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  • Addind link with existin href.

    - by Dom
    Hello gurus, Im trying to create link inside my list tag that will have href inherited from link that already exists in this list tag. Don't know how much sense does it makes, but i have this: <ul> <li><a href="page1.html">Support</a></li> <li><a href="page2.html">Products</a></li> <li><a href="page3.html">Management</a></li> <li><a href="page4.html">Others</a></li> </ul> and I need soothing like this: <ul> <li> <a href="page1.html">Support</a> <div class="slideLink"><a href="page1.html">Click Here</a></div> </li> <li> <a href="page2.html">Products</a> <div class="slideLink"><a href="page2.html">Click Here</a></div> </li> <li> <a href="page3.html">Management</a> <div class="slideLink"><a href="page3.html">Click Here</a></div> </li> <li> <a href="page4.html">Others</a> <div class="slideLink"><a href="page4.html">Click Here</a></div> </li> </ul> So far I have managed to add div with class and link within it with "click here" text, but i don't have a clue how to grab link href and add it to my new link. $('ul li a').each(function(){ $(this).after("<div class='slideLink'><a href=" + Link + ">Read more</div>"); }); Thank you for your help in advance. Best Regards Dom

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  • ASP.NET MVC Return to Previous Page

    - by Jason Enochs
    I have a basic Edit method in my controller that redirects back to a top level listing (“Index”) when the edit succeeds. Standard setup after scaffolding. I am trying to change this Edit method to redirect back to the previous page (not Index). Since my Edit method is not using the default mapped input parameter “id”, I am using that to pass the previous URL. In my Edit “get” method, I use this line to grab the previous URL and it works fine: ViewBag.ReturnUrl = Request.UrlReferrer.AbsoluteUri; I send this return URL to the Edit “post” method by using my form tag like this: @using (Html.BeginForm(new { id = ViewBag.ReturnUrl })) Now this is where the wheels fall off. I can't seem to get the URL parsed from the id parameter properly. UPDATE**** Using Gary's example as a guide, I changing my parameter name from "id" to "returnUrl" and used a hidden field to pass my parameter. Lesson: Only use the id parameter how it was intended to be used...keep it simple. It works now... Here is my updated code. // // GET: /Question/Edit/5 public ActionResult Edit(int id) { Question question = db.Questions.Find(id); ViewBag.DomainId = new SelectList(db.Domains, "DomainId", "Name", question.DomainId); ViewBag.Answers = db.Questions .AsEnumerable() .Select(d => new SelectListItem { Text = d.Text, Value = d.QuestionId.ToString(), Selected = question.QuestionId == d.QuestionId }); ViewBag.returnUrl = Request.UrlReferrer; ViewBag.ExamId = db.Domains.Find(question.DomainId).ExamId; ViewBag.IndexByQuestion = string.Format("IndexByQuestion/{0}", question.QuestionId); return View(question); } // // POST: /Question/Edit/5 [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Question question, string returnUrl) { int ExamId = db.Domains.Find(question.DomainId).ExamId; if (ModelState.IsValid) { db.Entry(question).State = EntityState.Modified; db.SaveChanges(); //return RedirectToAction("Index"); return Redirect(returnUrl); } ViewBag.DomainId = new SelectList(db.Domains, "DomainId", "Name", question.DomainId); return View(question); } and I changed my form tag to this: @using (Html.BeginForm()) { <input type="hidden" name="returnUrl" value="@ViewBag.returnUrl" /> Thanks Gary

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  • Parsing secure entries XML file with jquery

    - by user573131
    Apologies if this is elementary. I'm primarily a front end designer/dev. I have webform through a form service called wufoo. Wufoo generates a lovely XML (or json) file that can be grabed and parsed. I'm trying to grab the entries xml feed that is associated with the form and parse it via jquery to show who has entered. Im using the following code (which works with a local xml file). http://bostonwebsitemakeover.com/2/test <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "people.xml", dataType: "xml", success: xmlParser }); }); function xmlParser(xml) { $('#load').fadeOut(); $(xml).find("Entry").each(function () { $(".main").append('<div class="entry">' + $(this).find("Field1").text() + ' ' + $(this).find("Field2").text() + ' http://twitter.com/' + $(this).find("Field17").text() + '</div>'); $(".entry").fadeIn(1000); }); } </script> My XML file contains the following: <?xml version="1.0"?> <Entries> <Entry> <EntryId>1</EntryId> <Field1>Meaghan</Field1> <Field2>Severson</Field2> <Field17/> </Entry> <Entry> <EntryId>2</EntryId> <Field1>Michael</Field1> <Field2>Flint</Field2> <Field17>michaelflint</Field17> </Entry> <Entry> <EntryId>3</EntryId> <Field1>Niki</Field1> <Field2>Brown</Field2> <Field17>nikibrown</Field17> </Entry> <Entry> <EntryId>4</EntryId> <Field1>Niki</Field1> <Field2>Brown</Field2> <Field17>nikibrown</Field17> </Entry> </Entries> I'm wondering how I would do this with the xml file hosted on the wufoo (which is https) So I guess Im asking how do I authenticate the feed via jquery? Or do i need to do this via json? Could someone explain how?

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  • Making a JQuery tooltip retrieve a new value every time the mouse moves.

