Search Results

Search found 18454 results on 739 pages for 'oracle thoughts'.

Page 719/739 | < Previous Page | 715 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726  | Next Page >

  • MKMapView memory usage grows out of control with setRegion: calls

    - by Kurt
    Hi, I have a single MKMapView instance that I have programmatically added to a UIView. As part of the UI, the user can cycle through a list of addresses and the map view is updated to show the correct map for each address as the user goes through them. I create the map view once, and simply change what it displays with setRegion:animated:. The problem is that each time the map is changed to show a new address, the memory usage of my program increases by 200K-500K (as reported by Memory Monitor in Instruments). According to Object Allocations, it appears that a lot of 1.0K Mallocs are happening each time, and the Extended Detail pane for these 1.0K allocations shows that the Responsible Caller is convert_image_data and the Extended Detail pane shows that this is the result of [MKMapTileView drawLayer:inContext:]. So, seems likely to me that the memory usage is due to MKMapView not freeing memory it uses to redraw the map each time. In fact, when I don't display the map at all (by not even adding it as a subview of my main UIView) but still cycle through the addresses (which changes various UILabels and other displayed info) the memory usage for the app does NOT increase. If I add the map view but never update it with setRegion:, the memory also does NOT increase when changing to a new address. One more bit of info: if I go to a new address (and therefore ask the map to display the new address) the memory jumps as described above. However, if I go back to an address that was already displayed, the memory does not jump when the map redraws with the old address. Also, this happens on iPad (real device) with 3.2 and on iPhone (again, real device) with 3.1.2. Here's how I initialize the MKMapView (I only do this once): CGRect mapFrame; mapFrame.origin.y = 460; // yes, magic numbers. just for testing. mapFrame.origin.x = 0; mapFrame.size.height = 500; mapFrame.size.width = 768; mapView = [[MKMapView alloc] initWithFrame:mapFrame]; mapView.delegate = self; [self.view insertSubview:mapView atIndex:0]; And in response to the user selecting an address, I set the map like so: MKCoordinateRegion region; MKCoordinateSpan span; span.latitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 span.longitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 region.center = address.coords; // coords is CLLocationCoordinate2D region.span = span; mapView.region.span = span; [mapView setRegion:region animated:NO]; Any thoughts? I've scoured the net but haven't seen mention of this problem, and I've reached the limits of my Instruments knowledge. Thanks for any ideas.

    Read the article

  • C# Silverlight - Delay Child Window Load?!

    - by Goober
    The Scenario Currently I have a C# Silverlight Application That uses the domainservice class and the ADO.Net Entity Framework to communicate with my database. I want to load a child window upon clicking a button with some data that I retrieve from a server-side query to the database. The Process The first part of this process involves two load operations to load separate data from 2 tables. The next part of the process involves combining those lists of data to display in a listbox. The Problem The problem with this is that the first two asynchronous load operations haven't returned the data by the time the section of code to combine these lists of data is reached, thus result in a null value exception..... Initial Load Operations To Get The Data: public void LoadAudits(Guid jobID) { var context = new InmZenDomainContext(); var imageLoadOperation = context.Load(context.GetImageByIDQuery(jobID)); imageLoadOperation.Completed += (sender3, e3) => { imageList = ((LoadOperation<InmZen.Web.Image>)sender3).Entities.ToList(); }; var auditLoadOperation = context.Load(context.GetAuditByJobIDQuery(jobID)); auditLoadOperation.Completed += (sender2, e2) => { auditList = ((LoadOperation<Audit>)sender2).Entities.ToList(); }; } I Then Want To Execute This Immediately: IEnumerable<JobImageAudit> jobImageAuditList = from a in auditList join ai in imageList on a.ImageID equals ai.ImageID select new JobImageAudit { JobID = a.JobID, ImageID = a.ImageID.Value, CreatedBy = a.CreatedBy, CreatedDate = a.CreatedDate, Comment = a.Comment, LowResUrl = ai.LowResUrl, }; auditTrailList.ItemsSource = jobImageAuditList; However I can't because the async calls haven't returned with the data yet... Thus I have to do this (Perform the Load Operations, Then Press A Button On The Child Window To Execute The List Concatenation and binding): private void LoadAuditsButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { IEnumerable<JobImageAudit> jobImageAuditList = from a in auditList join ai in imageList on a.ImageID equals ai.ImageID select new JobImageAudit { JobID = a.JobID, ImageID = a.ImageID.Value, CreatedBy = a.CreatedBy, CreatedDate = a.CreatedDate, Comment = a.Comment, LowResUrl = ai.LowResUrl, }; auditTrailList.ItemsSource = jobImageAuditList; } Potential Ideas for Solutions: Delay the child window displaying somehow? Potentially use DomainDataSource and the Activity Load control?! Any thoughts, help, solutions, samples comments etc. greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Salesforce/PHP - Bulk Outbound message (SOAP), Time out issue

    - by Phill Pafford
    Salesforce can send up to 100 requests inside 1 SOAP message. While sending this type of Bulk Ooutbound message request my PHP script finishes executing but SF fails to accept the ACK used to clear the message queue on the Salesforce side of things. Looking at the Outbound message log (monitoring) I see all the messages in a pending state with the Delivery Failure Reason "java.net.SocketTimeoutException: Read timed out". If my script has finished execution, why do I get this error? I have tried these methods to increase the execution time on my server as I have no access on the Salesforce side: set_time_limit(0); // in the script max_execution_time = 360 ; Maximum execution time of each script, in seconds max_input_time = 360 ; Maximum amount of time each script may spend parsing request data memory_limit = 32M ; Maximum amount of memory a script may consume I used the high settings just for testing. Any thoughts as to why this is failing the ACK delivery back to Salesforce? Here is some of the code: This is how I accept and send the ACK file for the imcoming SOAP request $data = 'php://input'; $content = file_get_contents($data); if($content) { respond('true'); } else { respond('false'); } The respond function function respond($tf) { $ACK = <<<ACK <?xml version = "1.0" encoding = "utf-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <notifications xmlns="http://soap.sforce.com/2005/09/outbound"> <Ack>$tf</Ack> </notifications> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> ACK; print trim($ACK); } These are in a generic script that I include into the script that uses the data for a specific workflow. I can process about 25 requests (That are in 1 SOAP response) but once I go over that I get the timeout error in the Salesforce queue. for 50 requests is usually takes my PHP script 86.77 seconds. Could it be Apache? PHP? I have also tested just accepting the 100 request SOAP response and just accepting and sending the ACK the queue clears out, so I know it's on my side of things. I show no errors in the apache log, the script runs fine. Thanks for any insight into this, --Phill

