Search Results

Search found 2087 results on 84 pages for 'upgrading'.

Page 72/84 | < Previous Page | 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79  | Next Page >

  • Problem Rendering SIFR with revision 436 on IE6 and IE7

    - by Mark
    Hi, I seem to have a problem with SIFR3. I'm using version 436 and from all my testing it appears to be a problem associated with IE6 and IE7 as I cannot replicate the issue in Firefox, Chrome, Safari for Windows, or even IE8. The problem is occurring on my company's website and can be seen here: http://www.wyldeia.co.uk/blog.php When you first go to the page in IE6 or IE7 it appears to render fine. However if you click away onto another page and then click the back button in the browser, all of the text is replaced by an error saying "Rendered with sIFR3 revision 436". If you refresh the page, then the problem goes away, that is until you browse away and come back again. I've tried this on two separate machines both running IE7.0.6000.16809, and a further separate machine running IE6 which I then upgraded to IE8. I thought initially it might be Flash player related but on upgrading from version 9 to 10 of the flash player the problem remains. Further digging around indicated that the error can be caused by having a corrupted flash font file, or having one present that was generated with a previous revision of SIFR3. However I have exported the flash font file using the supplied fla with revision 436 but the problem remains. Usually I like to track the answer down myself but as it is I'm at a bit of a loss on this one so if anyone has any ideas what might be happening here then I would be very grateful! Regards, Mark

    Read the article

  • .NET4: In-Process Side-by-Side Execution Explained

    - by emptyset
    Overview: I'm interested in learning more about the .NET4 "In-Process Side-by-Side Execution" of assemblies, and need additional information to help me demystify it. Motivation: The application in question is built against .NET2, and uses two third-party libraries that also work against .NET2. The application is deployed (via file copy) to client machines in a virtual environment that includes .NET2. Not my architecture, please bear with me. Goal: To see if it's possible to rebuild the application assemblies (or a subset) against .NET4, and ship the application as before, without changing the third-party libraries and including the .NET4 Client Profile (as described here) in the deployment. Steps Taken: The following articles were read, but didn't quite provide me enough information: In-Process Side-by-Side Execution: Browsed this article, and Scenario Two is the closest it comes to describing something that resembles my situation, but doesn't really cover it with any depth. ASP.NET Side-by-Side Execution Overview: This article covers a web application, but I'm dealing with a client WinForms application. CLR Team Blog: In-Process Side-by-Side: This is useful to explain how plug-ins to host processes function under .NET4, but I don't know if this applies to the third-party libraries. Further Steps: I'm also unclear on how to proceed upgrading a single .NET2 assembly to .NET4, with the overall application remaining in .NET2 (i.e. how to configure the solution/project files, if any special code needs to be included, etc.).

    Read the article

  • Maintaining ISAPI Rewrite Path with the ASP.NET tilde (~)

    - by Adam
    My team is upgrading from ASP.NET 3.5 to ASP.NET 4.0. We are currently using Helicon ISAPI Rewrite to map http://localhost/<account-name>/default.aspx to http://localhost/<virtual-directory>/default.aspx?AccountName=<account-name> where <account-name> is a query string variable and <virtual-directory> is a virtual directory (naturally). Before the upgrade the tilde (~) resolved to http://localhost/<account-name>/... (which I want it to do) and after the upgrade the tilde resolves to http://localhost/<virtual-directory>/... which results in an error because the <account-name> query string is required. I'd like to avoid going down the road of replacing everything with relative paths because there are several features in our system that use the entire URL instead of just the relative path. For what it's worth I'm using IIS7 in Windows 7, Visual Studio 2010 with ASP.NET 4.0 and the 64 bit Helicon ISAPI Rewrite. If I switch back to the ASP.NET 3.5 version then it still works fine (leading me to believe nothing changed in IIS unless it's within the 4.0 app pool - when I switch back and forth between 3.5 and 4.0 I have to change the app pool in IIS). Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • jQuery 1.4 Dynamically created images aspect ratio incorrect in IE8 and max-width

