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  • jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

    - by meosoft
    Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

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  • Is it possible to "trick" PrintScreen, swap out the contents of my form with something else before c

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a bit of a challenge. In an earlier version of our product, we had an error message window (last resort, unhandled exception) that showed the exception message, type, stack trace + various bits and pieces of information. This window was printscreen-friendly, in that if the user simply did a printscreen-capture, and emailed us the screenshot, we had almost everything we needed to start diagnosing the problem. However, the form was deemed too technical and "scary" for normal users, so it was toned down to a more friendly one, still showing the error message, but not the stack trace and some of the more gory details that I'd still like to get. In addition, the form was added the capabilities of emailing us a text file containing everything we had before + lots of other technical details as well, basically everything we need. However, users still use PrintScreen to capture the contents of the form and email that back to us, which means I now have a less than optimal amount of information to go on. So I was wondering. Would it be possible for me to pre-render a bitmap the same size as my form, with everything I need on it, detect that PrintScreen was hit and quickly swap out the form contents with my bitmap before capture, and then back again afterwards? And before you say "just educate the users", yes, that's not going to work. These are not out users, they're users at our customers place, so we really cannot tell them to wisen up all that much. Or, barring this, is there a way for me to detect PrintScreen, tell Windows to ignore it, and instead react to it, by dumping the aformentioned prerendered bitmap onto the clipboard ready for placing into an email? The code is C# 3.0 in .NET 3.5, if it matters, but pointers for something to look at/for is good enough.

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  • How to Perform Continues Iteration over Shared Dictionary in Multi-threaded Environment

    - by Mubashar Ahmad
    Dear Gurus. Note Pls do not tell me regarding alternative to custom session, Pls answer only relative to the Pattern Scenario I have Done Custom Session Management in my application(WCF Service) for this I have a Dictionary shared to all thread. When a specific function Gets called I add a New Session and Issue SessionId to the client so it can use that sessionId for rest of his calls until it calls another specific function, which terminates this session and removes the session from the Dictionary. Due to any reason Client may not call session terminator function so i have to implement time expiration logic so that i can remove all such sessions from the memory. For this I added a Timer Object which calls ClearExpiredSessions function after the specific period of time. which iterates on the dictionary. Problem: As this dictionary gets modified every time new client comes and leaves so i can't lock the whole dictionary while iterating over it. And if i do not lock the dictionary while iteration, if dictionary gets modified from other thread while iterating, Enumerator will throw exception on MoveNext(). So can anybody tell me what kind of Design i should follow in this case. Is there any standard pattern available.

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  • A Newbie question regarding Software Development

    - by Sharif
    Hi, I'm going to complete my B.pharm (Hons.) degree and, you know, I don't have much knowledge about programing. I was wondering to build a software on my own. Could you guys tell me what to learn first for that? Is it too hard for a student of other discipline to build a software? Let me know please. The software I want to make is like a dictionary (or more specifically like "Physician's Desk Reference"). It should find the generic name, company name, indication, price etc. of a drug when I enter the brand name and vice versa. To build a software like that what programing language could help me most and what (and how many) language should I learn first? In my country, there is no practice of Community pharmacy (most of the pharmacy stores are run by unskilled people), that's why this type of thing could help them sell drugs. Would you please tell me what I'm to do and how tough it is? I'm very keen to learn programming. Thanks in advance NB: I started this post in ASKREDDIT section but it seems that was not the right place for poll type question, so I post it again in this section

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  • Angular ng-style not changing with property

    - by ganaraj
    For the life of me I cant seem to figure out why the style property is not getting updated. In my larger application it seems to work fine. http://jsfiddle.net/ganarajpr/C2hRa/4/ Here is a fiddle which shows the issue I am currently facing. You will notice that the width and height are getting updated in the div when you change the input. But the style itself doesnt seem to be updating. Anyone can tell me what I am doing wrong here? I have tried all the following scenarios using $scope.$apply.. - Throws an error stating $apply already in progress.. $rootScope.$apply - same as above. Setting another variable in a service which is $watched in the other controller. - no change seen. It would be really cool if someone can get me an answer to this. Also would be really happy if you can tell me why exactly it is not getting updated.