    Read the article

  • AVAudioRecorder Memory Leak

    - by Eric Ranschau
    I'm hoping someone out there can back me up on this... I've been working on an application that allows the end user to record a small audio file for later playback and am in the process of testing for memory leaks. I continue to very consistently run into a memory leak when the AVAudioRecorder's "stop" method attempts to close the audio file to which it's been recording. This really seems to be a leak in the framework itself, but if I'm being a bonehead you can tell me. To illustrate, I've worked up a stripped down test app that does nothing but start/stop a recording w/ the press of a button. For the sake of simplicty, everything happens in app. delegate as follows: @synthesize audioRecorder, button; @synthesize window; - (BOOL) application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // create compplete path to database NSString *tempPath = NSTemporaryDirectory(); NSString *audioFilePath = [tempPath stringByAppendingString:@"/customStatement.caf"]; // define audio file url NSURL *audioFileURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath:audioFilePath]; // define audio recorder settings NSDictionary *settings = [[NSDictionary alloc] initWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:kAudioFormatAppleIMA4], AVFormatIDKey, [NSNumber numberWithInt:1], AVNumberOfChannelsKey, [NSNumber numberWithInt:AVAudioQualityLow], AVSampleRateConverterAudioQualityKey, [NSNumber numberWithFloat:44100], AVSampleRateKey, [NSNumber numberWithInt:8], AVLinearPCMBitDepthKey, nil ]; // define audio recorder audioRecorder = [[AVAudioRecorder alloc] initWithURL:audioFileURL settings:settings error:nil]; [audioRecorder setDelegate:self]; [audioRecorder setMeteringEnabled:YES]; [audioRecorder prepareToRecord]; // define record button button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(handleTouch_recordButton) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [button setFrame:CGRectMake(110.0, 217.5, 100.0, 45.0)]; [button setTitle:@"Record" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button setTitle:@"Stop" forState:UIControlStateSelected]; // configure the main view controller UIViewController *viewController = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [viewController.view addSubview:button]; // add controllers to window [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; // release [audioFileURL release]; [settings release]; [viewController release]; return YES; } - (void) handleTouch_recordButton { if ( ![button isSelected] ) { [button setSelected:YES]; [audioRecorder record]; } else { [button setSelected:NO]; [audioRecorder stop]; } } - (void) dealloc { [audioRecorder release]; [button release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } The stack trace from Instruments that shows pretty clearly that the "closeFile" method in the AVFoundation code is leaking...something. You can see a screen shot of the Instruments session here: Developer Forums: AVAudioRecorder Memory Leak Any thoughts would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Android GridView with ads below

    - by ktambascio
    Hi, I'm trying to integrate ads (admob) into my Android app. It's mostly working, except for one issue with the layout. My layout consists of: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" xmlns:app="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/com.example.photos"> <LinearLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/status_layout"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/cardStatus" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/hello" android:id="@+id/cardStatusText" /> </LinearLayout> <GridView android:id="@+id/imageGridView" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:padding="10dp" android:verticalSpacing="10dp" android:horizontalSpacing="10dp" android:numColumns="auto_fit" android:columnWidth="100dp" android:stretchMode="columnWidth" android:gravity="center" android:layout_below="@id/status_layout" /> <!-- Place an AdMob ad at the bottom of the screen. --> <!-- It has white text on a black background. --> <!-- The description of the surrounding context is 'Android game'. --> <com.admob.android.ads.AdView android:id="@+id/ad" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" app:backgroundColor="#000000" app:primaryTextColor="#FFFFFF" app:secondaryTextColor="#CCCCCC" app:keywords="Android Photo" /> </RelativeLayout> The ads are shown at the bottom of the screen, just as I want. However, they seem to be overlayed or drawn on top of the bottom portion of the grid view. I would like the gridview to be shorter, so that the ad can fill the bottom portion of the screen, and not hide part of the gridview. The problem is most annoying when you scroll all the way to the bottom of the gridview, and you still cannot fully see the last row items in the grid due to the ad. I'm not sure if this is the standard way that AdMob ads work. If this is the case, adding some padding to the bottom of the grid (if that's possible) would due the trick. That way the user can scroll a bit further, and see the last row in addition to the ad. I just switched from using LinearLayout to RelativeLayout after reading some similar issues with ListViews. Now my ad is along the bottom instead of above the grid, so I'm getting closer. Thoughts? -Kevin

    Read the article

  • Myfaces extensionfilter overriding renderkit? (Tree2 component)

    - by Mike
    I've pulled in the tree2 component (from Tomahawk 1.1.9). Had used the simpler Tree component on previous projects, and this one just looks a bit nicer. Running on websphere 6.1.x and set the server side flag that's needed (com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.invokefilterscompatibility=true) and set the extensionfilter accordingly. Everything's good, and works as expected. Here's the issue: - on a page being included on this one (just some typical footer type info with NO myfaces widgets), there's some embedded html that's getting flagged with warnings in the systemout console). These look like org.apache.myfaces.renderkit.html.util.ReducedHTMLParser parse Invalid tag found: unexpected input while looking for attr name or '/' at line 475. Surroundings: 'span id="tile:footr:viewFragm'. org.apache.myfaces.renderkit.html.util.ReducedHTMLParser parse Invalid tag found: unexpected input while looking for attr name or '/' at line 479. Surroundings: 'a id="tile:footr:viewFragment'. org.apache.myfaces.renderkit.html.util.ReducedHTMLParser parse Invalid tag found: unexpected input while looking for attr name or '/' at line 492. Surroundings: 'a id="tile:footr:viewFragment'. The problem isn't necessarily with the html (which should be cleaned up regardless :-). IF I don't include myfaces, I don't get these warning messages with the default ibm jsf renderer (using jsf 1.1 still). Obviously, IBM's implementation is a bit more lax than myFaces. The page has nothing to do with myfaces at all. The reason for needing the extension filter is that it needs (for the Tree2 anyways, I know it does more for file upload) to intercept requests and then stick some .js includes on the page. Investigated this a bit, and I've included this filter in my web.xml, but it is NO longer fronting the faces servlet. So, the filter is instantiated at startup, but is never executed. Since the filter isn't in place, I've had to hard code in the includes for the 2 .js files into my page Now, the tree2 gets rendered properly, AND I'm not getting the warnings from above, because with the extentionfilter not being called, its using the IBM renderkit ;-) I'm a bit concerned that when the extension filter is in place, everything is being rendered by myFaces, rather than IBM's renderkit (i.e. All I want is myfaces/tomahawk to render the tree2 only, and let the ri do everything else) Can anyone confirm this? When you use myfaces/tomahawk, is it doing all the rendering for the whole application, or just the page any tomahawk widget is on? Thanks for any thoughts on this mike