    - by Chris
    After upgrading to jQuery 1.4, when I try to add an image to a page dynamically using jQuery 1.4 in IE8, the image will lose the correct aspect ratio. This appears to affect only IE8 (IE7 and Firefox work fine) with jQuery 1.4 (1.3.2 works fine). Including the jQuery compatability file does not fix the problem. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4/jquery.min.js" language="javascript" type="text/javascript"></script> <!-- Switching to 1.3.2 fixes the problem --> <!--<script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js" language="javascript" type="text/javascript"></script>--> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var dynImg = $('<img></img>').attr('src', 'http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/images/logo.gif'); $('body').append(dynImg); }); </script> <style type="text/css"> img { max-width: 5em; } </style> </head> <body></body></html>

    Read the article

  • Why does Tfs2010 build my Wix project before anything else?

    - by bwerks
    Hi all, A similar question was asked and answered about a year ago, but was either a different issue (everything was in beta) or misdiagnosed. It's located here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/688162/msbuild-task-fails-because-any-cpu-solution-is-built-out-of-order. My issue is that I have a wix installer project, and after upgrading to Tfs2010 on monday, the build fails on linking because it can't find the build product of the Wpf application in the project. After some digging, it's because it hasn't been built yet. Building in Vs2010 works as normal. The wix project is set to depend on the Wpf project, and when viewing Project Build Order in the IDE, everything looks as normal. The problem was originally encountered with only two platform definitions in the solution; x86 and x64. There are also two flavors, Debug and Release, and TFSBuild.proj is set to build all four combinations. There was no occurence of AnyCPU anywhere. Per the referenced question above, I tried changing the Wpf project to use AnyCPU so that it would be built first. At this point, the wix project used the exact configuration and the Wpf project used the flavor with AnyCPU. However, doing so didn't seem to change anything. I'm using the Tfs2010 RTM, Vs2010 RTM, and the most recent version of Wix, which at the time of this writing is 3.5.1602.0, from 2010-04-02. Anyone else running into this?

    Read the article

  • VS2010 / Target Framework = 3.5 / Building on Continuous Integration Server

    - by granadaCoder
    I'm checking into upgrading to VS2010. Our production servers only have 3.5 Framework and it will be 6-9 months before they are updated. We also have a Continuous Integration Server, running CruiseControl.NET (CC.NET). It has the 3.5 Framework on it as well. Our implementation of CC.NET mainly calls msbuild.exe MySolution.msbuild. (We encapsulate most of the build logic into .msbuild files fyi) Inside the .msbuild file, the following is the "Build" syntax: < Target Name="Build" DependsOnTargets="Checkout" < MSBuild Projects="$(WorkingCheckout)\MySolution.sln" Targets="Build" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" < Output TaskParameter="TargetOutputs" ItemName="TargetOutputsItemName"< /Output < /MSBuild < /Target (A few spaces added to make it display here) =========== I know the VS2010 can "Target" the 3.5 Framework. My question is what happens when I have a VS2010 dev machine, and I check the VS2010 .sln and .csproj(s) files into source control (svn, btw).....will the CC.NET machine ~~which only have the 3.5 Framework installed on it........be able to build the .sln ? I guess I could test it, but the catch22 is that I don't have VS2010 (yet). So I'm asking before I try (the trial or a real install. ............. Any ideas what will happen? I guess the crux question is, what will happen. c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5\MSBuild.exe "MyVS2010SolutionFile.sln" ?? My hopeful goal would be, allow the developers to have VS2010 (now!), and it still be "ok" for the CC.NET machine and the Production Servers which will only have the 3.5 Framework on them for the foreseeable future. Just to be clear, developers NEVER create deployable builds. Only the CC.NET machine produces builds that will be pushed as production builds. Any help?