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  • Question about Reporting and Data Warehousing Software bundled with SQL Server 2005

    - by anonymous user
    We currently use SQL Server 2005 Enterprise for our fairly large application, that has its roots in pre SQL Server 7.0. The tables are normalized and designed mainly for the application. The developers for the most part have the legacy SQL Server mindset. Only using the part of TSQL that existed back in 7.0, not using any of the new features of tsql or that are bundled with 2005. We're currently trying to build on demand reports using some crappy third party software, and will eventually try to build a data warehouse using more of the same crappy third party software (name removed to protect the guilty, don't ask I will not tell). The rationale for this was that we didn't want to spend more money to buy this additional software from Microsoft (this was not my decision, I had no input, but is my problem now). But from what I can tell is that Enterprise includes all of these tools, or am I missing something? What comes bundled with SQL Server 2005 Enterprise as far as reporting and data warehousing? Will we need to purchase anything else? is there actually anything else that can be purchased from Microsoft in this regard?

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  • Problem in getting Http Response in chrome

    - by Bhaskasr
    Am trying to get http response from php web service in javascript, but getting null in firefox and chrome. plz tell me where am doing mistake here is my code, function fetch_details() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xhttp=new XMLHttpRequest() alert("first"); } else { xhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP") alert("sec"); } xhttp.open("GET","url.com",false); xhttp.send(""); xmlDoc=xhttp.responseXML; alert(xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("Inbox")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); } I have tried with ajax also but am not getting http response here is my code, please guide me var xmlhttp = null; var url = "url.com"; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); alert(xmlhttp); //make sure that Browser supports overrideMimeType if ( typeof xmlhttp.overrideMimeType != 'undefined') { xmlhttp.overrideMimeType('text/xml'); } } else if (window.ActiveXObject) { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } else { alert('Perhaps your browser does not support xmlhttprequests?'); } xmlhttp.open('GET', url, true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4) { alert(xmlhttp.responseXML); } }; } // Make the actual request xmlhttp.send(null); I am getting xmlhttp.readyState = 4 xmlhttp.status = 0 xmlhttp.responseText = "" plz tell me where am doing mistake

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  • Do you like languages that let you put the "then" before the "if"?

    - by Matt Hamilton
    I was reading through some C# code of mine today and found this line: if (ProgenyList.ItemContainerGenerator.Status != System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated) return; Notice that you can tell without scrolling that it's an "if" statement that works with ItemContainerGenerator.Status, but you can't easily tell that if the "if" clause evaluates to "false" the method will return at that point. Realistically I should have moved the "return" statement to a line by itself, but it got me thinking about languages that allow the "then" part of the statement first. If C# permitted it, the line could look like this: return if (ProgenyList.ItemContainerGenerator.Status != System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated); This might be a bit "argumentative", but I'm wondering what people think about this kind of construct. It might serve to make lines like the one above more readable, but it also might be disastrous. Imagine this code: return 3 if (x > y); Logically we can only return if x y, because there's no "else", but part of me looks at that and thinks, "are we still returning if x <= y? If so, what are we returning?" What do you think of the "then before the if" construct? Does it exist in your language of choice? Do you use it often? Would C# benefit from it?

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  • How to track the touch vector?