    - by Micheal Smith
    As i am developing an application that makes use of a tooltip that will display a different value when the user moves the mouse. The user mouses over a table cell and the application then generates a number, the further right the cursor moves in the cell, the higher the value increases. I have created a tooltip that runs and when the cursor mouses over the cell, it does indeed show the correct value. But, when the i move the mouse, it does not show the new value but just the older one. I need to know how to make it update everytime the mouse moves or the value of a variable changes, Any ideas for the problem? <table> <tr id="mon_Section"> <td id="day_Title">Monday</td> <td id="mon_Row"></td> </tr> </table> Below is the document.ready function that calls my function: $(document).ready(function() { $("#mon_Row").mousemove(calculate_Time); }); Below is the function: <script type="text/javascript"> var mon_Pos = 0; var hour = 0; var minute = 0; var orig = 0; var myxpos = 0; function calculate_Time (event) { myxpos = event.pageX; myxpos = myxpos-194; if(myxpos<60) { orig = myxpos; $('#mon_Row').attr("title", orig); } if (myxpos>=60 && myxpos<120) { orig=myxpos; $('#mon_Row').attr("title", orig); } if (myxpos>=120 && myxpos<180) { orig=myxpos; $('#mon_Row').attr("title", orig); Inside the function is the code to generate the tooltip: $('#mon_Row').each(function() { $(this).qtip( { content: { text: false }, position: 'topRight', hide: { fixed: true // Make it fixed so it can be hovered over }, style: { padding: '5px 15px', // Give it some extra padding name: 'dark' // And style it with the preset dark theme } }); }); I know that a new value is being assigned to the cells title attribute because it will display inside the standard small tooltip that a browser will display. The JQuery tooltip will not grab the new value and display it, only the variables initial value when it was called.

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  • Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'length' of undefined

    - by AnApprentice
    I'm working to built a contact list that is grouped by the first letter of the contact's last name. After a succesfull ajax request, the contact is pushed to addContact: Ajax success: ko.utils.arrayForEach(dataJS.contactList, function(c) { contactsModel.addContact(c); }); contactsModel.addContact: //add a contact in the right spot under the right letter contactsModel.addContact = function(newContact) { //grab first character var firstLetter = (newContact.lname || "").charAt(0).toUpperCase(); //if it is a number use # if (!isNaN(firstLetter)) { firstLetter = "#"; } //do we already have entries for this letter if (!this.letterIndex[firstLetter]) { //new object to track this letter's contacts var letterContacts = { letter: firstLetter, contacts: ko.observableArray([]) }; this.letterIndex[firstLetter] = letterContacts; //easy access to it //put the numbers at the end if (firstLetter === "#") { this.contactsByLetter.push(letterContacts); } else { //add the letter in the right spot for (var i = 0, lettersLength = this.contactsByLetter().length; i < lettersLength; i++) { var letter = this.contactsByLetter()[i].letter; if (letter === "#" || firstLetter < letter) { break; } } this.contactsByLetter.splice(i, 0, letterContacts); } } var contacts = this.letterIndex[firstLetter].contacts; //now we have a letter to add our contact to, but need to add it in the right spot var newContactName = newContact.lname + " " + newContact.fname; for (var j = 0, contactsLength = contacts().length; j < contactsLength; j++) { var contactName = contacts()[j].lName + " " + contacts()[j].fName; if (newContactName < contactName) { break; } } //add the contact at the right index contacts.splice(j, 0, newContact); }.bind(contactsModel); The contacts json object from the server looks like this: { "total_pages": 10, "page": page, "contactList": [{ "photo": "http://homepage.mac.com/millhouse/Family%20Tree/images/PersonListIcon.png", "lname": "Bond", "id": 241, "fname": "James", "email": "[email protected]"}, While this works in jsfiddle, when I try it locally, I get the following error during the first push to addContact: Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'length' of undefined jQuery.jQuery.extend._Deferred.deferred.resolveWithjquery-1.5.1.js:869 donejquery-1.5.1.js:6591 jQuery.ajaxTransport.send.callbackjquery-1.5.1.js:7382 Ideas? Thanks

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  • How to Work Around Limitations in Generic Type Constraints in C#?

    - by Jose
    Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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  • Generic Type constraint in .net

    - by Jose
    Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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  • Why my json_encode get corrupted

    - by Cullen SUN
    $model = new XUploadForm; $model->file = CUploadedFile::getInstance( $model, 'file' ); //We check that the file was successfully uploaded if( $model->file !== null ) { //Grab some data $model->mime_type = $model->file->getType( ); $model->size = $model->file->getSize( ); $model->name = $model->file->getName( ); $file_extention = $model->file->getExtensionName( ); //(optional) Generate a random name for our file $file_tem_name = md5(Yii::app( )->user->id.microtime( ).$model->name); $file_thumb_name = $file_tem_name.'_thumb.'.$file_extention; $file_image_name = $file_tem_name.".".$file_extention; if( $model->validate( ) ) { //Move our file to our temporary dir $model->file->saveAs( $path.$file_image_name ); if(chmod($path.$file_image_name, 0777 )){ // Yii::import("ext.EPhpThumb.EPhpThumb"); // $thumb_=new EPhpThumb(); // $thumb_->init(); // $thumb_->create($path.$file_image_name) // ->resize(110,80) // ->save($path.$file_thumb_name); } //here you can also generate the image versions you need //using something like PHPThumb //Now we need to save this path to the user's session if( Yii::app( )->user->hasState( 'images' ) ) { $userImages = Yii::app( )->user->getState( 'images' ); } else { $userImages = array(); } $userImages[] = array( "filename" => $file_image_name, 'size' => $model->size, 'mime' => $model->mime_type, "path" => $path.$file_image_name, // "thumb" => $path.$file_thumb_name, ); Yii::app( )->user->setState('images', $userImages); //Now we need to tell our widget that the upload was succesfull //We do so, using the json structure defined in // https://github.com/blueimp/jQuery-File-Upload/wiki/Setup echo json_encode( array( array( "type" => $model->mime_type, "size" => $model->size, "url" => $publicPath.$file_image_name, //"thumbnail_url" => $publicPath.$file_thumb_name, //"thumbnail_url" => $publicPath."thumbs/$filename", "delete_url" => $this->createUrl( "upload", array( "_method" => "delete", "file" => $file_image_name ) ), "delete_type" => "POST" ) ) ); Above code give me correct response, [{"type":"image/jpeg","size":2266,"url":"/uploads/tmp/0b00cbaee07c6410241428c74aae1dca.jpeg","delete_url":"/api/imageUpload/upload?_method=delete&file=0b00cbaee07c6410241428c74aae1dca.jpeg","delete_type":"POST"}] but if I uncomment the following // Yii::import("ext.EPhpThumb.EPhpThumb"); // $thumb_=new EPhpThumb(); // $thumb_->init(); // $thumb_->create($path.$file_image_name) // ->resize(110,80) // ->save($path.$file_thumb_name); it gave me corrupted response: Mac OS X 2??ATTR?dA??Y?Ycom.apple.quarantine0001;50655994;Google\x20Chrome.app;2599ECF9-69C5-4386-B3D9-9F5CC7E0EE1D|com.google.ChromeThis resource fork intentionally left blank ??[{"type":"image/jpeg","size":1941,"url":"/uploads/tmp/409c5921c6d20944e1a81f32b12fc380.jpeg","delete_url":"/api/imageUpload/upload?_method=delete&file=409c5921c6d20944e1a81f32b12fc380.jpeg","delete_type":"POST"}]