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net MVC Tutorial Unit Tests

    - by Nicholas
    I am working through Steve Sanderson's book Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and I having some issues with two unit tests which produce errors. In the example below it tests the CheckOut ViewResult: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ViewResult CheckOut(Cart cart, FormCollection form) { // Empty carts can't be checked out if (cart.Lines.Count == 0) { ModelState.AddModelError("Cart", "Sorry, your cart is empty!"); return View(); } // Invoke model binding manually if (TryUpdateModel(cart.ShippingDetails, form.ToValueProvider())) { orderSubmitter.SubmitOrder(cart); cart.Clear(); return View("Completed"); } else // Something was invalid return View(); } with the following unit test [Test] public void Submitting_Empty_Shipping_Details_Displays_Default_View_With_Error() { // Arrange CartController controller = new CartController(null, null); Cart cart = new Cart(); cart.AddItem(new Product(), 1); // Act var result = controller.CheckOut(cart, new FormCollection { { "Name", "" } }); // Assert Assert.IsEmpty(result.ViewName); Assert.IsFalse(result.ViewData.ModelState.IsValid); } I have resolved any issues surrounding 'TryUpdateModel' by upgrading to ASP.NET MVC 2 (Release Candidate 2) and the website runs as expected. The associated error messages are: *Tests.CartControllerTests.Submitting_Empty_Shipping_Details_Displays_Default_View_With_Error: System.ArgumentNullException : Value cannot be null. Parameter name: controllerContext* and the more detailed at System.Web.Mvc.ModelValidator..ctor(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext controllerContext) at System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.OnModelUpdated(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) at System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindComplexModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.TryUpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, String prefix, String[] includeProperties, String[] excludeProperties, IValueProvider valueProvider) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.TryUpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, IValueProvider valueProvider) at WebUI.Controllers.CartController.CheckOut(Cart cart, FormCollection form) Has anyone run into a similar issue or indeed got the test to pass?

    Read the article

  • «HTTP::Message content must be bytes» error when trying to post

    - by ZyX
    I have the following code: ... sub setImage { my $self=shift; my $filename=shift; unless(-r $filename) { warn "File $filename not found"; return; } my $imgn=shift; my $operation=&URI::Escape::uri_escape_utf8( (shift) ? "???????! (Delete)" : "?????????! (Store)"); my $FH=&::File::open($filename, 0, 0); my $image; # &utf8::downgrade($image); sysread($FH, $image, 102400, 0); close $FH; my $imginfo=eval{&Image::Info::image_info(\$image)}; if($@ or $imginfo->{"error"}) { warn "Invalid image: ".($@ || $imginfo->{"error"}); return undef; } my $fields=[ DIR => $self->url("fl"), OPERATION => $operation, FILE_NAME => ".photo$imgn", # FILE => [$filename], FILE => [undef, "image.".$imginfo->{"file_ext"}, # Content_Type => $imginfo->{"file_media_type"}, # Content_Type => 'application/octet-stream', Content => $image, ], ]; my $response=&ZLR::UA::post( &ZLR::UA::absURL("/cgi-bin/file_manager")."", $fields, Content_Type => "form-data", ); print $response->decoded_content; } ... When I try to use function setImage it fails with error HTTP::Message content must be bytes at /usr/lib64/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.8/HTTP/Request/Common.pm line 91. Worse that I can't reproduce this error without using all of my code and upgrading libwww-perl does nothing. What can cause it?

    Read the article

  • Eclipse randomly exits after installation of Blackberry plugin/SDK

    - by canadiancreed
    Hello all Since adding the Blackberry Java classes from their website into eclipse, I've had it where eclipse will randomly close, with no discernible pattern, rhyme, error or reason. Here is the environment/software packages that I am using: Windows XP SP2 Eclipse v3.5.1 Blackberry Java Plugin v1.1.1.200911111641-15 Blackberry Java SDK 4.5.0.21 I've tried the usual steps of complete uninstall and reinstallation of Eclipse and the accompanying plugins on multiple systems with the same configuration, including one that had a fresh install of Windows XP SP2. Upgrading to Eclipse 3.6 didn't work (the plugin wont' install as it's the wrong version), nor the downgrade to 3.4 for the same reason. I also increased the heap size to 512 (system has two gigs of memory) as some research into Eclipse doing this type of thing with Groovy was resolved that way, but again, no dice. Eclipse works great when the blackberry plugins are not installed, and no entries of errors or issues in the event log are helping to show what the issue with these plug-ins might be. So if anyone has ran into this issue, and even better, has a solution, I'd love to hear about it. Thanks in advance. EDIT: An additional to my issue, autoComplete with the Blackberry SDK seems to make this extremely unstable, like almost a guaranteed crash. Is this fixable at all?