    Read the article

  • Objective-C wrapper API design methodology

    - by Wade Williams
    I know there's no one answer to this question, but I'd like to get people's thoughts on how they would approach the situation. I'm writing an Objective-C wrapper to a C library. My goals are: 1) The wrapper use Objective-C objects. For example, if the C API defines a parameter such as char *name, the Objective-C API should use name:(NSString *). 2) The client using the Objective-C wrapper should not have to have knowledge of the inner-workings of the C library. Speed is not really any issue. That's all easy with simple parameters. It's certainly no problem to take in an NSString and convert it to a C string to pass it to the C library. My indecision comes in when complex structures are involved. Let's say you have: struct flow { long direction; long speed; long disruption; long start; long stop; } flow_t; And then your C API call is: void setFlows(flow_t inFlows[4]); So, some of the choices are: 1) expose the flow_t structure to the client and have the Objective-C API take an array of those structures 2) build an NSArray of four NSDictionaries containing the properties and pass that as a parameter 3) create an NSArray of four "Flow" objects containing the structure's properties and pass that as a parameter My analysis of the approaches: Approach 1: Easiest. However, it doesn't meet the design goals Approach 2: For some reason, this seems to me to be the most "Objective-C" way of doing it. However, each element of the NSDictionary would have to be wrapped in an NSNumber. Now it seems like we're doing an awful lot just to pass the equivalent of a struct. Approach 3: Seems the cleanest to me from an object-oriented standpoint and the extra encapsulation could come in handy later. However, like #2, it now seems like we're doing an awful lot (creating an array, creating and initializing objects) just to pass a struct. So, the question is, how would you approach this situation? Are there other choices I'm not considering? Are there additional advantages or disadvantages to the approaches I've presented that I'm not considering?

    Read the article

  • Crawling engine architecture - Java/ Perl integration

    - by Bigtwinz
    Hi all, I am looking to develop a management and administration solution around our webcrawling perl scripts. Basically, right now our scripts are saved in SVN and are manually kicked off by SysAdmin/devs etc. Everytime we need to retrieve data from new sources we have to create a ticket with business instructions and goals. As you can imagine, not an optimal solution. There are 3 consistent themes with this system: the retrieval of data has a "conceptual structure" for lack of a better phrase i.e. the retrieval of information follows a particular path we are only looking for very specific information so we dont have to really worry about extensive crawling for awhile (think thousands-tens of thousands of pages vs millions) crawls are url-based instead of site-based. As I enhance this alpha version to a more production-level beta I am looking to add automation and management of the retrieval of data. Additionally our other systems are Java (which I'm more proficient in) and I'd like to compartmentalize the perl aspects so we dont have to lean heavily on outside help. I've evaluated the usual suspects Nutch, Droid etc but the time spent on modifying those frameworks to suit our specific information retrieval cant be justified. So I'd like your thoughts regarding the following architecture. I want to create a solution which use Java as the interface for managing and execution of the perl scripts use Java for configuration and data access stick with perl for retrieval An example use case would be a data analyst delivers us a requirement for crawling perl developer creates the required script and uses this webapp to submit the script (which gets saved to the filesystem) the script gets kicked off from the webapp with specific parameters .... Webapp should be able to create multiple threads of the perl script to initiate multiple crawlers. So questions are what do you think how solid is integration between Java and Perl specifically from calling perl from java has someone used such a system which actually is part perl repository The goal really is to not have a whole bunch of unorganized perl scripts and put some management and organization on our information retrieval. Also, I know I can use perl do do the web part of what we want - but as I mentioned before - trying to keep perl focused. But it seems assbackwards I'm not adverse to making it an all perl solution. Open to any all suggestions and opinions. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to run a powershell script within a DOS batch file

    - by Don Vince
    How do I have a powershell script embedded within the same file as a DOS batch script? I know this kind of thing is possible in other scenarios: Embedding SQL in a DOS batch script using sqlcmd and a clever arrangements of goto's and comments at the beginning of the file In a *nix environment having a the name of the program you wish to run the script with on the first line of the script commented out e.g. #!/usr/local/bin/python There may not be a way to do this - in which case I will have to call the separate powershell script from the launching DOS script. One possible solution I've considered is to echo out the powershell script, and then run it. A good reason to not do this is that part of the reason to attempt this is to be using the advantages of the powershell environment without the pain of, for example, DOS escape characters I have some unusual constraints and would like to find an elegant solution. I suspect this question may be baiting responses of the variety: "why don't you try and solve this different problem instead." Suffice to say these are my constraints, sorry about that. Any ideas? Is there a suitable combination of clever comments and escape characters that will enable me to achieve this? Some thoughts on how to achieve this: A carat ^ at the end of a line in DOS is a continuation - like an underscore in VB An ampersand & in DOS typically is used to separate commands echo Hello & echo World results in 2 echos on separate lines %0 will give you the script that's currently running So something like this (if I could make it work) would be good: # & call powershell -psconsolefile %0 # & goto :EOF /* From here on in we're running nice juicy powershell code */ Write-Output "Hello World" Except... It doesn't work... because the extension of the file isn't as per powershell's liking: Windows PowerShell console file "insideout.bat" extension is not psc1. Windows PowerShell console file extension must be psc1. DOS isn't really altogether happy with the situation either - although it does stumble on '#' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file.