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  • Sqlite issues with HTC Desire HD

    - by Greg
    Recently I have been getting a lot of complaints about the HTC Desire series and it failing while invoking sql statements. I have received reports from users with log snapshots that contain the following. I/Database( 2348): sqlite returned: error code = 8, msg = statement aborts at 1: [pragma journal_mode = WAL;] E/Database( 2348): sqlite3_exec to set journal_mode of /data/data/my.app.package/files/localized_db_en_uk-1.sqlite to WAL failed followed by my app basically burning in flames because the call to open the database results in a serious runtime error that manifests itself as the cursor being left open. There shouldn't be a cursor at this point as we are trying to open it. This only occurs with the HTC Desire HD and Z. My code basically does the following (changed a little to isolate the problem area). SQLiteDatabase db; String dbName; public SQLiteDatabase loadDb(Context context) throws IOException{ //Close any old db handle if (db != null && db.isOpen()) { db.close(); } // The name of the database to use from the bundled assets. String dbAsset = "/asset_dir/"+dbName+".sqlite"; InputStream myInput = context.getAssets().open(dbAsset, Context.MODE_PRIVATE); // Create a file in the app's file directory since sqlite requires a path // Not ideal but we will copy the file out of our bundled assets and open it // it in another location. FileOutputStream myOutput = context.openFileOutput(dbName, Context.MODE_PRIVATE); byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; int length; while ((length = myInput.read(buffer)) > 0) { myOutput.write(buffer, 0, length); } // Close the streams myOutput.flush(); // Guarantee Write! myOutput.getFD().sync(); myOutput.close(); myInput.close(); // Not grab the newly written file File fileObj = context.getFileStreamPath(dbName); // and open the database return db = SQLiteDatabase.openDatabase(fileObj.getAbsolutePath(), null, SQLiteDatabase.OPEN_READONLY | SQLiteDatabase.NO_LOCALIZED_COLLATORS); } Sadly this phone is only available in the UK and I don't have one in my inventory. I am only getting reports of this type from the HTC Desire series. I don't know what changed as this code has been working without any problem. Is there something I am missing?

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  • Can this jQuery/Javascript functionality be replicated with PHP

    - by benhowdle89
    This is the code to grab tweets, but i need this in PHP, can anybody offer any insight? $(document).ready( function() { var url = "http://twitter.com/status/user_timeline/joebloggs.json?count=1&callback=?"; $.getJSON(url, function(data){ $.each(data, function(i, item) { $("#twitter-posts").append("<p>" + item.text.linkify() + " <span class='created_at'>" + relative_time(item.created_at) + " via " + item.source + "</span></p>"); }); }); }); String.prototype.linkify = function() { return this.replace(/[A-Za-z]+:\/\/[A-Za-z0-9-_]+\.[A-Za-z0-9-_:%&\?\/.=]+/, function(m) { return m.link(m); }); }; function relative_time(time_value) { var values = time_value.split(" "); time_value = values[1] + " " + values[2] + ", " + values[5] + " " + values[3]; var parsed_date = Date.parse(time_value); var relative_to = (arguments.length > 1) ? arguments[1] : new Date(); var delta = parseInt((relative_to.getTime() - parsed_date) / 1000); delta = delta + (relative_to.getTimezoneOffset() * 60); var r = ''; if (delta < 60) { r = 'a minute ago'; } else if(delta < 120) { r = 'couple of minutes ago'; } else if(delta < (45*60)) { r = (parseInt(delta / 60)).toString() + ' minutes ago'; } else if(delta < (90*60)) { r = 'an hour ago'; } else if(delta < (24*60*60)) { r = '' + (parseInt(delta / 3600)).toString() + ' hours ago'; } else if(delta < (48*60*60)) { r = '1 day ago'; } else { r = (parseInt(delta / 86400)).toString() + ' days ago'; } return r; } function twitter_callback () { return true; }

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  • Multiple instances of this carousel on a single page - can't get it to work

    - by Andy
    This code comes from a tutorial so it's not originally my own work. What I am trying to do is implement this several times on a single page. I have tried and so far failed - by numbering the id "carousel" and so forth. Any help would be seriously appreciated. I'm tearing my hair out. http://jsfiddle.net/AndyMP/zcKDV/5/ For completeness.. this is the carousel JQuery as it stands. //rotation speed and timer var speed = 5000; var run = setInterval('rotate()', speed); //grab the width and calculate left value var item_width = $('#slides li').outerWidth(); var left_value = item_width * (-1); //move the last item before first item, just in case user click prev button $('#slides li:first').before($('#slides li:last')); //set the default item to the correct position $('#slides ul').css({'left' : left_value}); //if user clicked on prev button $('#prev').click(function() { //get the right position var left_indent = parseInt($('#slides ul').css('left')) + item_width; //slide the item $('#slides ul').animate({'left' : left_indent}, 200,function(){ //move the last item and put it as first item $('#slides li:first').before($('#slides li:last')); //set the default item to correct position $('#slides ul').css({'left' : left_value}); }); //cancel the link behavior return false; }); //if user clicked on next button $('#next').click(function() { //get the right position var left_indent = parseInt($('#slides ul').css('left')) - item_width; //slide the item $('#slides ul').animate({'left' : left_indent}, 200, function () { //move the first item and put it as last item $('#slides li:last').after($('#slides li:first')); //set the default item to correct position $('#slides ul').css({'left' : left_value}); }); //cancel the link behavior return false; }); //if mouse hover, pause the auto rotation, otherwise rotate it $('#slides').hover( function() { clearInterval(run); }, function() { run = setInterval('rotate()', speed); } ); //a simple function to click next link //a timer will call this function, and the rotation will begin :) function rotate() { $('#next').click(); }