    Read the article

  • Maintaining a Python web application: heavier vs lighter framework?

    - by Tiberiu Ana
    Five+ years from now, you are hired to support and extend a data-centric web application written in Python that hasn't been kept up to date. Would you rather prefer it was written in the current version of Django/Pylons at the time, using the available standard components, or kept minimal with something like CherryPy/web.py and a few library dependencies? Heavy framework Advantages: standard approach to application design and structure, as encouraged by framework; less application code to worry about. Disadvantages: requires learning the framework to understand how things work; broken things in old version of framework difficult to fix; upgrading to new version potentially difficult due to changing APIs; finding relevant documentation/help potentially difficult due to changing APIs. Light framework Advantages: most application code is directly "visible"; only needed features are implemented; architecture should be simpler to understand; less need to upgrade external dependencies; easier to upgrade external dependencies. Disadvantages: some reinventing the wheel; non-standard design and structure (with the associated unique issues and bugs). I will update the list with any helpful answers.

    Read the article

  • python / sqlite - database locked despite large timeouts

    - by Chris Phillips
    Hi, I'm sure I'm missing something pretty obvious, but I can't for the life of me stop my pysqlite scripts crashing out with a database is locked error. I have two scripts, one to load data into the database, and one to read data out, but both will frequently, and instantly, crash depending on what the other is doing with the database at any given time. I've got the timeout on both scripts set to 30 seconds: cx = sqlite.connect("database.sql", timeout=30.0) and think I can see some evidence of the timeouts in that i get what appears to be a timing stamp (e.g 0.12343827e-06 0.1 - and how do I stop that being printed?) dumped occasionally in the middle of my curses formatted output screen, but no delay that ever gets remotely near the 30 second timeout, but still one of the other keeps crashing again and again from this. I'm running RHEL5.4 on a 64 bit 4 cpu HS21 IBM blade, and have heard some mention about issues about multi-threading and am not sure if this might be relevant. Packages in use are sqlite-3.3.6-5 and python-sqlite-1.1.7-1.2.1, and upgrading to newer versions outside of RedHat's official provisions is not a great option for me. Possible, but not desirable due to the environment in general. I have had autocommit=1 on previously on both scripts, but have since disabled on both, and am now cx.commit()ing on the inserting script and not committing on the select script. Ultimately as I only ever have one script actually making any modifications, I don't really see why this locking should ever ever happen. I have noticed that this is significantly worse over time when the database has gotten larger. It was recently at 13mb with 3 equal sized tables, which was about 1 day's worth of data. creating a new file has significantly improved this, which seems understandable, but the timeout ultimately just doesn't seem to be being obeyed. Any pointers very much appreciated. Thanks Chris

    Read the article

  • What do I need to do to make a WPF Browser Application (XBAP) that requires Full Trust work on Windo

    - by Benoit J. Girard
    So this is a Visual Studio 2008, .NET, WPF, XBAP, Windows 7 question, regarding .NET trust policies. At work, we have several Web Browser Applications (.XBAP files) developed with Visual Studio 2008 (so .NET 3.5) that we deployed internally. These required a .NET FullTrust policy, we found a way to make a .MSI that adjusted the policy on individual stations, everything worked great. Users love in-browser apps. This was last year and on Windows XP. This year our company started upgrading users to Windows 7, and now none of our Web Browser Applications work. The error message is "Trust Not Granted", as if the policy-changing .MSI had not been run. Other details: I can confirm that our apps work on Windows XP for Internet Explorer 7 and Firefox, and do not work on Windows 7 for Internet Explorer 8 nor Firefox. I must admit that .NET security policies mystify me. Still, I could not find any mention of this problem on the Net at large or on this site. Did anybody else encounter this problem? Any and all help welcome.