    Read the article

  • Wordpress 403/404 Errors: You don't have permission to access /wp-admin/themes.php on this server

    - by Glen
    Some background: I setup six blogs this week, all using Wordpress 2.92, installed with Fantastico on a baby croc plan with Hostgator. I used the same theme (heatmap 2.5.4) and plugins for each blog. They were all up and running, no issues at all. I go to create a new blog this morning, using the same setup, and when I try to change the theme settings, I get the following error: Forbidden You don't have permission to access /wp-admin/themes.php on this server. Additionally, a 404 Not Found error was encountered while trying to use an ErrorDocument to handle the request. Apache/2.2.15 (Unix) mod_ssl/2.2.15 OpenSSL/0.9.8n DAV/2 mod_fcgid/2.3.5 mod_auth_passthrough/2.1 mod_bwlimited/1.4 FrontPage/5.0.2.2635 Server at http://www.mydomain.com Port 80 I tried uninstalling WP and doing a clean install, still the same issue with a clean installation. So I went back and checked the six other blogs that I had setup over the last week or so, and they are also now giving me 403 or 404 errors when trying to change theme settings, and everytime there's an error it points to either themes.php or functions.php At this point I'm at my wits end trying to figure out what the problem is. Hostgator support looked at it and thought maybe it was a permissions issue but they reset those and I'm still having the problem. At first I thought the problem might have been related to a plugin I recently installed on the previous six blogs that morning (ByREV Fix Missed Shedule Plugin) to deal with a missed schedule bug with WP 2.92, and that maybe that had mucked things up. But then I checked a blog I built months ago, also using the same theme and plugins, and now it too is also encountering the same problem. Any ideas? I tried deleting my htaccess, uploading a blank one, uploading one with this snippet I found on the hostgator forum: # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress Nothing has worked. I still get 403 or 404 errors everytime. Everything was working perfectly yesterday so I know this setup DOES WORK, I've just mucked something up somewhere and I'm clueless what it is. I read a related thread here and tried chmoding the wp-content folder to 0755 and still having the issue. Any thoughts? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to best design a date/geographic proximity query on GAE?

    - by Dane
    Hi all, I'm building a directory for finding athletic tournaments on GAE with web2py and a Flex front end. The user selects a location, a radius, and a maximum date from a set of choices. I have a basic version of this query implemented, but it's inefficient and slow. One way I know I can improve it is by condensing the many individual queries I'm using to assemble the objects into bulk queries. I just learned that was possible. But I'm also thinking about a more extensive redesign that utilizes memcache. The main problem is that I can't query the datastore by location because GAE won't allow multiple numerical comparison statements (<,<=,=,) in one query. I'm already using one for date, and I'd need TWO to check both latitude and longitude, so it's a no go. Currently, my algorithm looks like this: 1.) Query by date and select 2.) Use destination function from geopy's distance module to find the max and min latitude and longitudes for supplied distance 3.) Loop through results and remove all with lat/lng outside max/min 4.) Loop through again and use distance function to check exact distance, because step 2 will include some areas outside the radius. Remove results outside supplied distance (is this 2/3/4 combination inefficent?) 5.) Assemble many-to-many lists and attach to objects (this is where I need to switch to bulk operations) 6.) Return to client Here's my plan for using memcache.. let me know if I'm way out in left field on this as I have no prior experience with memcache or server caching in general. -Keep a list in the cache filled with "geo objects" that represent all my data. These have five properties: latitude, longitude, event_id, event_type (in anticipation of expanding beyond tournaments), and start_date. This list will be sorted by date. -Also keep a dict of pointers in the cache which represent the start and end indices in the cache for all the date ranges my app uses (next week, 2 weeks, month, 3 months, 6 months, year, 2 years). -Have a scheduled task that updates the pointers daily at 12am. -Add new inserts to the cache as well as the datastore; update pointers. Using this design, the algorithm would now look like: 1.) Use pointers to slice off appropriate chunk of list based on supplied date. 2-4.) Same as above algorithm, except with geo objects 5.) Use bulk operation to select full tournaments using remaining geo objects' event_ids 6.) Assemble many-to-manys 7.) Return to client Thoughts on this approach? Many thanks for reading and any advice you can give. -Dane

    Read the article

  • ModalPopup CodeBehind Function Wait For User Response

    - by Snave
    I have set up a function which returns an enum of the button that the user clicked in the ModalPopup. I have a variable of type enum to store which button the user clicks in the button click event. In this function, I call the ModalPopupExtender's Show() method. My problem is, the function finishes out and returns the default enum (which is "none" since no button was clicked yet) before the ModalPopup can be shown and store which button the user clicks. So without changing the function to a method and using a different way to store the user's button click, how can I pause the function after the Show() method of the MPE has been called and wait for the user to click a button? Edit(11/20/2009): Clarification: On the aspx page, I include a ScriptManager, PlaceHolder, and an asp:Button with a codebehind click event. What I want is to click the button, then in the click event handler, I want to call a custom static class function that returns a variable. One of the arguments it takes is the PlaceHolder. The function creates all the necessary controls in the PlaceHolder needed to display a ModalPopup. It calls the created ModalPopupExtender's Show() method. What should happen: At this point is the ModalPopup gets displayed, the user clicks a button, that button's event handler fires, the button sets a variable indicating that it was clicked, it then calls the ModalPopupExtender's .Hide() method, and then the function returns the variable that indicates which button was clicked. We then return to the event handler from the original button that was clicked and the programmer can then perform some logic based on what variable was returned. Crux: When the ModalPopupExtender's .Show() method gets called, it does not display the ModalPopup until AFTER the function returns a default variable (because no button was clicked yet) and after the event handler from the original button that was clicked ends. What I need: After the ModalPopupExtender's .Show() method is called, I need the ModalPopup to get displayed immediately and I need the function to wait for a button click to be made from the ModalPopup. My thoughts: Some PostBack needs to be made to the page telling it to update and display the ModalPopup Panel. Then maybe a while loop can be run in the function that waits for a button to be clicked in the ModalPopup.