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  • Having trouble doing an Update with a Linq to Sql object

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, i've got a simple linq to sql object. I grab it from the database and change a field then save. No rows have been updated. :( When I check the full Sql code that is sent over the wire, I notice that it does an update to the row, not via the primary key but on all the fields via the where clause. Is this normal? I would have thought that it would be easy to update the field(s) with the where clause linking on the Primary Key, instead of where'ing (is that a word :P) on each field. here's the code... using (MyDatabase db = new MyDatabase()) { var boardPost = (from bp in db.BoardPosts where bp.BoardPostId == boardPostId select bp).SingleOrDefault(); if (boardPost != null && boardPost.BoardPostId > 0) { boardPost.ListId = listId; // This changes the value from 0 to 'x' db.SubmitChanges(); } } and here's some sample sql.. exec sp_executesql N'UPDATE [dbo].[BoardPost] SET [ListId] = @p6 WHERE ([BoardPostId] = @p0) AND .... <snip the other fields>',N'@p0 int,@p1 int,@p2 nvarchar(9),@p3 nvarchar(10),@p4 int,@p5 datetime,@p6 int',@p0=1276,@p1=212787,@p2=N'ttreterte',@p3=N'ttreterte3',@p4=1,@p5='2009-09-25 12:32:12.7200000',@p6=72 Now, i know there's a datetime field in this update .. and when i checked the DB it's value was/is '2009-09-25 12:32:12.720' (less zero's, than above) .. so i'm not sure if that is messing up the where clause condition... but still! should it do a where clause on the PK's .. if anything .. for speed! Yes / no ? UPDATE After reading nitzmahone's reply, I then tried playing around with the optimistic concurrency on some values, and it still didn't work :( So then I started some new stuff ... with the optimistic concurrency happening, it includes a where clause on the field it's trying to update. When that happens, it doesn't work. so.. in the above sql, the where clause looks like this ... WHERE ([BoardPostId] = @p0) AND ([ListId] IS NULL) AND ... <rest snipped>) This doesn't sound right! the value in the DB is null, before i do the update. but when i add the ListId value to the where clause (or more to the point, when L2S add's it because of the optomistic concurrecy), it fails to find/match the row. wtf?

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  • Model Binding with Parent/Child Relationship

    - by user296297
    I'm sure this has been answered before, but I've spent the last three hours looking for an acceptable solution and have been unable to find anything, so I apologize for what I'm sure is a repeat. I have two domain objects, Player and Position. Player's have a Position. My domain objects are POCOs tied to my database with NHibernate. I have an Add action that takes a Player, so I'm using the built in model binding. On my view I have a drop down list that lets a user select the Position for the Player. The value of the drop down list is the Id of the position. Everything gets populated correctly except that my Position object fails validation (ModelState.IsValid) because at the point of model binding it only has an Id and none of it's other required attributes. What is the preferred solution for solving this with ASP.NET MVC 2? Solutions I've tried... Fetch the Position from the database based on the Id before ModelState.IsValid is called in the Add action of my controller. I can't get the model to run the validation again, so ModelState.IsValid always returns false. Create a custom ModelBinder that inherits from the default binder and fetch the Position from the database after the base binder is called. The ModelBinder seems to be doing the validation so if I use anything from the default binder I'm hosed. Which means I have to completely roll my own binder and grab every value from the form...this seems really wrong and inefficient for such a common use-case. Solutions I think might work, I just can't figure out how to do... Turn off the validation for the Position class when used in Player. Write a custom ModelBinder leverages the default binder for most of the property binding, but lets me get the Position from the database BEFORE the default binder runs validation. So, how do the rest of you solve this? Thanks, Dan P.S. In my opinion having a PositionId on Player just for this case is not a good solution. There has to be solvable in a more elegant fashion.

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  • Need Help with Page Life Cycle(I think it is screwing me up)

    - by chobo2
    Hi I have dragged a empty asp.net table onto my webform. I generate all the rows in the code behind those. Now my table gets filled up and has dropdown lists. When the user hits save I go through all the rows and update the values from the dropdownlist in the db. This works all great. However if 2 columns have each have "Present" then those 2 columns should be not be shown anymore and 2 new columns get put in its place with other dropdown lists. This all works. However you have to refresh the entire page to for the 2 columns that should go away to go away. So what I tried to do is at the end of the button click event. Clear the whole table and then regenerate it. However when I do this then my values are not saved to the database anymore for whatever reason. if (IsPostBack == false) { // check if dummy variables exist in db- If true just generate tables with values in db. If not generate them. } else { // grab the values from the database // generate tables with the values } btn click event { go through all rows in table(foreach loop) update each column in the database with cells in each row. while in foreach loop. //done } So this is how it goes and it works expect(all correct values are saved) the table is just not updated to the user. Does not work if (IsPostBack == false) { // same code as above } // if postback is true do nothing. By the time it gets to the click event it says there is zero rows in the table so nothing happens. btn click event { // same code } Fails also. if (IsPostBack == false) { // same code as above } else { // same code as above but moved into its own method. gernerateTable(); } btn click event { // update all rows // once done clear the Tables rows // call generateTable() } This last one does nothing as for some reason it does not update anything. I don't understand why. So what am I doing wrong with this life cycle something in my process is wrong. The code works just not when I want the table to be updated right away.