    Read the article

  • Eclipse PDE - Plug-in, Feature, and Product Versioning

    - by Michael
    I am having much confusion over the process of upgrading version numbers in dependent plug-ins, features, and products in a fairly large eclipse workspace. I have made API changes to java code residing in an existing plug-in and thus requires an increase of the Major part of the version identifier. This plug-in serves as a dependency to a given feature, where the feature is later included in a product. From the documentation at http://wiki.eclipse.org/Version_Numbering, I understand (for the most part) when the proper number should be increased on the containing plug-in itself. However, how would this Major version number change on the plug-in affect dependent, "down-the-line" items (e.g., features, products)? For example, assume we have the typical "Hello World" setup as follows: Plug-in: com.example.helloworld, version 1.0.0 Feature: com.example.helloworld.feature, version 1.0.0 Product: com.example.helloworld.product, version 1.0.0 If I were to make an API change in the plug-in, this would require a version update to be that of 2.0.0. What would then be the version of the feature, 1.1.0? The same question can be applied for the product level as well (e.g., if the feature is 1.1.0 OR 2.0.0, what is the product version number)? I'm sure this is quite the newbie question so I apologize for wasting anyone's time and effort. I have searched for this type of content but all I am finding is are examples showing how to develop a plug-in, feature, product, and update site for the first time. The only other content related to my search has been developing feature patches and have not touched on the versioning aspect as much as I would prefer. I am having difficulty coming into (for the first time) an Eclipse RCP / PDE environment and need to learn the proper way and / or best practices for making such versioning updates and how to best reflect this throughout other dependent projects in the workspace.

    Read the article

  • MVC 2 Data annotations problem

    - by Louzzzzzz
    Hi. Going mad now. I have a MVC solution that i've upgraded from MVC 1 to 2. It all works fine.... except the Validation! Here's some code: In the controller: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Globalization; using System.Linq; using System.Security.Principal; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using MF.Services.Authentication; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; namespace MF.Controllers { //basic viewmodel public class LogOnViewData { [Required] public string UserName { get; set; } [Required] public string Password { get; set; } } [HandleError] public class AccountController : Controller { [HttpPost] public ActionResult LogOn(LogOnViewData lvd, string returnUrl) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { //do stuff - IsValid is always true } } } } The ModelState is always valid. The model is being populated correctly however. Therefore, if I leave both username and password blank, and post the form the model state is still valid. Argh! Extra info: using structure map for IoD. Previously, before upgrading to MVC 2 was using the MS data annotation library so had this in my global.asax.cs: ModelBinders.Binders.DefaultBinder = new Microsoft.Web.Mvc.DataAnnotations.DataAnnotationsModelBinder(); Have removed that now. I'm sure i'm doing something really basic and wrong. If someone could point it out that would be marvellous. Cheers

    Read the article

  • Secure Password Storage and Transfer

    - by Andras Zoltan
    I'm developing a new user store for my organisation and am now tackling password storage. The concepts of salting, HMAC etc are all fine with me - and want to store the users' passwords either salted and hashed, HMAC hashed, or HMAC salted and hashed - not sure what the best way will be - but in theory it won't matter as it will be able to change over time if required. I want to have an XML & JSON service that can act as a Security Token Service for client-side apps. I've already developed one for another system, which requires that the client double-encrypts a clear-text password using SHA1 first and then HMACSHA1 using a 128 unique key (or nonce) supplied by the server for that session only. I'd like to repeat this technique for the new system - upgrading the algo to SHA256 (chosen since implementations are readily available for all aforementioned platforms - and it's much stronger than SHA1) - but there is a problem. If I'm storing the password as a salted hash in the user-store, the client will need to be sent that salt in order to construct the correct hash before being HMACd with the unique session key. This would completely go against the point of using a salt in the first place. Equally, if I don't use salt for password storage, but instead use HMAC, it's still the same problem. At the moment, the only solution I can see is to use naked SHA256 hashing for the password in the user store, so that I can then use this as a starting point on both the server and the client for a more secure salted/hmacd password transfer for the web service. This still leaves the user store vulnerable to a dictionary attack were it ever to be accessed; and however unlikely that might be - assuming it will never happen simply doesn't sit well with me. Greatly appreciate any input.

    Read the article

  • How do I pass arguments to pages in a WPF application?