    Read the article

  • html widget communicating with server

    - by Nikita Rybak
    I'm making html widget for websites. Let's say, it will display current stock indexes. In short, arbitrary website owner takes code snippet from me and includes it on his webpage http://website.com/index.html. When arbitrary user opens http://website.com/index.html, my code sends request to my server (provider.com), which performs necessary operations and returns information to user's browser. When response has arrived, user will see relevant stock value on http://website.com/index.html. In index.html service could be called like this <script type="text/javascript" src="provider.com/service.js"> </script> <div id="target_area"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> service.show("target_area", options); </script> Now, the problem is in the same origin policy: I can't just send ajax request from website.com to provided.com and return html to embed in client's webpage. I see several solutions, which I list below, but none quite satisfy me. I wonder, if you could suggest something, especially if you had some relevant experience. 1) iframe, plain and simple. Disadvantage: must have fixed dimensions + stupid scroll bars appearing in some browsers. Can be fixed with javascript, but all this browser-specific tinkering doesn't sound good to me. 2) JSONP. Problem: can't return whole chunk of html, must return only data. Then, on browser side, I'll have to use javascript to embed data into html snippet placed statically in index.html. Doesn't sound nice, because data format is not very simple and may even change later. 3) Use hidden iframe to do ajax requests. A bit tricky, but sounds like a way to go. Well, that's my thoughts on the subject. Are there any better ways? BTW, I tried to check some existing widgets too, but didn't find much useful information. All domain names used in this text are fictional and any resemblance is purely coincidental :)

    Read the article

  • Animating custom-drawn UITableViewCell when entering edit mode

    - by Adam Alexander
    Background First of all, much gratitude to atebits for their very informative blog post Fast Scrolling in Tweetie with UITableView. The post explains in detail how the developers were able to squeeze as much scrolling performance as possible out of the UITableViews in Tweetie. Goals Beginning with the source code linked from the blog post (original) (my github repo): Allow a UITableView using these custom cells to switch to edit mode, exposing the UI for deleting an item from the table. (github commit) Move the cell's text aside as the deletion control slides in from the left. This is complete, although the text jumps back and forth without animation. (github commit) Apply animation to the text movement in goal 2 above for a smooth user experience. This is the step where I became stuck. The Question What is the best way to introduce this animation to complete goal 3? It would be nice if this could be done in a manner that keeps the logic from my last commit because I would love the option to move the conflicting part of the view only, while any non-conflicting portions (such as right-justified text) stay in the same place or move a different number of pixels. If the above is not possible then undoing my last commit and replacing it with an option that slides the entire view to the right would be a workable solution also. I appreciate any help anyone can provide, from quick pointers and ideas all the way to code snippets or github commits. Of course you are welcome to fork my repo if you would like. I will be staying involved with this question to make sure any successful resolution is committed to github and fully documented here. Thanks very much for your time! Updated thoughts I have been thinking about this a lot since my first post and realized that moving some text items relative to others in the view could undo some of the original performance goals solved in the original blog post. So at this point I am thinking a solution where the entire single subview is animated to its new postion may be the best one. Second, if it is done in this way there may be an instance where the subview has a custom color or gradient background. Hopefully this can be done in a way that in its normal position the background extends unseen off to the left enough so that when the view is slid to the right the custom background is still visible across the entire cell.

    Read the article

  • Tridion Installation

    - by Kevin Brydon
    I am currently upgrading an installation of Tridion from 5.3 to 2011 starting almost from scratch (aside from migrating the database), brand new virtual servers. I just want to ask for some advice on my current server setup... a sanity check. All servers are running Windows Server 2008. The pages on our website are all classic ASP. Database SQL Server cluster. The 5.3 database has been migrated using the DatabaseManager. This is pretty standard and works well (in test anyway). Content Manager A single server to run the Content Manager and the Publisher. There are around 10 people using it at any one time so not under a particularly heavy load. Content Data Store Filesystem located somewhere on the network. One directory for live and one for staging. Content Delivery Two servers (cd1 and cd2) each with the the following server roles installed. cd1 writes to a filesystem content data store for the live website, cd2 writes to the content data store for the staging website. Presentation Two public facing web servers (web1 and web2) serving both the live and staging websites. The web servers read directly from the content data store as its a filesystem. Each of the web servers have the Content Delivery Server installed so that I can use dynamic linking (and other features?). I've so far set up everything but the web servers. Any thoughts? edit Thanks to Ram S who linked me to a decent walkthrough, upvoted. I suppose I should have posed some questions as I didn't really ask a question. I guess I'm a little confused over the content deliver aspect. I have the Content Delivery split in two separate parts. cd1 and cd2 do the work of shifting information from the Content Manager to the Staging/Live web directories. web1 and web2 should do the work of serving the web pages to the outside world and will interact with the content data store (file system). Is this a correct setup? I need some parts of the Content Delivery on my web servers right? Theoretically I could get rid of the cd1 and cd2 servers and use web1 and web2 to do the deployment right? But I suspect this will put the web servers under unnecessary strain should there ever be a big publish. I've been reading the 2011 Installation Manual, Content Delivery section, and I'm finding it quite hard to get my head around!

    Read the article

  • How to GET a read-only vs editable resource in REST style?

    - by Val
    I'm fairly familiar with REST principles, and have read the relevant dissertation, Wikipedia entry, a bunch of blog posts and StackOverflow questions on the subject, but still haven't found a straightforward answer to a common case: I need to request a resource to display. Depending on the resource's state, I need to render either a read-only or an editable representation. In both cases, I need to GET the resource. How do I construct a URL to get the read-only or editable version? If my user follows a link to GET /resource/<id>, that should suffice to indicate to me that s/he needs the read-only representation. But if I need to server up an editable form, what does that URL look like? GET /resource/<id>/edit is obvious, but it contains a verb in the URL. Changing that to GET /resource/<id>/editable solves that problem, but at a seemingly superficial level. Is that all there is to it -- change verbs to adjectives? If instead I use POST to retrieve the editable version, then how do I distinguish between the POST that initially retrieves it, vs the POST that saves it? My (weak) excuse for using POST would be that retrieving an editable version would cause a change of state on the server: locking the resource. But that only holds if my requirements are to implement such a lock, which is not always the case. PUT fails for the same reason, plus PUT is not enabled by default on the Web servers I'm running, so there are practical reasons not to use it (and DELETE). Note that even in the editable state, I haven't made any changes yet; presumably when I submit the resource to the Web server again, I'd POST it. But to get something that I can later POST, the server has to first serve up a particular representation. I guess another approach would be to have separate resources at the collection level: GET /read-only/resource/<id> and GET /editable/resource/<id> or GET /resource/read-only/<id> and GET /resource/editable/<id> ... but that looks pretty ugly to me. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC Exception Logging combined with Error Handling