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  • Tab Bar and Nav Controller: Where did I go wrong in my Interface Builder wiring?

    - by editor
    Even if you don't know how I've shot myself in the foot, a story which I've tried to lay out below, if you think I've done a good job showing the parameters of my problem I'd appreciate an upvote so that I might be able to grab some attention for my question. I've been working on an iPhone application in XCode and Interface Builder of the Tab Bar project type. After getting a table view of topics (business sectors) working fine I realized that I would need to add a Navigation Control to allow the user to drill into a subtopics (subsectors) table. As a green Objective-C developer, that was confusing, but I managed to get it working by reading various documentation trying out a few different IB options. My current setup is a Tab Bar Controller with Tab 1 as a Navigation Controller and Tab 2 a plain view with a Table View placed into it. The wiring works: I can log when table rows are selected and I'm ready to push a new View Controller onto the stack so that I can display the subtopics Table View. My problem: For some reason the first tab's Table View is a delegate and dataSource of the second ta. It doesn't make sense to me and I can't figure out why that's the only setup that works. Here is the wiring: Navigation Controller (Sectors) is a delegate of Tab Bar Navigation Bar is a delegate of Navigation Controller (Sectors) View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate of First View Controller (Companies) Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a dataSource outlet of First View Controller (Companies) First View Controller (Companies) First View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in First View Controller (Companies)) is not hooked up to a dataSource outlet and is not a delegate When I click the tab buttons and look at the Inspector I see that the first tab is correctly hooked up to my MainWindow.xib and the second tab has selected a nib called SecondView.xib. It's in the File's Owner of MainWindow.xib where I inherit UITableViewDataSource and UITableViewDelegate (and also UITabBarControllerDelegate) in the .h, and in the .m where I implement the delegate methods. Why does this setup only work when the Table View in my first tab (View Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate and dataSource of the second tab? I'm confused: why wouldn't it need to be hooked up to the Navigation Controller-enabled tab in which the Table View is seen (Navigation Controller (Sectors))? The Table View seen on the second tab has neither dataSource and is not a delegate. I'm having trouble getting a pushViewController to fire (self.navigationController is not nil but the new View Controller still doesn't load) and I suspect that I need to work out this IB wiring issue before I can troubleshoot why the Nav Controller won't push a new View Controller onto the stack. if(nil == self.navigationController) { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is nil."); } else { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is not nil."); SectorList *subsectorViewController = [[SectorList alloc] initWithNibName:@"SectorList" bundle:nil]; subsectorViewController.title = @"Subsectors"; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:subsectorViewController animated:YES]; [subsectorViewController release]; }

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  • Methodology for a Rails app

    - by Aaron Vegh
    I'm undertaking a rather large conversion from a legacy database-driven Windows app to a Rails app. Because of the large number of forms and database tables involved, I want to make sure I've got the right methodology before getting too far. My chief concern is minimizing the amount of code I have to write. There are many models that interact together, and I want to make sure I'm using them correctly. Here's a simplified set of models: class Patient < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :PatientAddresses has_many :PatientFileStatuses end class PatientAddress < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end class PatientFileStatus < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end The controller determines if there's a Patient selected; everything else is based on that. In the view, I will be needing data from each of these models. But it seems like I have to write an instance variable in my controller for every attribute that I want to use. So I start writing code like this: @patient = Patient.find(session[:patient]) @patient_addresses = @patient.PatientAddresses @patient_file_statuses = @patient.PatientFileStatuses @enrollment_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].EnrollmentReceivedWhen @consent_received = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceived @consent_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceivedWhen The first three lines grab the Patient model and its relations. The next three lines are examples of my providing values to the view from one of those relations. The view has a combination of text fields and select fields to show the data above. For example: <%= select("patientfilestatus", "ConsentReceived", {"val1"="val1", "val2"="val2", "Written"="Written"}, :include_blank=true )% <%= calendar_date_select_tag "patient_file_statuses[EnrollmentReceivedWhen]", @enrollment_complete_when, :popup=:force % (BTW, the select tag isn't really working; I think I have to use collection_select?) My questions are: Do I have to manually declare the value of every instance variable in the controller, or can/should I do it within the view? What is the proper technique for displaying a select tag for data that's not the primary model? When I go to save changes to this form, will I have to manually pick out the attributes for each model and save them individually? Or is there a way to name the fields such that ActiveRecord does the right thing? Thanks in advance, Aaron.

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  • sed - trying to replace first occurrence after a match

    - by wakkaluba
    I am facing a situation that drives me nuts. I am setting up an update server which uses a json file. Don't ask why or how, it sucks and is my only possibility to achieve it. I have been trying and researching for HOURS (many) because I went ballistic and wanted to crack this on my own. But I have to realize I got stuck and need help. So sorry for this chunk but I think it is somewhat important to see... The file is a one liner and repeating the following sequence with changing values (of course). "plugin_name_foo_bar": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [{"name": "bla", "optional": true, "version": "1.00"}], "developers": [{"developerId": "bla", "email": "[email protected]", "name": "Bla bla2nd"}], "excerpt": "some text {excerpt} !bla.png|thumbnail,border=1! ", "gav": "bla", "labels": ["report", "scm-related"], "name": "plugin_name_foo_bar", "previousTimestamp": "bla", "previousVersion": "1.0", "releaseTimestamp": "bla", "requiredCore": "1", "scm": "github.com", "sha1": "ynnBM2jWo25ZLDdP3ybBOnV/Pio=", "title": "bla", "url": "http://bla.org", "version": "1.0", "wiki": "https://bla.org"}, "Exclusion": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [], and the next plugin block is glued straight afterwards. What I now want to do is to search for "plugin_foo_bar": {" as this is the unique identifier for a new plugin description block. I want to replace the first sha1 value occuring afterwards. That's where I keep failing. I always grab the first,last or any occurrence in the entire file and not the block :( "title" is the unique identifier after the sha1 value. So I tried to make the .* less greedy but it ain't working out. last attempt was heading towards: sed -i 's/("name": "plugin_name_foo_bar.*sha1": ")([a-zA-Z0-9!@#\$%^&*()\[\]]*)(", "title"\)/\1blablabla\2/1' default.json to find the sha1 value of that plugin but still no joy. I hope someone knows - preferably a simpler approach - before I now continue with trial and error until I have to puke and freakout. I am working with SED on Windows, so Unix approach might help me to figure out how to achieve this in batch but please make it as one-liner if possible. Scripts are a real pain to convert. And I just need SED and no other solution with other tools like AWK. That is absolutely out of discussion. Any help is appreciated :) Cheers Jan

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  • How can I fix this touch event / draw loop "deadlock"?