    - by mystify
    I need to calculate the direction of dragging a touch, to determine if the user is dragging up the screen, or down the screen. Actually pretty simple, right? But: 1) Finger goes down, you get -touchesBegan:withEvent: called 2) Must wait until finger moves, and -touchesMoved:withEvent: gets called 3) Problem: At this point it's dangerous to tell if the user did drag up or down. My thoughts: Check the time and accumulate calculates vectors until it's secure to tell the direction of touch. Easy? No. Think about it: What if the user holds the finger down for 5 minutes on the same spot, but THEN decides to move up or down? BANG! Your code would fail, because it tried to determine the direction of touch when the finger didn't move really. Problem 2: When the finger goes down and stays at the same spot for a few seconds because the user is a bit in the wind and thinks about what to do now, you'll get a lot of -touchesMoved:withEvent: calls very likely, but with very minor changes in touch location. So my next thought: Do the accumulation in -touchesMoved:withEvent:, but only if a certain threshold of movement has been exceeded. I bet you have some better concepts in place?

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  • how to make connection pool in spring application using BasicDataSource.

    - by vipin
    hi friend, I have created the application in which I need to configure the connection pool.In which I am configuring the connection pooling in the spring_Config file. using the Basicdatasource. but there is some problem to create the connection pool. Please tell me how to create the connection pooling in spring application using BasicDatasource. I tried this one code in spring config ;- bean id="datasource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" com.mysql.jdbc.Driver jdbc:mysql://192.168.1.12:3306/revup?noAccessToProcedureBodies=true jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/revup?noAccessToProcedureBodies=true-- revuser root-- kjacob gme997FK-- <property name="poolPreparedStatements"> <value>true</value> </property> <property name="initialSize"> <value>2</value> </property> <property name="maxActive"> <value>15</value> </property> Is there any modification of code please tell me. thanks in advance.

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  • Mapping relationships from multiple databases in NHibernate

    - by mannish
    I have a multi-database application configured with NHibernate. The entities that correspond to tables from each database are in their own separate assemblies (an assembly per database if you will). I have a need/desire to relate an entity from one database to an entity of another database. Everything up to this point works as I want it to (the application handles multiple session factories, etc.). The relationship I want is many-to-one, but in reality my application only cares about one side of the relationship (for reasons that aren't relevant). The relevant entities are Project and PMProject, where a Project HAS A PMProject. When I map the many-to-one, I get the following error: NHibernate.MappingException: An association from the table PROJECTS refers to an unmapped class: SDMS.PPRM.PMProject The Project mapping itself reads (ignore the funky column naming; it's an Oracle db): <many-to-one name="PMProject" class="SDMS.PPRM.PMProject" column="PM_PROJECT_ID" cascade="none" /> In the class attribute, I'm referencing the appropriate assembly, but I get that error which seems to tell me it simply can't find the mapping file for PMProject. But that file exists (it's set as embedded resource), the session factory instantiation works without fail; so I'm at a loss on how to tell the Project mapping how/where to look for the appropriate mapping. Is there something I'm missing? A better way to go about this? Thanks in advance.

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  • MySQL SELECT Statement not working when executed from PHP

    - by Andrew K
    Hello all, I have the following piece of code, executing a pretty simple MySQL query: $netnestquery = 'SELECT (`nested`+1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<='.$adaddr.' AND `subnet`<='.$postmask.' AND `type`="net" AND `addr` NOT IN(SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<'.$adaddr.' AND `type`="broadcast") ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1'; $netnestresults = mysql_query($netnestquery); $netnestrow = mysql_fetch_array($netnestresults); $nestlvl = $netnestrow['nest']; echo '<br> NESTQ: '.$netnestquery; Now, when I execute this in PHP, I get no results; an empty query. However, when I copy and paste the query echoed by my code (for debug purposes) into the mysql command line, I get a valid result: mysql> SELECT (`nested` + 1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<=50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `subnet`<=36 AND `type`='net' AND `addr` NOT IN (SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `type`='broadcast') ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1; +------+ | nest | +------+ | 1 | +------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong? I can't put quotes around my variables, as then MySQL will try to evaluate the variable as a string, when it is, in fact, a very large decimal. I think I might just be making a stupid mistake somewhere, but I can't tell where.