    - by Saajid Ismail
    Hi. I am looking for a simple solution to do Exception Logging combined with Error Handling in my ASP.Net MVC 1.0 application. I've read lots of articles, including Questions posted here on StackOverflow, which all provide varying solutions for different situations. I am still unable to come up with a solution that suits my needs. Here are my requirements: To be able to use the [HandleError] attribute (or something equivalent) on my Controller, to handle all exceptions that could be thrown from any of the Actions or Views. This should handle all exceptions that were not handled specifically on any of the Actions (as described in point 2). I would like to be able to specify which View a user must be redirected to in error cases, for all actions in the Controller. I want to be able to specify the [HandleError] attribute (or something equivalent) at the top of specific Actions to catch specific exceptions and redirect users to a View appropriate to the exception. All other exceptions must still be handled by the [HandleError] attribute on the Controller. In both cases above, I want the exceptions to be logged using log4net (or any other logging library). How do I go about achieving the above? I've read about making all my Controllers inherit from a base controller which overrides the OnException method, and wherein I do my logging. However this will mess around with redirecting users to the appropriate Views, or make it messy. I've read about writing my own Filter Action which implements IExceptionFilter to handle this, but this will conflict with the [HandleError] attribute. So far, my thoughts are that the best solution is to write my own attribute that inherits from HandleErrorAttribute. That way I get all the functionality of [HandleError], and can add my own log4net logging. The solution is as follows: public class HandleErrorsAttribute: HandleErrorAttribute { private log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger(System.Reflection.MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType); public override void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.Exception != null) { log.Error("Error in Controller", filterContext.Exception); } base.OnException(filterContext); } } Will the above code work for my requirements? If not, what solution does fulfill my requirements?

    Read the article

  • Keeping the DI-container usage in the composition root in Silverlight and MVVM

    - by adrian hara
    It's not quite clear to me how I can design so I keep the reference to the DI-container in the composition root for a Silverlight + MVVM application. I have the following simple usage scenario: there's a main view (perhaps a list of items) and an action to open an edit view for one single item. So the main view has to create and show the edit view when the user takes the action (e.g. clicks some button). For this I have the following code: public interface IView { IViewModel ViewModel {get; set;} } Then, for each view that I need to be able to create I have an abstract factory, like so public interface ISomeViewFactory { IView CreateView(); } This factory is then declared a dependency of the "parent" view model, like so: public class SomeParentViewModel { public SomeParentViewModel(ISomeViewFactory viewFactory) { // store it } private void OnSomeUserAction() { IView view = viewFactory.CreateView(); dialogService.ShowDialog(view); } } So all is well until here, no DI-container in sight :). Now comes the implementation of ISomeViewFactory: public class SomeViewFactory : ISomeViewFactory { public IView CreateView() { IView view = new SomeView(); view.ViewModel = ???? } } The "????" part is my problem, because the view model for the view needs to be resolved from the DI-container so it gets its dependencies injected. What I don't know is how I can do this without having a dependency to the DI-container anywhere except the composition root. One possible solution would be to have either a dependency on the view model that gets injected into the factory, like so: public class SomeViewFactory : ISomeViewFactory { public SomeViewFactory(ISomeViewModel viewModel) { // store it } public IView CreateView() { IView view = new SomeView(); view.ViewModel = viewModel; } } While this works, it has the problem that since the whole object graph is wired up "statically" (i.e. the "parent" view model will get an instance of SomeViewFactory, which will get an instance of SomeViewModel, and these will live as long as the "parent" view model lives), the injected view model implementation is stateful and if the user opens the child view twice, the second time the view model will be the same instance and have the state from before. I guess I could work around this with an "Initialize" method or something similar, but it doesn't smell quite right. Another solution might be to wrap the DI-container and have the factories depend on the wrapper, but it'd still be a DI-container "in disguise" there :) Any thoughts on this are greatly appreciated. Also, please forgive any mistakes or rule-breaking, since this is my first post on stackoverflow :) Thanks! ps: my current solution is that the factories know about the DI-container, and it's only them and the composition root that have this dependency.

    Read the article

  • progressIndicator does not update till about 10 seconds after awakeFromNib occures

    - by theprojectabot
    I have been trying to get this one section of my UI to immediatly up date when the document loads into view. The awakeFromNib fires the pasted code and then starts a timer to repeat every 10 seconds... I load a default storage location: ~/Movies... which shows up immediately.. yet the network location that is saved in the document that gets pulled from the XML only seems to show up after the second firing of the - (void)updateDiskSpaceDisplay timer. I have set breakpoints and know that the ivars that contain the values that are being put into the *fileSystemAttributes is the network location right when the awakeFromNib occurs... Im confused why it magically appears after the second time firing instead of immediately displaying the write values. - (void)updateDiskSpaceDisplay { // Obtain information about the file system used on the selected storage path. NSError *error = NULL; NSDictionary *fileSystemAttributes = [[NSFileManager defaultManager] attributesOfFileSystemForPath:[[[self settings] containerSettings] storagePath] error:&error]; if( !fileSystemAttributes ) return; // Get the byte capacity of the drive. long long byteCapacity = [[fileSystemAttributes objectForKey:NSFileSystemSize] unsignedLongLongValue]; // Get the number of free bytes. long long freeBytes = [[fileSystemAttributes objectForKey:NSFileSystemFreeSize] unsignedLongLongValue]; // Update the level indicator, and the text fields to show the current information. [totalDiskSpaceField setStringValue:[self formattedStringFromByteCount:byteCapacity]]; [totalDiskSpaceField setNeedsDisplay:YES]; [usedDiskSpaceField setStringValue:[self formattedStringFromByteCount:(byteCapacity - freeBytes)]]; [usedDiskSpaceField setNeedsDisplay:YES]; [diskSpaceIndicator setMaxValue:100]; [diskSpaceIndicator setIntValue:(((float) (byteCapacity - freeBytes) / (float) byteCapacity) * 100.0)]; [diskSpaceIndicator display:YES]; } thoughts? my awakeFromNib: - (void)awakeFromNib { [documentWindow setAcceptsMouseMovedEvents:YES]; [documentWindow setDelegate:self]; [self updateSettingsDisplay]; [self updateDiskSpaceDisplay]; [self setDiskSpaceUpdateTimer:[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:10.0 target:self selector:@selector(updateDiskSpaceDisplay) userInfo:NULL repeats:YES]]; [self setUpClipInfoTabButtons]; [self performSelector:@selector(setupEngineController) withObject:NULL afterDelay:0.1]; }