    - by Josh
    Just want to start out by saying this seems like a great site, hope you guys can help! I'm trying to use the structure laid out in LunarLander to create a simple game in which the user can drag some bitmaps around on the screen (the actual game is more complex, but that's not important). I ripped out the irrelevant parts of LanderLander, and set up my own bitmap drawing, something like BoardThread (an inner class of BoardView): run() { while(mRun) { canvas = lockSurfaceHolder... syncronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* drawStuff using member position fields in BoardView */ } unlockSurfaceHolder } } My drawStuff simply walks through some arrays and throws bitmaps onto the canvas. All that works fine. Then I wanted to start handling touch events so that when the user presses a bitmap, it is selected, when the user unpresses a bitmap, it is deselected, and if a bitmap is selected during a touch move event, the bitmap is dragged. I did this stuff by listening for touch events in the BoardView's parent, BoardActivity, and passing them down into the BoardView. Something like In BoardView handleTouchEvent(MotionEvent e) { synchronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* Modify shared member fields in BoardView so BoardThread can render the bitmaps */ } } This ALSO works fine. I can drag my tiles around the screen no problem. However, every once in a while, when the app first starts up and I trigger my first touch event, the handleTouchEvent stops executing at the synchronized line (as viewed in DDMS). The drawing loop is active during this time (I can tell because a timer changes onscreen), and it usually takes several seconds or more before a bunch of touch events come through the pipeline and everything is fine again. This doesn't seem like deadlock to me, since the draw loop is constantly going in and out of its syncronized block. Shouldn't this allow the event handling thread to grab a lock on mSurfaceHolder? What's going on here? Anyone have suggestions for improving how I've structured this? Some other info. This "hang" only ever occurs on first touch event after activity start. This includes on orientation change after restoreState has been called. Also, I can remove EVERYTHING within the syncronized block in the event handler, and it will still get hung up at the syncronized call. Thanks!

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  • color letters in a div

    - by Growler
    I've created a palindrome checker. I want to take it one step further and show the letters being compared as it is being checked. HTML: <p id="typing"></p> <input type="text" id="textBox" onkeyup="pal(this.value);" value="" /> <div id="response"></div> <hr> <div id="palindromeRun"></div> JS: To do this, I run the recursive check... Then if it is a palindrome, I run colorLetters(), which I'm trying to highlight in green each letter as it is being checked. Right now it is just rewriting palindromeRun's HTML with the first letter. I know this is because of the way I'm resetting its HTML. I don't know how to just grab the first and last letter, change only those letters' css, then increment i and j on the next setTimeout loop. var timeout2 = null; function pal (input) { var str = input.replace(/\s/g, ''); var str2 = str.replace(/\W/, ''); if (checkPal(str2, 0, str2.length-1)) { $("#textBox").css({"color" : "green"}); $("#response").html(input + " is a palindrome"); $("#palindromeRun").html(input); colorLetters(str2, 0, str2.length-1); } else { $("#textBox").css({"color" : "red"}); $("#response").html(input + " is not a palindrome"); } if (input.length <= 0) { $("#response").html(""); $("#textBox").css({"color" : "black"}); } } function checkPal (input, i, j) { if (input.length <= 1) { return false; } if (i === j || ((j-i) == 1 && input.charAt(i) === input.charAt(j))) { return true; } else { if (input.charAt(i).toLowerCase() === input.charAt(j).toLowerCase()) { return checkPal(input, ++i, --j); } else { return false; } } } function colorLetters(myinput, i, j) { if (timeout2 == null) { timeout2 = setTimeout(function () { console.log("called"); var firstLetter = $("#palindromeRun").html(myinput.charAt(i)) var secondLetter = $("#palindromeRun").html(myinput.charAt(j)) $(firstLetter).css({"color" : "red"}); $(secondLetter).css({"color" : "green"}); i++; j++; timeout2=null; }, 1000); } } Secondary: If possible, I'd just like to have it colors the letters as the user is typing... I realize this will require a setTimeout on each keyup, but also am not sure how to write this.

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  • Java: Making concurrent MySQL queries from multiple clients synchronised

    - by Misha Gale
    I work at a gaming cybercafe, and we've got a system here (smartlaunch) which keeps track of game licenses. I've written a program which interfaces with this system (actually, with it's backend MySQL database). The program is meant to be run on a client PC and (1) query the database to select an unused license from the pool available, then (2) mark this license as in use by the client PC. The problem is, I've got a concurrency bug. The program is meant to be launched simultaneously on multiple machines, and when this happens, some machines often try and acquire the same license. I think that this is because steps (1) and (2) are not synchronised, i.e. one program determines that license #5 is available and selects it, but before it can mark #5 as in use another copy of the program on another PC tries to grab that same license. I've tried to solve this problem by using transactions and table locking, but it doesn't seem to make any difference - Am I doing this right? Here follows the code in question: public LicenseKey Acquire() throws SmartLaunchException, SQLException { Connection conn = SmartLaunchDB.getConnection(); int PCID = SmartLaunchDB.getCurrentPCID(); conn.createStatement().execute("LOCK TABLE `licensekeys` WRITE"); String sql = "SELECT * FROM `licensekeys` WHERE `InUseByPC` = 0 AND LicenseSetupID = ? ORDER BY `ID` DESC LIMIT 1"; PreparedStatement statement = conn.prepareStatement(sql); statement.setInt(1, this.id); ResultSet results = statement.executeQuery(); if (results.next()) { int licenseID = results.getInt("ID"); sql = "UPDATE `licensekeys` SET `InUseByPC` = ? WHERE `ID` = ?"; statement = conn.prepareStatement(sql); statement.setInt(1, PCID); statement.setInt(2, licenseID); statement.executeUpdate(); statement.close(); conn.commit(); conn.createStatement().execute("UNLOCK TABLES"); return new LicenseKey(results.getInt("ID"), this, results.getString("LicenseKey"), results.getInt("LicenseKeyType")); } else { throw new SmartLaunchException("All licenses of type " + this.name + "are in use"); } }