    - by Rod
    I'm working on upgrading a really old VB6 app to a WPF application. This will be a page-based app, but not a XBAP. The old VB6 app had a start form where a user would enter search criteria. Then they would get results in a grid, select a row in the grid and then click on one of 3 buttons. I am thinking that what I'll do is use hyperlink controls on the WPF app. No matter what button the user clicked on the old VB6 app, it would go to a second form. What it did on the second form was dependent upon which button the user clicked on the first form. So, I want the first page in my WPF app to do the same thing, but depending upon which hyperlink they click on will dictate what happens on the second page. They will either (a) go to the second page to edit the details as well as a lot more information, related to what they selected on the first page, or (b) enter a new record and all associated data (a new client, in this case), or (c) create a new case for the same client, selected on the first page. For me the hard thing is I don't know how to pass that information along to the second page. Is there something in WPF like in HTML where there's a query string? Or how do you get information from the first page to the second page, in WPF? I'm working in VS 2008.

    Read the article

  • Adobe AIR non-Administrator application installation/upgrade on Windows

    - by bzlm
    Is there any way to allow non-Administrator users to install, upgrade or uninstall an Adobe AIR application on Windows? I've made an Adobe AIR application and packaged it as a .air package using the standard AIR mechanism for creating deployment packages. If a normal or Power user tries to install this AIR application, the Application Event Log shows an error saying administrative rights are required. And even if the user elevates during installation, administrative rights are still required for an upgrade using the automated AIR upgrade system (since an upgrade is essentially, behind the scenes, an uninstallation of a .msi package followed by an installation of another .msi package). Is there any way around this? What I've tried so far is: Using the Group Policy editor, setting Windows Installer to elevate during installations. Doesn't work, since AIR attempts a "for all users" installation. Specifying My Documents as the installation directory. Doesn't work, since AIR attempts a "for all users" installation. Giving the user Modify access to the Program Files folder where the application would usually reside. Doesn't work, since this isn't a file permissions issue. Making the user a Power User. Doesn't work, since AIR attempts a "for all users" installation. I'm guessing that both installing and upgrading would work fine for a user if the AIR installer would attempt to make an "only for me" application installation instead of a "for all users" installation, and the user was a Power User, and possibly the application was installed to My Documents I'm also guessing that this problem doesn't exist on OSX and Linux, since they have more intuitive concepts for per-user application installations.

    Read the article

  • Why do people have to use multiple versions of jQuery in the same page?

    - by reprogrammer
    I have noticed that sometimes people have to use multiple versions of jQuery in the same page (See question 1 and question 2). I assume people have to carry old versions of jQuery because some pieces of their code is based on an older version of jQuery. Obviously, this approach causes inefficiency. The ideal solution is to refactor the old code to use the newer jQuery API. I wonder if there are tools that automate the process of upgrading a piece of code to use a newer version of jQuery. I've never written programs in in either Javascript or jQuery. So, I'd like to hear from programmers experienced in these language about their opinion on this issue. In particular, I'd like to know the following. How much of problem it is to have to load multiple versions of jQuery? Have you ever had to load multiple versions of any other library in the same page? Do you know of any refactoring tools that helps you migrate your code to use the updated API? Do you think such a refactoring tool is useful? Are you willing to use it?

    Read the article

  • What's it like being a financial programmer?

    - by Mike
    As a student who's done an internship at a Silicon Valley company(non-financial), I'm curious to know what it's like working for a financial company doing software development. I'd expect the hours to be longer, and the pay to be higher. Specifically, I have the following questions: What's the work/life balance really like? Are you expected to work 80 hours a week most weeks? For those who have worked in non-financial software engineering jobs, how does being a financial software engineer compare in terms of work/life balance? How much does it pay? I'm curious as to starting(i.e. just got a BS) pay, as well as "top out" pay. (I'd prefer concrete numbers - ballpark is fine). Also, bonuses would be useful information. What jobs do financial programmers typically have? Are most just general software engineers, or do people typically have very specialized(i.e. AI or systems) backgrounds? Also, do most programmers have PhDs? Are programmers typically required to be at work, or are financial companies generally flexible about letting programmers work from home? When at work, do programmers have to dress formally? What are the technology environments like? Are finance companies using state-of-the-art hardware and software, or are they generally more conservative in upgrading their equipment? What programming languages are typically used? If VBA(shudder) is used, is it a large part of a finance company's workflow? If you could turn back the clock, would you still be a financial programmer? I'm going to keep this post open a little bit longer to get some more responses.