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  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

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  • Can I get the IE debugger to break into long-running javascript

    - by Brian Deacon
    I have a page that has a byzantine amount of javascript running. In IE only, and only version 8, I get a long-script warning that I can reliably reproduce. I suspect it is event handlers triggering themselves in an infinite loop. The Developer Tools are limping horribly under the weight of the script running, but I do seem to be able to get the log to tell me what line of script it was executing when I aborted, but it is inevitably some of the deep plumbing of the ExtJS code we use, and I can't tell where it is in my stack of code. A way of seeing the call stack would work, but preferably I'd like to be able to just break into the debugger when I get the long script warning so I can just step through the stack. There is a similar question posted, but the answers given were for a not-the-right-tool, or the not terribly helpful advice to eliminate half my code at a time on a binary hunt for the infinite loop. If my code were simple enough that I could do that, it probably wouldn't have gotten the infinite loop in the first place. If I could reproduce the problem in firebug, I'd probably be a lot happier too.

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  • How to use two parameters pointing to the same structure in one function ?

    - by ZaZu
    Hey guys, I have my code below that consits of a structure, a main, and a function. The function is supposed to display two parameters that have certain values, both of which point to the same structure. The problem I dont know how to add the SECOND parameter onto the following code : #include<stdio.h> #define first 500 #define sec 500 struct trial{ int f; int r; float what[first][sec]; }; int trialtest(trial *test); main(){ trial test; trialtest(&test); } int trialtest(trial *test){ int z,x,i; for(i=0;i<5;i++){ printf("%f,(*test).what[z][x]); } return 0; } I need to add a new parameter test_2 there (IN THE SAME FUNCTION) using this code : for(i=0;i<5;i++){ printf("%f,(*test_2).what[z][x]); How does int trialtest(trial *test) changes ? and how does it change in main ? I know that I should declare test_2 as well, like this : trial test,test_2; But what about passing the address in the function ? I do not need to edit it right ? trialtest(&test); --- This will remain the same ? So please, tell me how would I use test_2 as a parameter pointing to the same structure as test, both in the same function.. Thank you !! Please tell me if you need more clarification

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  • How can get unique values from data table using dql?

    - by piemesons
    I am having a table in which there is a column in which various values are stored.i want to retrieve unique values from that table using dql. Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('rec.school') ->from('Records rec') ->where("rec.city='$city' ") ->execute(); Now i want only unique values. Can anybody tell me how to do that... Edit Table Structure: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `records` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `state` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, `city` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, `school` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci AUTO_INCREMENT=16334 ; This is the Query I am using: Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('DISTINCT rec.city') ->from('Records rec') ->where("rec.state = '$state'") // ->getSql(); ->execute(); Generting Sql for this gives me: SELECT DISTINCT r.id AS r__id, r.city AS r__city FROM records r WHERE r.state = 'AR' Now check the sql generated:::: DISTINCT is on 'id' column where as i want Distinct on city column. Anybody know how to fix this. EDIT2 Id is unique cause its an auto incremental value.Ya i have some real duplicates in city column like: Delhi and Delhi. Right.. Now when i am trying to fetch data from it, I am getting Delhi two times. How can i make query like this: select DISTINCT rec.city where state="xyz"; Cause this will give me the proper output. EDIT3: Anybody who can tell me how to figure out this query..???