    Read the article

  • What is the semantically correct way to use the `<article>` tag in HTML 5, with `<ol>, <ul>, and <li

    - by viatropos
    I currently have an ordered list that I want to markup using the new HTML 5 attributes. It looks like this: <ol class="section"> <li class="article"> <h2>Article A</h2> <p>Some text</p> </li> <li class="article"> <h2>Article B</h2> <p>Some text</p> </li> <li class="article"> <h2>Article C</h2> <p>Some text</p> </li> </ol> It seems the only way to keep the list AND use HTML 5 tags is to add a whole bunch of unnecessary divs: <section> <ol> <li> <article> <h2>Article A</h2> <p>Some text</p> </article> </li> <li> <article> <h2>Article B</h2> <p>Some text</p> </article> </li> <li> <article> <h2>Article C</h2> <p>Some text</p> </article> </li> </ol> </section> Is there a better way to do this? What are your thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Is DataRow thread safe? How to update a single datarow in a datatable using multiple threads? - .net

    - by NLV
    Hello all I want to update a single datarow in a datatable using multiple threads. Is this actually possible? I've written the following code implementing a simple multi-threading to update a single datarow. I get different results each time. Why is it so? public partial class Form1 : Form { private static DataTable dtMain; private static string threadMsg = string.Empty; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread[] thArr = new Thread[5]; dtMain = new DataTable(); dtMain.Columns.Add("SNo"); DataRow dRow; dRow = dtMain.NewRow(); dRow["SNo"] = 5; dtMain.Rows.Add(dRow); dtMain.AcceptChanges(); ThreadStart ts = new ThreadStart(delegate { dtUpdate(); }); thArr[0] = new Thread(ts); thArr[1] = new Thread(ts); thArr[2] = new Thread(ts); thArr[3] = new Thread(ts); thArr[4] = new Thread(ts); thArr[0].Start(); thArr[1].Start(); thArr[2].Start(); thArr[3].Start(); thArr[4].Start(); while (!WaitTillAllThreadsStopped(thArr)) { Thread.Sleep(500); } foreach (Thread thread in thArr) { if (thread != null && thread.IsAlive) { thread.Abort(); } } dgvMain.DataSource = dtMain; } private void dtUpdate() { for (int i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { try { dtMain.Rows[0][0] = Convert.ToInt32(dtMain.Rows[0][0]) + 1; dtMain.AcceptChanges(); } catch { continue; } } } private bool WaitTillAllThreadsStopped(Thread[] threads) { foreach (Thread thread in threads) { if (thread != null && thread.ThreadState == ThreadState.Running) { return false; } } return true; } } Any thoughts on this? Thank you NLV

    Read the article

  • Calculate year for end date: PostgreSQL

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background Users can pick dates as shown in the following screen shot: Any starting month/day and ending month/day combinations are valid, such as: Mar 22 to Jun 22 Dec 1 to Feb 28 The second combination is difficult (I call it the "tricky date scenario") because the year for the ending month/day is before the year for the starting month/day. That is to say, for the year 1900 (also shown selected in the screen shot above), the full dates would be: Dec 22, 1900 to Feb 28, 1901 Dec 22, 1901 to Feb 28, 1902 ... Dec 22, 2007 to Feb 28, 2008 Dec 22, 2008 to Feb 28, 2009 Problem Writing a SQL statement that selects values from a table with dates that fall between the start month/day and end month/day, regardless of how the start and end days are selected. In other words, this is a year wrapping problem. Inputs The query receives as parameters: Year1, Year2: The full range of years, independent of month/day combination. Month1, Day1: The starting day within the year to gather data. Month2, Day2: The ending day within the year (or the next year) to gather data. Previous Attempt Consider the following MySQL code (that worked): end_year = start_year + greatest( -1 * sign( datediff( date( concat_ws('-', year, end_month, end_day ) ), date( concat_ws('-', year, start_month, start_day ) ) ) ), 0 ) How it works, with respect to the tricky date scenario: Create two dates in the current year. The first date is Dec 22, 1900 and the second date is Feb 28, 1900. Count the difference, in days, between the two dates. If the result is negative, it means the year for the second date must be incremented by 1. In this case: Add 1 to the current year. Create a new end date: Feb 28, 1901. Check to see if the date range for the data falls between the start and calculated end date. If the result is positive, the dates have been provided in chronological order and nothing special needs to be done. This worked in MySQL because the difference in dates would be positive or negative. In PostgreSQL, the equivalent functionality always returns a positive number, regardless of their relative chronological order. Question How should the following (broken) code be rewritten for PostgreSQL to take into consideration the relative chronological order of the starting and ending month/day pairs (with respect to an annual temporal displacement)? SELECT m.amount FROM measurement m WHERE (extract(MONTH FROM m.taken) >= month1 AND extract(DAY FROM m.taken) >= day1) AND (extract(MONTH FROM m.taken) <= month2 AND extract(DAY FROM m.taken) <= day2) Any thoughts, comments, or questions? (The dates are pre-parsed into MM/DD format in PHP. My preference is for a pure PostgreSQL solution, but I am open to suggestions on what might make the problem simpler using PHP.) Versions PostgreSQL 8.4.4 and PHP 5.2.10