    Read the article

  • Inserting "null" (literally) in to a stored procedure parameter.

    - by Nazadus
    I'm trying to insert the word "Null" (literally) in to a parameter for a stored procedure. For some reason SqlServer seems to think I mean NULL and not "Null". If I do a check for IF @LastName IS NULL // Test: Do stuff Then it bypasses that because the parameter isn't null. But when I do: INSERT INTO Person (<params>) VALUES (<stuff here>, @LastName, <more stuff here>); // LastName is 'Null' It bombs out saying that LastName doesn't accept nulls. I would seriously hate to have this last name, but someone does... and it's bombing the application. We're using SubSonic 2.0 (yeah, it's fairly old but upgrading is painful) as our DAL and stepping through it, I see it does create the parameters properly (for what I can tell). I've tried creating a temp table to see if I could replicate it manually but it seems to work just fine. Here is the example I create: DECLARE @myval VARCHAR(50) SET @myval = 'Null' CREATE TABLE #mytable( name VARCHAR(50)) INSERT INTO #mytable VALUES (@myval) SELECT * FROM #mytable DROP table #mytable Any thoughts on how I can fix this?

    Read the article

  • Documentation for java.util.concurrent.locks.ReentrantReadWriteLock

    - by Andrei Taptunov
    Disclaimer: I'm not very good at Java and just comparing read/writer locks between C# and Java to understand this topic better & decisions behind both implementations. There is JavaDoc about ReentrantReadWriteLock. It states the following about upgrade/downgrade for locks: Lock downgrading ... However, upgrading from a read lock to the write lock is not possible. It also has the following example that shows manual upgrade from read lock to write lock: // Here is a code sketch showing how to exploit reentrancy // to perform lock downgrading after updating a cache void processCachedData() { rwl.readLock().lock(); if (!cacheValid) { // upgrade lock manually #1: rwl.readLock().unlock(); // must unlock first to obtain writelock #2: rwl.writeLock().lock(); if (!cacheValid) { // recheck ... } ... } use(data); rwl.readLock().unlock(); Does it mean that actually the sample from above may not behave correctly in some cases - I mean there is no lock between lines #1 & #2 and underlying structure is exposed to changes from other threads. So it can not be considered as the correct way to upgrade the lock or do I miss something here?

    Read the article

  • Backing up my locally hosted rails apps in preparation for OS upgrade

    - by stephen murdoch
    I have some apps running on Heroku. I will be upgrading my OS in two weeks. The last time I upgraded though (6 months ago) I ran into some problems. Here's what I did: copied all my rails apps onto DVD upgraded OS transferred rails apps from DVD to new OS Then, after setting up new SSH-keys I tried to push to some of my heroku apps and, whilst I can't remember the exact error message off-hand, it more or less amounted to "fatal exception the remote end hung up" So I know that I'm doing something wrong here. First of all, is there any need for me to be putting my heroku hosted rails apps onto DVD? Would I be better just pulling all my apps from their heroku repos once I've done the upgrade? What do others do here? The reason I stuck them on DVD is because I tend to push a specific production branch to Heroku and sometimes omit large development files from it... Secondly, was this problem caused by SSH keys? Should I have backed up the old keys and transferred them from my old OS to my new one too, or is Heroku perfectly happy to let you change OS's like that? My solution in the end was to just create new heroku apps and reassign the custom domain names in heroku add-ons menu... I never actually though of pulling from the heroku repos as I tend to push a specific branch to heroku and that branch doesn't always have all the development files in it... I realise that the error message I mentioned doesn't particularly help anyone but I didn't think to remember it 6 months ago. Any advice would be appreciated PS - when I say upgrade, I mean full install of the new version with full format of the HDD.

    Read the article

  • Use the repository pattern when using PLINQO generated data?