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  • NSTask Launch causing crash

    - by tripskeet
    Hi, I have an application that can import an XML file through this terminal command : open /path/to/main\ app.app --args myXML.xml This works great with no issues. And i have used Applescript to launch this command through shell and it works just as well. Yet when try using Cocoa's NSTask Launcher using this code : NSTask *task = [[NSTask alloc] init]; [task setLaunchPath:@"/usr/bin/open"]; [task setCurrentDirectoryPath:@"/Applications/MainApp/InstallData/App/"]; [task setArguments:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[(NSURL *)foundApplicationURL path], @"--args", @"ImportP.xml", nil]]; [task launch]; the applications will start up to the initial screen and then crash when either the next button is clicked or when trying to close the window. Ive tried using NSAppleScript with this : NSAppleScript *script = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:@"tell application \"Terminal\" do script \"open /Applications/MainApp/InstallData/App/Main\\\\ App.app\" end tell"]; NSDictionary *errorInfo; [script executeAndReturnError:&errorInfo]; This will launch the program and it will crash as well and i get this error in my Xcode debug window : 12011-01-04 17:41:28.296 LaunchAppFile[4453:a0f] Error loading /Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax/Contents/MacOS/Adobe Unit Types: dlopen(/Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax/Contents/MacOS/Adobe Unit Types, 262): no suitable image found. Did find: /Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax/Contents/MacOS/Adobe Unit Types: no matching architecture in universal wrapper LaunchAppFile: OpenScripting.framework - scripting addition "/Library/ScriptingAdditions/Adobe Unit Types.osax" declares no loadable handlers. So with research i came up with this : NSAppleScript *script = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:@"do shell script \"arch -i386 osascript /Applications/MainApp/InstallData/App/test.scpt\""]; NSDictionary *errorInfo; [script executeAndReturnError:&errorInfo]; But this causes the same results as the last command. Any ideas on what causes this crash?

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  • Automatically restarting Erlang applications

    - by Nick
    I recently ran into a bug where an entire Erlang application died, yielding a log message that looked like this: =INFO REPORT==== 11-Jun-2010::11:07:25 === application: myapp exited: shutdown type: temporary I have no idea what triggered this shutdown, but the real problem I have is that it didn't restart itself. Instead, the now-empty Erlang VM just sat there doing nothing. Now, from the research I've done, it looks like there are other "start types" you can give an application: 'transient' and 'permanent'. If I start a Supervisor within an application, I can tell it to make a particular process transient or permanent, and it will automatically restart it for me. However, according to the documentation, if I make an application transient or permanent, it doesn't restart it when it dies, but rather it kills all the other applications as well. What I really want to do is somehow tell the Erlang VM that a particular application should always be running, and if it goes down, restart it. Is this possible to do? (I'm not talking about implementing a supervisor on top of my application, because then it's a catch 22: what if my supervisor process crashes? I'm looking for some sort of API or setting that I can use to have Erlang monitor and restart my application for me.) Thanks!

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  • How to make command-line options mandatory with GLib?

    - by ahe
    I use GLib to parse some command-line options. The problem is that I want to make two of those options mandatory so that the program terminates with the help screen if the user omits them. My code looks like this: static gint line = -1; static gint column = -1; static GOptionEntry options[] = { {"line", 'l', 0, G_OPTION_ARG_INT, &line, "The line", "L"}, {"column", 'c', 0, G_OPTION_ARG_INT, &column, "The column", "C"}, {NULL} }; ... int main(int argc, char** argv) { GError *error = NULL; GOptionContext *context; context = g_option_context_new ("- test"); g_option_context_add_main_entries (context, options, NULL); if (!g_option_context_parse(context, &argc, &argv, &error)) { usage(error->message, context); } ... return 0; } If I omit one of those parameters or both on the command-line g_option_context_parse() still succeeds and the values in question (line and or column) are still -1. How can I tell GLib to fail parsing if the user doesn't pass both options on the command-line? Maybe I'm just blind but I couldn't find a flag I can put into my GOptionEntry data structure to tell it to make those fields mandatory. Of course I could check if one of those variables is still -1 but then the user could just have passed this value on the command-line and I want to print a separate error message if the values are out of range.