    Read the article

  • How can I take the first 100 characters of html content ( without stripping the TAGS! )

    - by Atomiton
    There are lots of questions on how to strip html tags, but not many on functions/methods to close them. Here's the situation. I have a 500 character Message summary ( which includes html tags ), but I only want the first 100 characters. Problem is if I truncate the message, it could be in the middle of an html tag... which messes up stuff. Assuming the html is something like this: <div class="bd">"Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. <br/> <br/>Some Dates: April 30 - May 2, 2010 <br/> <p>Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. <em>Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit</em> in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. <br/> </p> For more information about Lorem Ipsum doemdloe, visit: <br/> <a href="http://www.somesite.com" title="Some Conference">Some text link</a><br/> </div> How would I take the first ~100 characters or so? ( Although, ideally that would be the first approximately 100 characters of "CONTENT" ( in between the html tags ) I'm assuming the best way to do this would be a recursive algorithm that keeps track of the html tags and appends any tags that would be truncated, but that may not be the best approach. My first thoughts are using recursion to count nested tags, and when we reach 100 characters, look for the next "<" and then use recursion to write the closing html tags needed from there. The reason for doing this is to make a short summary of existing articles without requiring the user to go back and provide summaries for all the articles. I want to keep the html formatting, if possible. NOTE: Please ignore that the html isn't totally semantic. This is what I have to deal with from my WYSIWYG. EDIT: I added a potential solution ( that seems to work ) I figure others will run into this problem as well. I'm not sure it's the best... and it's probably not totally robust ( in fact, I know it isn't ), but I'd appreciate any feedback

    Read the article

  • iPhone smooth move and pinch of UIImageView

    - by Jacob
    I have an image view that I'm wanting to be able to move around, and pinch to stretch it. It's all working, but it's kinda jumpy when I start to do any pinch movements. The position will jump back and forth between the two fingers. - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { startLocation = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:mouth_handle]; if([touches count] == 2) { NSArray *twoTouches = [touches allObjects]; UITouch *first = [twoTouches objectAtIndex:0]; UITouch *second = [twoTouches objectAtIndex:1]; initialDistance = distanceBetweenPoints([first locationInView:mouth_handle],[second locationInView:mouth_handle]); } } - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { CGPoint pt = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:mouth_handle]; CGRect frame = [mouth_handle frame]; frame.origin.x += pt.x - startLocation.x; frame.origin.y += pt.y - startLocation.y; frame.origin.x = (frame.origin.x < 58) ? 58 : frame.origin.x; frame.origin.x = (frame.origin.x > (260 - mouth_handle.frame.size.width)) ? (260 - mouth_handle.frame.size.width) : frame.origin.x; frame.origin.y = (frame.origin.y < 300) ? 300 : frame.origin.y; frame.origin.y = (frame.origin.y > 377) ? 377 : frame.origin.y; if(frame.origin.x - prevDistanceX > 2 && frame.origin.x - prevDistanceX < -2) frame.origin.x = prevDistanceX; if(frame.origin.y - prevDistanceY > 2 && frame.origin.y - prevDistanceY < -2) frame.origin.y = prevDistanceY; prevDistanceX = frame.origin.x; prevDistanceY = frame.origin.y; CGFloat handleWidth = mouth_handle.frame.size.width; if([touches count] == 2) { NSArray *twoTouches = [touches allObjects]; UITouch *first = [twoTouches objectAtIndex:0]; UITouch *second = [twoTouches objectAtIndex:1]; CGFloat currentDistance = distanceBetweenPoints([first locationInView:mouth_handle],[second locationInView:mouth_handle]); handleWidth = mouth_handle.frame.size.width + (currentDistance - initialDistance); handleWidth = (handleWidth < 60) ? 60 : handleWidth; handleWidth = (handleWidth > 150) ? 150 : handleWidth; if(initialDistance == 0) { initialDistance = currentDistance; } initialDistance = currentDistance; } mouth_handle.frame = CGRectMake(frame.origin.x, frame.origin.y, handleWidth, 15); } Any thoughts on how to make this smoother?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server to PostgreSQL - Migration and design concerns

    - by youwhut
    Currently migrating from SQL Server to PostgreSQL and attempting to improve a couple of key areas on the way: I have an Articles table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Articles]( [server_ref] [int] NOT NULL, [article_ref] [int] NOT NULL, [article_title] [varchar](400) NOT NULL, [category_ref] [int] NOT NULL, [size] [bigint] NOT NULL ) Data (comma delimited text files) is dumped on the import server by ~500 (out of ~1000) servers on a daily basis. Importing: Indexes are disabled on the Articles table. For each dumped text file Data is BULK copied to a temporary table. Temporary table is updated. Old data for the server is dropped from the Articles table. Temporary table data is copied to Articles table. Temporary table dropped. Once this process is complete for all servers the indexes are built and the new database is copied to a web server. I am reasonably happy with this process but there is always room for improvement as I strive for a real-time (haha!) system. Is what I am doing correct? The Articles table contains ~500 million records and is expected to grow. Searching across this table is okay but could be better. i.e. SELECT * FROM Articles WHERE server_ref=33 AND article_title LIKE '%criteria%' has been satisfactory but I want to improve the speed of searching. Obviously the "LIKE" is my problem here. Suggestions? SELECT * FROM Articles WHERE article_title LIKE '%criteria%' is horrendous. Partitioning is a feature of SQL Server Enterprise but $$$ which is one of the many exciting prospects of PostgreSQL. What performance hit will be incurred for the import process (drop data, insert data) and building indexes? Will the database grow by a huge amount? The database currently stands at 200 GB and will grow. Copying this across the network is not ideal but it works. I am putting thought into changing the hardware structure of the system. The thought process of having an import server and a web server is so that the import server can do the dirty work (WITHOUT indexes) while the web server (WITH indexes) can present reports. Maybe reducing the system down to one server would work to skip the copying across the network stage. This one server would have two versions of the database: one with the indexes for delivering reports and the other without for importing new data. The databases would swap daily. Thoughts? This is a fantastic system, and believe it or not there is some method to my madness by giving it a big shake up. UPDATE: I am not looking for help with relational databases, but hoping to bounce ideas around with data warehouse experts.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 715 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726  | Next Page >