this by replacing the labels with images (ugh, any other way?). But what else is there? Can you detect what .dlls a program has loaded? If so, could this be solved by randomizing the dll names before loading them? I know that it's possible to get a program's signature in memory and track it that way (like a virus scanner), but the chances of him doing that probably aren't good because that sounds pretty advanced. Even though this is kinda crappy of him to be doing, its kind of fun. It's like a nerdy fist fight. EDIT: When I said it's a plugin, that is just the (incorrect) term I used. It's a standalone EXE. The "API" between my program and the other is mine is simply entering data into the controls (like textboxes, etc).

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  • How to query two tables based on whether or not record exists in a third?

    - by Katherine
    I have three tables, the first two fairly standard: 1) PRODUCTS table: pid pname, etc 2) CART table: cart_id cart_pid cart_orderid etc The third is designed to let people save products they buy and keep notes on them. 3) MYPRODUCTS table: myprod_id myprod_pid PRODUCTS.prod_id = CART.cart_prodid = MYPRODUCTS.myprod_pid When a user orders, they are presented with a list of products on their order, and can optionally add that product to myproducts. I am getting the info necessary for them to do this, with a query something like this for each order: SELECT cart.pid, products.pname, products.pid FROM products, cart WHERE products.pid = cart_prodid AND cart_orderid=orderid This is fine the first time they order. However, if they subsequently reorder a product which they have already added to myproducts, then it should NOT be possible for them to add it to myproducts again - basically instead of 'Add to MyProducts' they need to see 'View in MyProducts'. I am thinking I can separate the products using two queries: Products never added to MyProducts By somehow identifying whether the user has the product in MyProducts already, and if so excluding it from the query above. Products already in MyProducts By reversing the process above. I need some pointers on how to do this though.

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  • Run AppleScript with Elevated Privileges from Objective C

    - by cygnl7
    I'm attempting to execute an uninstaller (written in AppleScript) through AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges. I'm setting up my rights after creating an empty auth ref like so: char *tool = "/usr/bin/osascript"; AuthorizationItem items = {kAuthorizationRightExecute, strlen(tool), tool, 0}; AuthorizationRights rights = {sizeof(items)/sizeof(AuthorizationItem), &items}; AuthorizationFlags flags = kAuthorizationFlagDefaults | kAuthorizationFlagExtendRights | kAuthorizationFlagPreAuthorize | kAuthorizationFlagInteractionAllowed; status = AuthorizationCopyRights(authorizationRef, &rights, NULL, flags, NULL); Later I call: status = AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges(authorizationRef, tool, kAuthorizationFlagDefaults, (char *const *)args, NULL); On Snow Leopard this works fine, but on Leopard I get the following in syslog.log: Apr 19 15:30:09 hostname /usr/bin/osascript[39226]: OpenScripting.framework - 'gdut' event blocked in process with mixed credentials (issetugid=0 uid=501 euid=0 gid=20 egid=20) Apr 19 15:30:12: --- last message repeated 1 time --- ... Apr 19 15:30:12 hostname [0x0-0x2e92e9].com.example.uninstaller[39219]: /var/folders/vm/vmkIi0nYG8mHMrllaXaTgk+++TI/-Tmp-/TestApp_tmpfiles/Uninstall.scpt: Apr 19 15:30:12 hostname [0x0-0x2e92e9].com.example.uninstaller[39219]: execution error: «constant afdmasup» doesn’t understand the «event earsffdr» message. (-1708) After researching this for a few hours my first guess is that Leopard somehow doesn't want to do what I'm doing because it knows it's in a setuid situation and blocks calls that ask about user-specific things in the applescript. Am I going about this all wrong? I just want to run the equivalent of "sudo /usr/bin/osascript ..." Edit: FWIW, the first line that causes the "execution error" is: set userAppSupportPath to (POSIX path of (path to application support folder from user domain)) However, even with an empty script (on run argv, end run and that's it) I still get the 'gdut' message.

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