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  • one key multiple values from different sources c#

    - by user2964034
    I am trying to make a c# program that will compare two files for me, and tell me the differences of specific parts. I have been able to get the parts I need into variables while looping through, but I now want to add these to a key with 3 values per file, so a key with 6 values overall which I will then compare to eachother later on. But I can only add 3 values at a time using the loop I have, so I need to be able to add the last 3 values to the key without overwriting the first 3. example of data from file: [\Advanced\Rules\Correlation Rules\Suspect_portscan\]; CheckDescription =S Detect Port scans; Enabled =B 0; Priority =L 3; I have managed to get what I need into variables so I have: string SigName would be "Suspect_portscan" Int Enabled, Priority, Blocking as 0 3 and null respectivly. I then want to make a dictionary type thing, with a key which would be the SigName and the first 3 values as enabled, priority, blocking. Then when looping through the second file, I want to add the 2nd files settings for the enabled, priority, blocking for the same SigName (so to the key) in the last 3 value slots. I will then compare this against itself, like 'if signame(0) != signame(3)' so if file 1 enabled is not the same as file two enabled make a note and tell me. But the problem I have is not being able to get the data into a dictionary or lookup, I'm completely stumped. It seems like I should use a dictionary with a list for the values but I cant get it working on the second loop through. Thanks.

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  • How to get the set of beans that are to be created in Spring?

    - by cyborg
    So here's the scenario: I have a Spring XML configuration with some lazy-beans, some not lazy-beans and some beans that depend on other beans. Eventually Spring will resolve all this so that only the beans that are meant to be created are created. The question: how can I programmatically tell what this set is? When I use context.getBean(name) that initializes the bean. BeanDefinition.isLazyInit() will only tell me how I defined the bean. Any other ideas? ETA: In DefaultListableBeanFactory: public void preInstantiateSingletons() throws BeansException { if (this.logger.isInfoEnabled()) { this.logger.info("Pre-instantiating singletons in " + this); } synchronized (this.beanDefinitionMap) { for (Iterator it = this.beanDefinitionNames.iterator(); it.hasNext();) { String beanName = (String) it.next(); RootBeanDefinition bd = getMergedLocalBeanDefinition(beanName); if (!bd.isAbstract() && bd.isSingleton() && !bd.isLazyInit()) { if (isFactoryBean(beanName)) { FactoryBean factory = (FactoryBean) getBean(FACTORY_BEAN_PREFIX + beanName); if (factory instanceof SmartFactoryBean && ((SmartFactoryBean) factory).isEagerInit()) { getBean(beanName); } } else { getBean(beanName); } } } } } The set of instantiable beans is initialized. When initializing this set any beans not in this set referenced by this set will also be created. From looking through the source it does not look like there's going to be any easy way to answer my question.

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  • Import CSV to class structure as the user defines

    - by Assimilater
    I have a contact manager program and I would like to offer the feature to import csv files. The problem is that different data sources order the fields in different ways. I thought of programming an interface for the user to tell it the field order and how to handle exceptions. Here is an example line in one of many possible field orders: "ID#","Name","Rank","Address1","Address2","City","State","Country","Zip","Phone#","Email","Join Date","Sponsor ID","Sponsor Name" "Z1234","Call, Anson","STU","1234 E. 6578 S.","","Somecity","TX","United States","012345","000-000-0000","[email protected]","5/24/2010","z12343","Quantum Independence" Notice that in one data field "Name" there is a comma to separate last name and first name and in another there is not. My plan is to have a line for each field (ie ID, Name, City etc.) and a statement "import to" and list box with options like: Don't Import, BusinessJoin Date, First Name, Zip and the program recognizes those as properties of an object... I'd also like the user to be able to record preset field orders so they can re-use them for csv files from the same download source. Then I also need it to check if a record all ready exists (is there a record for Anson Call all ready?) and allow the user to tell it what to do if there is a record (ie mailing address may have changes, so if that field is filled overwrite it, or this mailing address is invalid, leave the current data untouched for this person, overwrite the rest). While I'm capable of coding this...i'm not very excited about it and I'm wondering if there's a tool or set of tools out there to all ready perform most of this functionality... I hope this makes sense...