    - by Chad
    I'm "upgrading" an MVC app. Previously, the DAL was a part of the Model, as a series of repositories (based on the entity name) using standard LINQ to SQL queries. Now, it's a separate project and is generated using PLINQO. Since PLINQO generates query extensions based on the properties of the entity, I started using them directly in my controller... and eliminated the repositories all together. It's working fine, this is more a question to draw upon your experience, should I continue down this path or should I rebuild the repositories (using PLINQO as the DAL within the repository files)? One benefit of just using the PLINQO generated data context is that when I need DB access, I just make one reference to the the data context. Under the repository pattern, I had to reference each repository when I needed data access, sometimes needing to reference multiple repositories on a single controller. The big benefit I saw on the repositories, were aptly named query methods (i.e. FindAllProductsByCategoryId(int id), etc...). With the PLINQO code, it's _db.Product.ByCatId(int id) - which isn't too bad either. I like both, but where it gets "harrier" is when the query uses predicates. I can roll that up into the repository query method. But on the PLINQO code, it would be something like _db.Product.Where(x = x.CatId == 1 && x.OrderId == 1); I'm not so sure I like having code like that in my controllers. Whats your take on this?

    Read the article

  • Why do people have to use multiple versions of jQuery on the same page?

    - by reprogrammer
    I have noticed that sometimes people have to use multiple versions of jQuery in the same page (See question 1 and question 2). I assume people have to carry old versions of jQuery because some pieces of their code is based on an older version of jQuery. Obviously, this approach causes inefficiency. The ideal solution is to refactor the old code to use the newer jQuery API. I wonder if there are tools that automate the process of upgrading a piece of code to use a newer version of jQuery. I've never written programs in in either Javascript or jQuery. So, I'd like to hear from programmers experienced in these language about their opinion on this issue. In particular, I'd like to know the following. How much of problem it is to have to load multiple versions of jQuery? Have you ever had to load multiple versions of any other library in the same page? Do you know of any refactoring tools that helps you migrate your code to use the updated API? Do you think such a refactoring tool is useful? Are you willing to use it?

    Read the article

  • Moving to .net 4 results in System.Transactions Critical: 0

    - by john
    Hi I have fully working project in .net 3.5SP1, with EF 1 ORM. I tried to upgrade to .net 4. No issue while upgrading... Then i ran the project and got a NullExecptionError, with no stack trace... and no way to debug. Looking at the output windows i can read this: System.Transactions Critical: 0 : <TraceRecord xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2004/10/E2ETraceEvent/TraceRecord" Severity="Critical"><TraceIdentifier>http://msdn.microsoft.com/TraceCodes/System/ActivityTracing/2004/07/Reliability/Exception/Unhandled</TraceIdentifier><Description>Unhandled exception</Description><AppDomain>OTCSouscriptions.vshost.exe</AppDomain><Exception><ExceptionType>System.NullReferenceException, mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089</ExceptionType><Message>Object reference not set to an instance of an object.</Message><StackTrace> at System.Windows.StyleHelper.GetInstanceValue(UncommonField`1 dataField, DependencyObject container, FrameworkElement feChild, FrameworkContentElement fceChild, Int32 childIndex, DependencyProperty dp, Int32 i, EffectiveValueEntry&amp;amp; entry) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.ReceivePropertySet(Object targetObject, XamlMember member, Object value, DependencyObject templatedParent) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.&amp;lt;&amp;gt;c__DisplayClass6.&amp;lt;LoadOptimizedTemplateContent&amp;gt;b__4(Object sender, XamlSetValueEventArgs setArgs) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.OnSetValue(Object eventSender, XamlMember member, Object value) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_ApplyPropertyValue(ObjectWriterContext ctx, XamlMember prop, Object value, Boolean onParent) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_DoAssignmentToParentProperty(ObjectWriterContext ctx) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_AssignProvidedValue(ObjectWriterContext ctx) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.WriteEndObject() at System.Xaml.XamlWriter.WriteNode(XamlReader reader) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.LoadTemplateXaml(XamlReader templateReader, XamlObjectWriter currentWriter) Any help appreciated... Thanks John

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79  | Next Page >