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  • How to manually (bitwise) perform (float)x? (homework)

    - by Silver
    Now, here is the function header of the function I'm supposed to implement: /* * float_from_int - Return bit-level equivalent of expression (float) x * Result is returned as unsigned int, but * it is to be interpreted as the bit-level representation of a * single-precision floating point values. * Legal ops: Any integer/unsigned operations incl. ||, &&. also if, while * Max ops: 30 * Rating: 4 */ unsigned float_from_int(int x) { ... } We aren't allowed to do float operations, or any kind of casting. Now I tried to implement the first algorithm given at this site: http://locklessinc.com/articles/i2f/ Here's my code: unsigned float_from_int(int x) { // grab sign bit int xIsNegative = 0; int absValOfX = x; if(x < 0){ xIsNegative = 1; absValOfX = -x; } // zero case if(x == 0){ return 0; } //int shiftsNeeded = 0; /*while(){ shiftsNeeded++; }*/ unsigned I2F_MAX_BITS = 15; unsigned I2F_MAX_INPUT = ((1 << I2F_MAX_BITS) - 1); unsigned I2F_SHIFT = (24 - I2F_MAX_BITS); unsigned result, i, exponent, fraction; if ((absValOfX & I2F_MAX_INPUT) == 0) result = 0; else { exponent = 126 + I2F_MAX_BITS; fraction = (absValOfX & I2F_MAX_INPUT) << I2F_SHIFT; i = 0; while(i < I2F_MAX_BITS) { if (fraction & 0x800000) break; else { fraction = fraction << 1; exponent = exponent - 1; } i++; } result = (xIsNegative << 31) | exponent << 23 | (fraction & 0x7fffff); } return result; } But it didn't work (see test error below): Test float_from_int(-2147483648[0x80000000]) failed... ...Gives 0[0x0]. Should be -822083584[0xcf000000] 4 4 0 float_times_four I don't know where to go from here. How should I go about parsing the float from this int?

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  • SQLiteOpenHelper getWritableDatabse() fails with no Exception

    - by Michal K
    I have a very strange problem. It only shows from time to time, on several devices. Can't seem to reproduce it when I want, but had it so many times, that I think I know where I get it. So I have a Loader which connects to sqlite through a singleton SQLiteOpenHelper: try{ Log.i(TAG, "Get details offline / db helper: "+DatabaseHelper.getInstance(getContext())); SQLiteDatabase db=DatabaseHelper.getInstance(this.getContext()).getWritableDatabase(); Log.i(TAG, "Get details offline / db: "+db); //doing some work on the db //... } catch(SQLiteException e){ e.printStackTrace(); return null; } catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); return null; //trying everything to grab some exception or whatever } My SQLIteOpenHelper looks something like this: public class DatabaseHelper extends SQLiteOpenHelper { private static DatabaseHelper mInstance = null; private static Context mCxt; public static DatabaseHelper getInstance(Context cxt) { //using app context ass suggested by CommonsWare Log.i("DBHELPER1", "cxt"+mCxt+" / instance: "+mInstance); if (mInstance == null) { mInstance = new DatabaseHelper(cxt.getApplicationContext()); } Log.i("DBHELPER2", "cxt"+mCxt+" / instance: "+mInstance); mCxt = cxt; return mInstance; } //private constructor private DatabaseHelper(Context context) { super(context, DATABASE_NAME, null, DATABASE_VERSION); this.mCxt = context; } @Override public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { //some tables created here } @Override public void onUpgrade(SQLiteDatabase db, int oldVersion, int newVersion) { //upgrade code here } It really works great in most cases. But from time to time I get a log similar to this: 06-10 23:49:59.621: I/DBHELPER1(26499): cxtcom.bananout.Bananout@407152c8 / instance: com.bananout.helpers.DatabaseHelper@40827560 06-10 23:49:59.631: I/DBHELPER2(26499): cxtcom.bananout.Bananout@407152c8 / instance: com.bananout.helpers.DatabaseHelper@40827560 06-10 23:49:59.631: I/DetailsLoader(26499): Get event details offline / db helper: com.bananout.helpers.DatabaseHelper@40827560 06-10 23:49:59.631: I/DBHELPER1(26499): cxtcom.bananout.Bananout@407152c8 / instance: com.bananout.helpers.DatabaseHelper@40827560 06-10 23:49:59.651: I/DBHELPER2(26499): cxtcom.bananout.Bananout@407152c8 / instance: com.bananout.helpers.DatabaseHelper@40827560 This line Log.i(TAG, "Get details offline / db: "+db); never gets called! No Exceptions, silence. Plus, the thread with the Loader is not running anymore. So nothing past this line SQLiteDatabase db=DatabaseHelper.getInstance(this.getContext()).getWritableDatabase(); gets executed. What can possibly go wrong on this line?

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  • How to return this XML-RPC response in an array using PHP?