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  • jQuery preventing RedirectToAction from working?

    - by DaveDev
    I'm trying to redirect the user if they login successfully but the code I have on my page seems to be preventing the redirection from working. If I remove the jQuery below the redirection works. Can somebody tell me tell me if there's something I'm doing wrong? Thanks I have the following Action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { var myErrors = new Dictionary<string, string>(); try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Group", new {page = (int?)null}); } else { return Json("Username or password seems to be incorrect"); } } else { foreach (KeyValuePair<string, ModelState> keyValuePair in ViewData.ModelState) { if (keyValuePair.Value.Errors.Count > 0) { List<string> errors = new List<string>(); myErrors.Add(keyValuePair.Key, keyValuePair.Value.Errors[0].ErrorMessage); } } return Json(myErrors); } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } } and the following code on my page: <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#SaveSuccess").hide(); $("#btnLogin").click(function() { $("form").submit(function(event) { var formData = $(this).serialize(); $.post($(this).attr("action"), formData, function(res) { ShowErrors(res); if (res == true) { $("#SaveSuccess").text("Saved"); } else { $("#divError").html(res); } $("#SaveSuccess").fadeIn(100); }, "json"); return false; }); }); }); </script>

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  • How to optimize paging for large in memory database

    - by snakefoot
    I have an application where the entire database is implemented in memory using a stl-map for each table in the database. Each item in the stl-map is a complex object with references to other items in the other stl-maps. The application works with a large amount of data, so it uses more than 500 MByte RAM. Clients are able to contact the application and get a filtered version of the entire database. This is done by running through the entire database, and finding items relevant for the client. When the application have been running for an hour or so, then Windows 2003 SP2 starts to page out parts of the RAM for the application (Eventhough there is 16 GByte RAM on the machine). After the application have been partly paged out then a client logon takes a long time (10 mins) because it now generates a page fault for each pointer lookup in the stl-map. I can see it is possible to tell Windows to lock memory in RAM, but this is generally only recommended for device drivers, and only for "small" amounts of memory. I guess a poor mans solution could be to loop through the entire memory database, and thus tell Windows we are still interested in keeping the datamodel in RAM. I guess another poor mans solution could be to disable the pagefile completely on Windows. I guess the expensive solution would be a SQL database, and then rewrite the entire application to use a database layer. Then hopefully the database system will have implemented means to for fast access. Are there other more elegant solutions ?

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  • Reverse-projection 2D points into 3D

    - by ehsan baghaki
    Suppose we have a 3d Space with a plane on it with an arbitary equation : ax+by+cz+d=0 now suppose that we pick 3 random points on that plane: (x0,y0,z0) (x1,y1,z1) (x1,y1,z1) now i have a different point of view(camera) for this plane. i mean i have a different camera that will look at this plane from a different point of view. From that camera point of view these points have different locations. for example (x0,y0,z0) will be (x0',y0') and (x1,y1,z1) will be (x1',y1') and (x2,y2,z2) will be (x2',y2') from the new camera point of view. So here is my a little hard question! I want to pick a point for example (X,Y) from the new camera point of view and tell where it will be on that plane. All i know is that 3 points and their locations on 3d space and their projection locations on the new camera view. Do you know the coefficients of the plane-equation and the camera positions (along with the projection), or do you only have the six points? - Nils i know the location of first 3 points. therefore we can calculate the coefficients of the plane. so we know exactly where the plane is from (0,0,0) point of view. and then we have the camera that can only see the points! So the only thing that camera sees is 3 points and also it knows their locations in 3d space (and for sure their locations on 2d camera view plane). and after all i want to look at camera view, pick a point (for example (x1,y1)) and tell where is that point on that plane. (for sure this (X,Y,Z) point should fit on the plane equation). Also i know nothing about the camera location.

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