    - by mind.blank
    I'm trying to put together a WordPress plugin and I want to grab a list of all categories (of other WordPress blogs) via XML-RPC. I have the following code and it looks like it works so far: function get_categories($rpcurl,$username,$password){ $rpcurl2 = $rpcurl."/xmlrpc.php"; $params = array(0,$username,$password,true); $request = xmlrpc_encode_request('metaWeblog.getCategories',$params); $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $rpcurl2); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array("Content-Type: text/xml")); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $request); $results = curl_exec($ch); $res = xmlrpc_decode($results); curl_close($ch); return $res; } If I use $res I get the following string as the response: Array If I use $results then I get: categoryId17 parentId0 descriptionTest categoryDescription categoryNameTest htmlUrlhttp://test.yoursite.com/?cat=17 rssUrlhttp://test.yoursite.com/?feed=rss2&amp;cat=17 categoryId1 parentId0 descriptionUncategorized categoryDescription categoryNameUncategorized htmlUrlhttp://test.yoursite.com/?cat=1 rssUrlhttp://test.yoursite.com/?feed=rss2&amp;cat=1 I need to pull out the names after description so Uncategorized and Test in this case. It's my first time coding in PHP. I got these results by echoing them to the page, so not sure if they get changed in that process or not... By the way I modified the above code from one that posts to a WordPress blog remotely so maybe I haven't set some of the options correctly? With var_dump($res) I get: array(2) { [0]=> array(7) { ["categoryId"]=> string(2) "17" ["parentId"]=> string(1) "0" ["description"]=> string(4) "Test" ["categoryDescription"]=> string(0) "" ["categoryName"]=> string(4) "Test" ["htmlUrl"]=> string(40) "http://test.youreventwebsite.com/?cat=17" ["rssUrl"]=> string(54) "http://test.youreventwebsite.com/?feed=rss2&cat=17" } [1]=> array(7) { ["categoryId"]=> string(1) "1" ["parentId"]=> string(1) "0" ["description"]=> string(13) "Uncategorized" ["categoryDescription"]=> string(0) "" ["categoryName"]=> string(13) "Uncategorized" ["htmlUrl"]=> string(39) "http://test.youreventwebsite.com/?cat=1" ["rssUrl"]=> string(53) "http://test.youreventwebsite.com/?feed=rss2&cat=1" } }

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  • Getting the value from asp:LinkButton's CommandArgument attribute using jquery/javascript

    - by LobalOrning
    I need to get the value of the CommandArgument attribute of a LinkButton, in an asp:Repeater. I have an asp:Repeater with 2 LinkButtons whose CommandArgument I set to a value: <ItemTemplate> <tr class="odd"> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "batch_id")%></td> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "productId")%></td> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "serial_number")%></td> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "activation_card_number")%></td> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "transaction_amount","{0:C}")%></td> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "response_dt", "{0:M/d/yyyy HH:mm:ss}")%></td> <td style="text-align:center;"><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "resp_process_msg")%></td> <td style="text-align:center;"><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "resp_response_code")%></td> <td style="text-align:center;"><asp:LinkButton ID="lnkBtnRestageAdd" CommandName="Add" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("activation_card_number")%>' runat="server" Text="stage" class="add" OnClientClick="return false;" /></td> <td style="text-align:center;"><asp:LinkButton ID="lnkBtnRestageMinus" CommandName="Subtract" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("activation_card_number")%>' runat="server" Text="stage" class="minus" OnClientClick="return false;" /></td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> I have suppressed the PostBack with OnClientClick="return false;" so that I can pop a jQuery dialog modal when the link buttons get clicked: if (btnAdd != null) { $(".add").click(function() { $("#<%=divDialogAdd.ClientID %>").removeAttr("style"); $("#<%=divDialogAdd.ClientID %>").dialog("open"); }); } In the modal I have 2 other asp:LinkButtons, and when the 'Yes' button is clicked I do the postback like so: yesBtn.click(function() { setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'btnAdd\',\'\')', 0); //need to add a param }); What I need to do, is somehow grab the CommandArgument value from the LinkButton in the Repeater, so that I can pass that as a parametere or assign it to a hidden field. I have tried jQuery's attr(), but that only works when the attribute was set using that function as well. How can I get this value, or what other way can I go about this?

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  • How do I force a Coldfusion cfc to output numeric data over JSON as a string?

    - by Dan Sorensen
    I'm calling a Coldfusion component (cfc) using jQuery.post(). I need an integer or string representation of the number returned for use in a URL. {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":19382} or {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":"19382"} Instead what I get back is a decimal: {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":19382.0} Needed to update the following HTML: <a href="page.cfm?id=19382" id="pagelink">My Page Title</a> Conceptually, I suppose there are multiple answers: 1) I could use jQuery to grab the number left of the decimal point. 2) I could force Coldfusion to send the number as a string. 3) I could generate the whole link server side and just replace the whole link tag HTML (not the preferred answer, but maybe it is the best) Does anyone know how to do 1 or 2? Is 3 better? Relevant Javascript: (Not optimized) $(".link").live('click', function () { var $linkID, serviceUrl; serviceUrl = "mycfc.cfc?method=getPage"; $linkID = $(this).attr("rel"); $.post(serviceUrl, { linkid: $linkID }, function (result) { $('#pagelink').val(result.TITLE); if (result.FMKEY.length) { // NEED the ID number WITHOUT the .0 at the end $('#pagelink').attr("href") = "page.cfm?id=" + result.ID; $('#pagelink').text(result.TITLE); } }, "json"); }); My CFC: <component output="no"> <cfsetting showdebugoutput="no"> <cffunction name="getPage" access="remote" returnFormat="JSON" output="no" hint="Looks up a Page Title and ID"> <cfargument name="linkID" type="string" required="yes"> <cfset var page = queryNew("id,title")> <cfset var result = structNew()> <cfquery datasource="myDatasource" name="page"> SELECT TOP 1 id, title FROM pages WHERE linkID = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_integer" value="#arguments.linkID#"> </cfquery> <cfif page.recordcount> <cfset result.id = page.id> <cfset result.title = page.title> </cfif> <cfreturn result> </cffunction> </component>

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